Anticonvulsants Flashcards

5 questions (90 cards)

1
Q

the clinical manifestation of an abnormal and excessive excitation of a population of neurons

A

seizure

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2
Q

a tendency toward recurrent seizures unprovoked by systemic or neurologic insults

A

epilepsy

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3
Q

occurs with an aura, epileptic cry, loss of consciousness and postural tone, tonic spasm of entire body, synchronous clonic movements, followed by confusion and sleep

A

tonic-clonic (grand mal)

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4
Q

brief loss of consciousness (5-10 secs), with local or widespread clonic movements (minor muscle twitching without loss of postural tone)

A

petit mal (absence)

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5
Q

in which patients do petit mal (absence) occur?

A

children

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6
Q

continuous or repeated attacks, can be grand mal or petit mal

A

status epilepticus

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7
Q

in which 2 acute disorders affecting the brain can status epilepticus occur in?

A

meningitis
encephalitis

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8
Q

individual remains conscious, is limited to certain muscles, specific sensory changes, and autonomic activity; may remain localized or may spread causing progressive symptoms

A

simple partial seizure

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9
Q

which seizure type is associated with Jacksonian Epilepsy?

A

simple partial seizure

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10
Q

impaired consciousness, usually originate in temporal or frontal lobes but spread to broader areas; cause flashbacks and stereotypes movements like chewing

A

complex partial seizures

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11
Q

what does treatment of a partial seizure evolving to a generalized seizure depend on?

A

type of generalized seizure that is triggered

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12
Q

what is more refractory to drug treatment than the common generalized seizures?

A

partial evolving to generalized

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13
Q

what is the pathophysiology of most seizures?

A

unknown etiology

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14
Q

what do antiepileptic drugs treat?

A

symptom of seizure
NOT underlying epileptic condition

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15
Q

what is the goal of antiepileptic drugs?

A

maximize QOL by minimizing seizures and ADRs

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16
Q

which 3 anticonvulsants decrease the excitability of the focus?

A

phenobarbital
primidone
ethosuximide

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17
Q

which 4 anticonvulsants prevent the spread of nervous activity?

A

phenytoin
phenobarbital
carbamazepine
valproate

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18
Q

which 4 anticonvulsants enhance inhibitory mechanisms?

A

phenobarbital
primidone
valproate
benzodiazepines

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19
Q

all anticonvulsants are specific for seizure type, except which one that is used for all types of seizures?

A

valproic acid

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20
Q

what are many anticonvulsants used for?

A

neuropathic pain

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21
Q

very painful, sharp electric-like spasms that usually last a few seconds-mins but can become constant

A

trigeminal neuralgia

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22
Q

what activities can trigger trigeminal neuralgia? (5)

A

brushing teeth
chewing
drinking/eating
lightly touching face
shaving

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23
Q

what is a risk factor for trigeminal neuralgia?

A

age (after 40)

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24
Q

what is the major cause of trigeminal neuralgia?

