Endocrine I Flashcards

(103 cards)

1
Q

most negative feedback inhibition of hormones is reversible, except what?

A

prolonged glucocorticoid therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which pancreatic cells release insulin into the blood when blood glucose levels rise?

A

beta cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which pancreatic cells release glucagon into the blood when blood glucose levels drop?

A

alpha cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus that results in no circulating insulin; needs insulin replacement

A

type 1 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is type 1 diabetes mellitus also known as?

A

juvenile-onset diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

insulin resistance with relative insulin deficiency, but enough present to prevent ketoacidosis

A

type 2 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is type 2 DM also known as?

A

non-insulin dependent DM
adult-onset DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the first 3 things to try before insulin, in patients with type 2 DM?

A

oral Rx
diet
exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

diabetes of non-pancreatic cause; can be drug induced

A

type 3 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are 3 drug types that can cause type 3 DM?

A

glucocorticoids
immunosuppressants
atypical antipsychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

gestational DM; glucose intolerance at onset or recognition of pregnancy

A

type 4 DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

a patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and fatigue. what are they likely experiencing?

A

acute hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

a patient presents with capillary damage, neuropathy, decreased gastric emptying, arterial narrowing, PVD, and increased risk of infections. what are they likely experiencing?

A

chronic hyperglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what should be monitored to manage hyperglycemia?

A

HbA1c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does insulin inhibit? (2)

A

glycogenolysis
lipolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how does GLUT-4 and exercise help with hyperglycemia?

A

increases cellular uptake of glucose into muscles and fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are different insulin dosage regimens designed to mimic?

A

prandial and basal release of insulin from the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is a bolus of insulin used for and what is the dose based on (3)?

A

postprandial hyperglycemia

BG, carbohydrate content, and concurrent activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what can inhaled insulin cause? (3)

A

cough
decreased PFT
lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

in which patient is inhaled insulin contraindicated in?

A

patients with COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are 2 things that can cause hypoglycemia when taking meds?

A

dose
mismatch between maximal peak activity and food intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what can exacerbate hypoglycemia? (2)

A

exercise
alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the order in which to take medication to treat hypoglycemia?

A

Test blood
Inject insulin
Eat food

TIE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

a patient presents with tachycardia, sweating, blurred vision, feeling warm, trembling, confusion, drowsiness, and weakness. what are they likely experiencing?

