Antibiotics II & III Flashcards

(105 cards)

1
Q

what is topoisomerase II also called and what is it primarily for?

A

DNA gyrase
gram -

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2
Q

what is topoisomerase IV primarily for?

A

gram +

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3
Q

which fluoroquinolone has intrinsic affinity for topoisomerase II?

A

2G ciprofloxacin

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4
Q

which fluoroquinolone has intrinsic affinity for topoisomerase IV?

A

4G moxifloxacin

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5
Q

what is the spectrum of activity of fluoroquinolones?

A

gram +
gram -
atypical (intracellular organisms)

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6
Q

what is the MOA of fluoroquinolones?

A

inhibit DNA synthesis (topo II and topo IV) = bactericidal

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7
Q

1st gen fluoroquinolone

A

nalidixic acid

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8
Q

name the 2nd gen fluoroquinolones (4) and what they cover?

A

Ciprofloxacin
Ofloxacin
Norfloxacin
Enoxacin

gram -
atypical

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9
Q

name the 3rd gen fluoroquinolone and what it covers?

A

levofloxacin

gram -
gram +
atypical

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10
Q

name the 4th gen fluoroquinolones (3) and what they cover?

A

moxifloxacin
delafloxacin
gemifloxacin

gram -
gram +
atypical
anaerobes

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11
Q

what decreases the absorption of fluoroquinolones and should be avoided?

A

calcium

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12
Q

how is most levofloxacin excreted?

A

kidney

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13
Q

how is most ciprofloxacin excreted?

A

kidney

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14
Q

how is most moxifloxacin excreted?

A

liver

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15
Q

how should FQ’s be dosed and why?

A

QID/BID

long T 1/2

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16
Q

what medications have an increased DDI with ciprofloxacin due to its inhibition of CYP1A2? (2)

A

theophylline
caffeine

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17
Q

what is the only FQ used for enterococcus and MRSA?

A

delafloxacin

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18
Q

what are the names of the possible 5th generation FQs?

A

nemonoxacin
zabofloxacin

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19
Q

what are 4 ADR of FQs?

A

Skin rash/Sun sensitivity
Prolonged QT/Peripheral Neuropathy
Ruptured tendon
Increased risk of C. difficile
Neuro
GI disturbances

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20
Q

what patients are FQ contraindicated/not recommended in? why?

A

pregnancy
children

weakens cartilage

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21
Q

what is an ADR specific to ciprofloxacin?

A

photosensitivity

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22
Q

what 2 FQs + their generation cause tendonitis/tendon rupture, leading to a BBW?

A

ofloxacin (2G)
levofloxacin (3G)

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23
Q

if a patient has a history of cardiac complications, what ADR should we consider with the use of FQs? (2)

A

aortic dissection
aneurysm

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24
Q

which 2 FQs can be used for UTI?

A

ciprofloxacin (2G)
levofloxacin (3G)