A

demyelination of the axons of the trigeminal nerve

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25
what are 2 other uses of anticonvulsants?
diabetic pain bipolar disorder
26
sedation can occur at therapeutic doses of anticonvulsants, except in these meds: (2)
phenytoin valproic acid
27
why are there potential drug interactions with anticonvulsants?
highly protein bound
28
why do some anticonvulsants reduce antibiotic efficacy?
some induce hepatic enzymes
29
which 2 drug types decrease anticonvulsant absorption?
antacids antihistamines
30
the first drug developed specifically to treat seizures and is non-sedating
phenytoin
31
what is the drug of choice for generalized tonic-clonic seizures?
phenytoin
32
what are the 4 uses for phenytoin?
generalized tonic-clonic seizures partial seizures status epilepticus trigeminal neuralgia
33
phenytoin is used as a backup treatment for _____
trigeminal neuralgia
34
drug that inhibits reactivation of Na channel and prevents post tetanic potentiation
phenytoin
35
what increases the effectiveness of phenytoin in its MOA?
high extracellular K
36
what does phenytoin do at greater than therapeutic concentrations?
interferes with Ca channel and neurotransmitter release
37
what is special about phenytoin's elimination?
has zero order kinetics at high doses (small increment of dose leads to toxicity)
38
what is the highest protein-bound anticonvulsant?
phenytoin (90%)
39
a patient taking phenytoin is experiencing nystagmus, diplopia, thought disorders and sedation. what is their plasma level?
20
40
a patient taking phenytoin is experiencing loss of consciousness, confusion, and hyperactivity. what is their plasma level?
30
41
a patient is taking phenytoin is experiencing lethargy, stupor, and coma. what is their plasms level?
40
42
what are the ADRs of phenytoin?
**P**450 inducer **H**irsutism **E**nlarged gums **T**eratogenic **O**steomalacia **I**ntereferes with B12 = megaloblastic anemia
43
what can be used to treat blood dyscrasias side effects of phenytoin?
folate
44
what can be used to prevent osteomalacia side effect of phenytoin?
vitamin D supplements
45
what is the drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia?
carbamazepine
46
what are the 3 uses for carbamazepine?
trigeminal neuralgia generalized tonic-clonic seizures partial seizures
47
drug that inhibits high frequency neuronal firing, inhibits reactivation of Na channels, and inhibits Ca influx
carbamazepine
48
what is the half-life of cabamazepine?
10-20 hours
49
what are the 5 ADRs of Carbamazepine? PATCH
**P**arkinsonism (involuntary movement) **A**plastic anemia / **A**granulocytosis **T**eratogenic / **T**aste disorder **C**onvulsions / **CNS** (dizziness, slurred speech, ataxia) **H**eadache
50
a patient presents with dizziness, diplopia, drowsiness, ataxia, and slurred speech. what are they experiencing?
carbamazepine overdose
51
one of the oldest, most effective and least toxic anticonvulsants that is the drug of choice for seizures in infants; particularly febrile
phenobarbital
52
what are the 3 uses for phenobarbital?
febrile seizure in infants generalized tonic-clonic partial seizures
53
drug class that enhances the binding to GABAa receptors, increasing Cl channel openings, which inhibits Ca currents, leading to decreased excitability
barbituates phenobarbital primidone
54
what is the half life of phenobarbital?
50-140 hours
55
what inactivates phenobarbital?
liver enzymes
56
phenobarbital decreases the efficacy of what drugs?
tetracycline + other antibiotics
57
how can we measure the plasma concentration of phenobarbital and other antiepileptics?
saliva
58
what are the 2 uses for primidone?
generalized tonic-clonic seizures complex partial seizures
59
what is the difference between primidone and phenobarbital in their PK?
primidone is completely absorbed after oral administration
60
what is the half life of primidone?
5-15 hours
61
what are the 5 ADR of phenobarbital and primidone (barbituates)?
sedation depressed cardio/pulm hepatotoxicity megaloblastic anemia osteomalacia
62
phenobarbital is not teratogenic, but enhances teratogenicity of ______when combined
phenytoin
63
what are 2 ADR specific to primidone?
acute toxicity acute psychosis in complex partial seizures
64
what is the drug of choice for absence seizures?
ethosuximide
65
which drug inhibits Ca channels through T-type Ca channels = reducing oscillatory behavior of thalamic neurons?
ethosuximide
66
how can plasma concentration of ethosuximide be measured?
saliva
67
what are the 4 ADR of ethosuximide?
Gi distress CNS depression (transient) bone marrow depression blood dyscrasias
68
what is the preferred drug in pregnancy?
ethosuximide
69
which drug prolongs the activation of Na channel, leading to decreased repetitive neuronal firing, inhibits T-type Ca channels, and increases GABA levels at higher than therapeutic doses?
valproic acid
70
what are the 5 uses for valproic acid?
absence seizures tonic-clonic seizures myoclonic seizures partial seizures neuropathic pain
71
what is the half-life of valproic acid?
10-15 hours
72
how is valproic acid excreted?
in urine
73
what are the 4 ADR of valproic acid? HATS
**H**epatotoxicity **A**bdominal (GI) distress **T**eratogenic **S**edation
74
which drug class enhances the binding of GABA to GABAa receptors, increasing the frequency of opening GABA Cl channels? and at higher concentrations, act on Na channels like phenytoin and carbamazepine?
benzodiazepines clonazepam clorazepate diazepam lorazepam
75
what are the 2 uses for clonazepam?
"the **clone** makes the **myoclonic absent**" absence seizures myoclonic seizures
76
what is the use for clorazepate?
"the **lor** is only **partially** correct" partial seizures
77
which 2 benzodiazepines can treat status epilepticus?
diazepam lorazepam
78
the major metabolite of clorazepate and diazepam that has anticonvulsant activity
desmethyldiazepam
79
what are 2 ADR of benzodiazepines?
tolerance w/ 1-6 mo of treatment hyperactivity in children
80
which drug binds to voltage dependent Ca channels, and has a GABA analogue but does not interact with GABA receptors?
gabapentin
81
what are the 3 uses of gabapentin?
partial seizures trigeminal neuralgia neuropathic pain
82
how is gabapentin excreted?
renal, unchanged
83
what are the 2 uses for lamotrigine?
partial seizures bi-polar depression
84
MOA of lamotrigine?
acts on Na channels
85
what is the ADR of lamotrigine?
"lamotrigine is a **lamo** and causes **SJS**" stevens-johnson syndrome; severe skin rash
86
what drug reduces lamotrigine half life from 24 to 12 hours? why?
carbamazepine induces liver enzymes
87
which drug increases lamotrigine half life up to 60 hours?
valproate
88
what is the use for felbamate?
partial seizures
89
what is the major ADR of felbamate? what did that lead to?
aplastic anemia bone marrow transplants
90
which drug is only approved for restricted use?
felbamate