A

hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what drug class can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia?
beta blocker
26
side effects that are common in bovine and porcine injections
lipohypertrophy lipoatrophy
27
what are 4 main side effects that can present while using hypoglycemics to control hyperglycemia?
hypoglycemia lipohypertrophy lipoatrophy weight gain
28
gut hormones (like glucagon-like peptide - GLP-1) that stimulate insulin release upon food intake; extent of release is proportional to glucose level
incretins
29
drug class that increases gene expression for GLUT-1 and GLUT-4 = increase glucose uptake, increase tissue sensitivity to insulin, and decrease hepatic glucose production
thiazolidinediones (glitazones)
30
-zone
glitazones (thiazolidinediones)
31
2 drug classes that stimulate insulin release from pancreas
sulfonylureas meglitinides
32
which sulfonylurea causes hypoglycemia risk in elderly patients?
chlorpropamide
33
why should patients avoid alcohol if they take a 1st generation sulfonylurea?
can cause disulfiram reaction
34
-mide
1st gen sulfonylureas
35
4 G's
2nd gen sulfonylureas
36
what are 4 ADR of sulfonylureas?
sulfonylureas give me hypoglycemia, diarrhea (GI disturbances), and photosensitivity (PK DDI)
37
if a patient is taking a sulfonylurea, what should we educate about? (2)
sunscreen use avoid alcohol
38
drug class that has a rapid onset and short DOA, and is used for patients with postprandial hyperglycemia
meglitinides
39
-nide
meglitinides
40
what are 3 ADR that can occur while taking a meglitinide?
Meg likes to eat so she has weight gain, but also hypoglycemia (PK DDI)
41
first line medication for hyperglycemia that has the least potential of causing hypoglycemia
metformin (biguanide class)
42
what is the MOA of metformin?
decreases production of glucose by the liver
43
what are 2 ADR for metformin?
(met) formin didn't believe lactose intolerance (lactic acidosis) caused diarrhea
44
drug class that slows carbohydrate absorption by the intestines
alpha glucosidase inhibitors
45
what are the 2 drugs in the class alpha glucosidase inhibitors?
the alpha glucose inhibitor had a car(bose) and it was mig(lit)ol
46
what are the 2 ADR of alpha glucosidase inhibitors?
a car(bose) always makes me mig(lit)ol but gives me diarrhea/flatulence
47
what are the 3 ADR/risk of glitazones?
the glitazones affect the cardiac zone = fluid retention/edema MI CHF
48
in which patients should glitazones be avoided?
patients with heart failure
49
drug class that inhibits secretion of glucagon and delays gastric emptying, decreases postprandial glucose and carbohydrate absorption in the gut
amylinomimetic
50
what drug is an amylinomimetic?
pramlintide
51
what are the 4 ADR of amylinomimetics?
Amy and Pram gave me such a HEADACHE, they made me NAUSEOUS (VOMITING) and ANOREXIC
52
gut hormones (GLP-1) that stimulate release of insulin upon food intake
incretins
53
-tide
GLP-1 analogs (agonists)
54
in incretin mimetics, the extend of release of insulin is proportional to _____ levels
glucose
55
what is an ADR of GLP-1 agonists (analogs)?
pancreatitis
56
-gliptin
DDP-4 inhibitors
57
what is the MOA of DDP-4 inhibitors?
inhibits the removal of GLP-1 by DDP-4 to increase the half-life of GLP-1
58
what are the 2 ADRs of DDP-4 inhibitors?
headache nausea
59
drug class that inhibits glucose reabsorption from the nephron (kidney) = resultant glucosuria lower BG
SGLT 2 inhibitors
60
-flozin
SGLT2 inhibitor
61
in which patients should SGLT 2 inhibitors be avoided in?
patients with renal insufficiency
62
a patient taking an SGLT 2 inhibitor has a significant risk of what?
ketoacidosis
63
what are the 4 ADR of SGLT 2 inhibitors?
with all the peeing in SGLT 2 inhibitors, we have hypotension, dehydration, UTI and decreased bone density
64
when does DKA usually occur when using a drug for hyperglycemia?
with off-label use of SGLT 2 inhibitors in type 1 DM
65
which 2 meds have the highest risk and BBW for hypoglycemia?
insulin and pams insulin pramlintide + insulin injection
66
how is pramlintide used?
with mealtime insulin as an injection
67
which 2 drug classes have the 2nd highest risk for hypoglycemia?
sulfy's and megs (sulfonylureas and meglitinides)
68
what should be monitored while managing hyperglycemia in a patient? (3)
weight BG HbA1c
69
what is the best emergency drug to manage hypoglycemia, via a parenteral route? (2)
parenteral glucagon IV dextrose
70
how does parenteral glucagon manage hypoglycemia in a patient?
binds to receptor in liver and increases cAMP = gluconeogenesis
71
what route, besides IV, is glucagon now available in?
dry powder for nasal mucosa
72
how can we manage a patient that presents with hyperglycemia crisis (DKA)?
IV infusion of regular insulin + fluid
73
after giving a hyperglycemic patient insulin, what should we worry about?
hypokalemia due to shift of K into cells
74
a patient presents with hyperglycemic crisis. We give insulin + fluids but they start to experience cramps and arrhythmias. what are they likely experiencing?
hypokalemia
75
what are 3 meds that can cause a hyperglycemic crisis?
thiazide diuretics glucocorticoids off-label use of SGLT2 inhibitors in type 1 DM
76
most circulating T3 and T4 bind significantly to what?
thyroxine-binding globulins
77
which medication blocks organification of iodine, preventing the release of T4 and T3 and inhibits Na/I symporter?
lugol's solution
78
which drug class prevents iodide organification and the synthesis of T4 and T3?
thionamides
79
which thionamide is the only one capable of preventing peripheral conversion of T4 to T3?
PTU
80
what can be given to stop the production of T3 and T4 OR stop the release of T4?
radioactive iodine
81
what are 2 ablative/currative treatments for hyperthyroidism?
radioactive iodine therapy thyroidectomy
82
what is the 1st line treatment for hyperthyroidism in pregnancy, children <12, and Graves disease?
palliative care = meds
83
what is the most commonly used treatment for hyperthyroidism?
thionamides
84
what are the 3 thionamides used for hyperthyroidism and which one is preferred/why?
methimazole - preferred d/t less hepatitis carbimazole propylthiouracil (PTU)
85
what are the ADR of thionamides? (4)
Thanos was so itchy (rash) to taste/smell (altered in methimazole) revenge, that he killed everyone (polyarthritis) but it was (reversible agranulocytosis)
86
if a patient is taking a thionamide, what should we check periodically/what they should watch out for?
CBC fever sore throat
87
what should we check in any patient taking PTU for hyperthyroidism?
check LFT - can cause severe hepatitis
88
what are anion inhibitors called? what do they do?
Na/I symporter inhibitors block uptake of iodide
89
-ate
Na/I symporter inhibitors
90
2 iodides that inhibit hormone release and organification, often used with thionamides for thyroid storm
lugol's solution SSKI (potassium iodide)
91
what are the ADR of iodides? (6)
hypersensitivity to iodide reversible iodism - metallic taste burning mouth sore teeth cross placenta
92
which medications can be used for SNS symptoms in hyperthyroidism?
beta blockers (propranolol)
93
what is important to remember when giving a patient a beta blocker to help with angina, HTN, or heart failure?
can mask hyperthyroidism
94
in a patient that is experiencing thyroid storm, what would we given them to prevent adrenal insufficiency (decrease in cortisol)?
prednisolone
95
what are 3 other drugs that inhibit the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3?
amiodarone corticosteroids iodinated contrast media
96
what are 2 drugs used to treat hypothyroidism?
levothyroxine (DOC) liothyronine
97
what is the difference between levothyroxine and liothyronine?
levothyroxine is a synthetic and chemically pure T4 liothyronine is a synthetic and chemically pure T3
98
liothyronine has a faster onset, but also has _____ _____
more ADR
99
why does levothyroxine have a slow onset? (3)
converted to T3 in periphery is metabolized by the liver and is highly protein bound
100
mnemonic for ADR of liothyronine
"since liothyronine is T3 and has faster onset, it has ADR that mimic hyperthyroidism" increased HR/BP arrhythmias angina tremor heat intolerance headache weight loss
101
if a patient is taking liothyronine, what should we monitor?
vital signs weight
102
T3 and T4 combination drug
liotrix
103
thyroid extract from animals that is unstable and has protein antigenicity
desiccated thyroid