Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Biochemistry > Anticancer Therapies, Radiation, and Drugs > Flashcards

Anticancer Therapies, Radiation, and Drugs Flashcards

(69 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

If p53 doesn’t get signaled, what happens to the progression of the cancer cells?

A

they are blocked because p53 is not activated and there is no leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

It is not only the duration of exposure that increases the risk of cancer development, but a ____ factor associated with that.

A

time/age (time or age of onset)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the treatment designed to induce, enhance, or suppress the immune system?

A

immunotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some facial features of a patient in prednisolone?

A

swollen face and prominent cheeks from water retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the chromosomal translocation associated with AML M3?

A

translocation of the RARA (#17) with the PML (#15)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some potential risk factors for cancer development?

A
  • radiation exposure
  • UV light from the sun
  • chemicals
  • life style
  • viruses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some of the certain genetic conditions that increase the risk of a patient developing ALL?

A 
Down syndrome
Ataxia telangiectasia
Bloom syndrome
Neurofibramatosis
Schwachman syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Diagnostic x-rays generate ___ radiation than energies from radiation therapy.

A

less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the goal of the maintenance therapy phase?

A

to kill any remaining leukemia cells that could cause a relapse with lower doses of treatment medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

____ binds irreversibly to microtubules and spindle proteins in the S phase of the cell cycle and interferes with the formation of the mitotic spindle to arrest tumor cells in metaphase.

A

Vincristine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Is dental care significantly different in individuals who has childhood lymphomas and leukemias?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens when p53 is phosphorylated?

A

MDM2 gets removed and p53 binds to the regulatory region of the p21 gene, which is a CDK inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Currently, what is the easiest AML subtype to treat?

A

AML M3 (Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

____ forms complexes with iron that reduce molecular oxygen to superoxide and hydroxyl radicals which cause breaks in the DNA.

A

Bleomycin sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When Gleevec is bound to the Bcr-Abl gene, ___ cannot be phosphorylated and activated.

A

p53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

____ places itself between base pairs in the DNA helix, preventing DNA replication to inhibit protein synthesis and forms oxygen free radicals that have cytotoxicity in the cell.

A

Doxorubicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are three hallmark symptoms of ALL?

A

joint and bone pain
foul-smelling urine
easily bruised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the key properties of cancer cells?

A
  • they reproduce without regard to normal restraints on cell growth and division
  • the invade and colonize areas normally reserved for other cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does CML get treated? What does its treatment target?

A

the Bcr-Abl fusion protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the first sign of ALL?

A

bone and joint pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A single mutation is not enough to cause cancer. Inherited mutations confer ___ of developing cancer.

A

increase risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is p21?

A

a CDK inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What binding site does Gleevec bind to to prevent the phosphorylation of p53?

A

ATP-binding site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If p53 prevents the cell from entering the cell cycle (an inhibitor of the cell cycle), it is considered a ____.