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25
which 2 FQs can be used for respiratory tract infections?
levofloxacin (3G) moxifloxacin (4G)
26
since FQs are good for mycobacteria, they can help treat _______
multi-drug resistant tuberculosis
27
which FQ is considered a treatment for MRSA?
delafloxacin
28
what are the uses for ciprofloxacin? (4)
UTI anthrax traveler's diarrhea typhoid fever
29
what is the spectrum of activity of metronidazole?
gram - some gram + anaerobes intra-abdominal infections brain abscess 2nd line for pseudomembranous colitis H. pylori for PCN allergy
30
what are 2 ADR of metronidazole?
metallic taste disulfiram reaction with alcohol
31
sulfa- and MOA
sulfonamides folate antagonists
32
what drugs do sulfonamides have a DDI with? (3) why?
warfarin phenytoin methotrexate all bind to albumin
33
sulfonamides have a cross-sensitivity to which 4 medications/classes?
thiazides loop diuretics acetazolamide sulfonylureas
34
what are the ADR of sulfonamides? (4)
Steven-Johnsons Syndrome Skin rashes S - low solubility = crystalluria Serum albumin displacement = kernicterus
35
in which patients do sulfonamides cause hemolytic anemia?
G6PD deficient patients
36
what are 2 main ADRs of trimethoprim?
hyperkalemia megaloblastic anemia
37
to avoid megaloblastic anemia in a patient by giving them trimethoprim, what can we add to their treatment?
folinic acid
38
what are 7 uses for trime-sulfa?
UTI pneumonia in AIDS toxoplasmosis outpatient MRSA (SSTI) prostatitis norcardia infection sepsis/meningitis
39
a urinary tract anti-infective agent that goes through excretion where 25% of the dose is unchanged in the kidney
nitrofurantion
40
what is nitrofurantoin used for?
uncomplicated UTI
41
in which patients is nitrofurantoin CI in? (2)
CrCl < 40 elderly
42
what is a special ADR of nitrofurantoin?
brown urine N/V/D headache abdominal pain
43
what is the spectrum of activity for polymyxin B and E (colistin)?
gram - bacteria
44
what is polymyxin B used for?
bacteremia
45
what is polymyxin E used for?
UTI
46
what kind of antibiotics are aminoglycosides synergistic with?
cell wall inhibitors
47
why do aminoglycosides have little activity against anaerobes?
they transport into cells that are partially dependent on oxygen
48
what is the most toxic aminoglycoside?
neomycin
49
what is the spectrum of activity of aminoglycosides?
Gram - bacteria
50
what is the main organism that aminoglycosides treat?
severe pseudomonal infections
51
aminoglycosides are combined with beta-lactam antibiotics to treat what?
severe enterococcal infections
52
what is the elimination of aminoglycosides?
renal
53
what is topical neomycin used for?
eye, ear, skin infections
54
what is oral neomycin used for?
bowl sterilization prior to bowel sx
55
what is streptomycin used for? (2)
TB enterococcal endocarditis
56
what is plazomicin used for?
complicated, unresponsive UTI
57
what is paromomycin used for? (2)
tape worms intestinal amebiasis
58
which ribosomal subunit do aminoglycosides bind to?
30S
59
what are the 4 major ADR of aminoglycosides?
cross placenta nephrotoxicity ototoxicity neuromuscular blockade
60
in regards to ototoxicity, which aminoglycoside causes auditory problems?
amikacin
61
in regards to ototoxicity, which aminoglycosides cause vestibular impairment? (3)
gentamicin tobramycin streptomycin
62
what is inhaled tobramycin used for?
cystic fibrosis
63
what is the administration rout of aminoglycosides?
IV only
64
which 2 meds cannot be used with aminoglycosides?
ethacrynic acid cisplatin
65
a patient who is taking an aminoglycoside presents with muscle paralysis. how can this be reversed? (2)
neostigmine Ca gluconate
66
-cycline
tetracyclines
67
what is the spectrum of activity of tetracyclines?
gram + and gram -
68
what products cause a decreased absorption of tetracyclines? (4)
Ca, Mg, Fe, and Al
69
how are tetracyclines eliminated?
renal
70
how do tetracyclines become resistant?
over-expression of efflux pump
71
what does doxycycline specifically treat? (2)
CAP Malaria
72
what does minocycline specifically treat?
acne (oral or topical)
73
what does tetracycline specifically treat?
H. pylori
74
what are 2 general uses for tetracyclines?
infections by atypical (intracellular) organisms SSTI by MRSA, MSSA in patients with PCN allergy
75
what are the ADRs of tetracyclines? (5)
Bone defects Liver damage Abdominal pain Skin rash/Sun sensitivity Teeth discoloration
76
which patients should not use a tetracycline?
pregnancy lactation children less than 8 yo
77
-thromycin
macrolides
78
what is the spectrum of activity of macrolides?
gram +, some gram - intracellular (atypical) organisms
79
what ribosome subunit do macrolides bind to?
50S
80
how are macrolides eliminated?
liver
81
what are 3 therapeutic uses for macrolides?
strep pneum if PCN allergy atypical CAP
82
what is a specific use for azithromycin? how is it used?
H. flu once daily dosing
83
how is clarithromycin used?
BID
84
which macrolide does not have good oral absorption since it is acid labile?
erythromycin
85
what are some ADR of macrolides?
GI metallic taste QT prolongation
86
to avoid inhibiting P450 enzyme, which macrolide should we use since it interferes the least with P450?
azithromycin
87
what is the DOC for atypical pathogens in CAP?
erythromycin
88
what is the spectrum of activity of lincosamides (clindamycin)?
gram +
89
what ribosome subunit do lincosamides bind to?
50S
90
how are lincosamides eliminated?
liver
91
what is the distribution for lincosamides? where is it not distributed?
tissue bone NOT in CNS
92
what are 3 ADR of lincosamides (clindamycin)?
diarrhea BAD super-infection pseudomembranous collitis
93
in which patients should we avoid lincosamides?
patients with history of collitis
94
what are 5 therapeutic uses for lincosamides (clindamycin)?
aspiration pneumonia SSTI MRSA osteomyelitis topical for acne
95
-zolid
oxazolidinones
96
what ribosome subunit do oxazolidinones bind to?
50S
97
what is the spectrum of activity for oxazeolidinones?
gram +
98
what are 2 uses specific for tedizolid?
MRSA Linezolid-resistant MRSA
99
what are 5 uses for oxazolidinones?
MRSA VRE SSTI CAP nosocomial pneumonia
100
what are 2 ADR of oxazolidinones?
cheese reaction hypertensive crisis
101
a patient presents with serotonin syndrome. what drug class is the SSRI/SNRI interacting with? (2)
Oxazolidinone
102
name the streptogramin and it's spectrum of activity
quinupristin-dalfopristin Gram +
103
MOA of streptogramins?
protein synthesis inhibitor
104
what enzyme does streptogramin inhibit?
CYP3A4
105
what are ADR of streptogramins?
C. difficile angioedema