A

tumor suppressor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What does the translocation of the Philadelphia chromosome create?
a fusion gene protein between Bcr and Abl genes
26
Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) is associated with an overgrowth of the ____ cell population.
granulocyte
27
Patients with ____ can develop blood-clotting and bleeding problems.
AML M3
28
What does the phosphorylation of p53 eventually lead to?
the inactivation of G1/S CDK and S-CDK via p21 action
29
How many different subtypes of AML are there, based upon the cell that the leukemia develops from?
8
30
In what phases of the cell cycle is p53 involved?
G1/S-CDK S-CDK M-CDK
31
What does the RARA-PML fusion protein bind with high affinity to?
sites on DNA important for granulocyte differentiation
32
Which cancer therapy has a radioisotope given internally?
Internal Radiation Therapy
33
____ binds to tubulin and inhibits microtubule formation, resulting in disruption of mitotic spindle assembly and arrest of tumor cells in the M phase of the cell cycle.
Vinblastine
34
____ is a treatment that targets the RARA-PML cancerous fusion protein that causes AML M3.
all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA)
35
____ is a synthetic glucocorticoid that binds to and activates specific nuclear receptors, resulting in altered gene expression and inhibition of pro-inflammatory cytokine production. It stimulates apoptosis in sensitive tumor cell populations.
Prednisolone
36
____ therapy uses a particle accelerator to beam high energy particles to better localize the radiation dosage and cause less damage to surrounding tissues.
Charged Particle or Proton Therapy
37
What is the goal of the induction phase?
to kill the leukemia cells in the blood and bone marrow to put the leukemia into remission
38
Which type of cancer is best treated with internal radiation therapy?
thyroid cancer (with radioactive iodine)
39
Tumors or ____ are abnormal cells that grow (increase in mass) and proliferate (divide).
neoplasms
40
When does the phosphorylation of p53 occur?
when DNA damage is detected by CHK1/2 kinases
41
How are p53's levels regulated?
post-transcriptionally
42
Do all tumors metastasize?
NO
43
What type of cancer is leading in new cases per year?
reproductive tract cancers of epithelium
44
What is CML caused by?
chromosomal translocation called the Philadelphia chromosome
45
___ works by direct ionization of atoms in the DNA chain or indirectly by ionization of water to form hydroxyl radicals that can then damage DNA.
Photon therapy (X-ray/Gamma Ray)
46
What happens if ALL gets into the spinal fluid?
they sequester in there and hide (most relapses come from spinal or brain re-colonization)
47
____ forms highly charged platinum complexes which bind to GC-rich sites in DNA, inducing many cross-links to cause apoptosis.
Cisplatin
48
What does radiation induce and what does it lead to?
DNA damage; cell death
49
____ is part of an immune checkpoint control system that keeps immune cells from attacked themselves.
PD-1
50
What is the goal of the consolidation phase?
to kill any remaining leukemia cells that may not be active but could begin to grow and cause a relapse
51
What is the basic strategy for treating cancer with drugs or radiation?
to induce so much damage to the tumor cells via DNA damage that they cannot divide (so, induce cell death)
52
Where do the plant derivatives that 70% of cancer drugs are synthesized from come from?
the rainforest
53
What is another important factor in the prognosis of a patient with ALL?
how quickly and how low the leukemia cell count drops after initial treatment
54
What are some risk factors of ALL?
- being exposed to x-rays before birth - being exposed to radiation - past treatment with chemotherapy - having certain changes in the genes - having certain genetic conditions
55
____ inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which results in the inhibition of purine nucleotide and thymidylate synthesis, eventually halting DNA and RNA synthesis.
Methotraxate
56
Under normal conditions, p53 is bound by another protein called ____. What does this lead to?
MDM2; p53 being ubiquinylated and degraded
57
When are tumors considered benign?
if neoplastic cells do not become invasive
58
In the case of ___, the bone marrow is producing too many immature lymphocytes.
Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
59
Does ATRA kill the immature leukemic promyelocytes?
NO - just induces their terminal differentiation to eventually undergo apoptosis
60
___ is leukemia characterized by increased production and growth of myeloid cells in the bone marrow that then circulate in the blood.
CML
61
Why does the overall incidence of cancer increase with age?
because the longer we live, the more mutations we accumulate or encounter a second "hit"
62
____ uses a machine to send high energy beams from outside the body to the tumor area.
External Beam Therapy
63
The protein ___ mediates the cellular response to DNA damage and induces cell death or cell-cycle arrest.
p53
64
When are tumors considered malignant?
when they acquire the ability to invade surrounding tissue
65
What is the parent drug used to treat CML?
Gleevec (imatinib)
66
What is the most important factor in assessing the prognosis of a patient with ALL?
what the WBC count is (lower numbers signify a higher change of survial)
67
What medications target PD-1 on T-cells?
Opdivo and Keytruda
68
What are the sites called where secondary tumors form?
metastases
69
What are the three phases of leukemia treatment?
1) induction 2) consolidation 3) maintenance

Biochemistry (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions