Antitubercular agents (part 4) Flashcards

1
Q

TB incubation period

A

2-10 weeks

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2
Q

Risk of progressive TB disease greatest in first ___ years?

A

2

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3
Q

what kind of immune response is caused by TB??

A

cell mediated

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4
Q

how long do TB cultures take?

A

6 weeks

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5
Q

what does TB diagnosis rely on?

A

AFB smear

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6
Q

TB sites

A

lungs, urinary tract, bone

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7
Q

primary TB

A

initial infection with the disease

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8
Q

reactivation of TB

A

patient infected in past has reactivation of disease

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9
Q

assume TB is contagious is they show which symptoms?

A

cough, undergoing cough inducing procedures, sputum smear is positive until 3 neg, pt needs to be on treatment at least 1 week, not responding to treatment

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10
Q

0.1cc of PPD with 5TU is injected to test what

A

to test for exposure

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11
Q

what will PPD show if positive

A

> 5mm induration

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12
Q

How much prophylaxis supply of INH medication do you give? dose?

A

1 month supply

dose: 300mg PO QD

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13
Q

Length of TB treatment

A

6-12 months

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14
Q

INH, RIF, PZA are commonly used in which patients?

A

pediatrics

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15
Q

EMB is not recommenced for which age group?

A

<13

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16
Q

Streptomycin is not recommended for use in which age group?

A

children

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17
Q

<5 yr old, what testing do they need?

A

color vision testing

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18
Q

do TB meds appear in breast milk?

A

yes, but do not discourage breakfeeding

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19
Q

pregnancy category for TB meds?

A

C, give because benefits outweigh risk, not shown to be toxic

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20
Q

We see prophylaxis TB patients every month, what do we monitor?

A

liver damage, fatigue, weakness, paresthesias of hands/feet, dark urine

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21
Q

who is at greatest risk for developing INH hepatitis?

A

> 35, drinkers, hs liver disease, taking meds that are toxic to the liver

22
Q

if you see s/s of toxicity what do you do?

A

DC INH immediately

23
Q

What do we monitor in patients for active tb?

A

chest xray at bassine then q6 months, sputum smear and culture at baseline then monthly until negative

24
Q

which specific monitoring do we do with INH?

A

periodic ophthalmologic exams

25
which specific monitoring do we do with PZA?
blood glucose levels
26
which specific monitoring do we do with EMB?
color vision for red/green at baseline and q2-3 months
27
which specific monitoring do we do with SM?
audiogram prior to Tx then q2-3 month
28
Is INH bacteriostatic or cidil?
both
29
how does INH affect TB?
interferes with lipid and nucleic acid biosynthesis
30
INH adverse effects?
urine orange-red, fever, rash, abnormal LFTs
31
N/V, dizziness, slurring speech, blueing of vision, visual hallucination are all s/s of early or late INH overdose?
early
32
respiratory distress, CNS depression are all s/s of early or late INH overdose ?
late
33
do you take INH on an empty stomach?
yes, minimize alcohol consumption
34
which foods should you avoid when taking INH?
wine, hard cheese, liver, tuna, sauerkraut
35
Is Rifampin bacteriostatic or cidil?
both
36
which drug suppresses RNA synthesis?
Rifampin
37
if we give Rifampin at higher doses what s/s do we see
flu like symptoms, hematopoietic reactions
38
Do you take Rifampin on an empty stomach?
yes
39
Is Pyrazinamide bacteriostatic or cidil?
depends on dose
40
how are diabetic patients affected with PZA?
BS control is harder to control
41
most common adverse affects of PZA?
gout and hepatic toxicity
42
does PZA have a P450 interaction?
no
43
Is Ethambutol HCL (EMB) bacteriostatic or cidil?
cidial but only active against mycobacterium
44
optic neuritis, loss of acuity, loss of red-green discrimination are sever adverse effects of which drug?
Ethambutol HCL (EMB)
45
which may delay/reduce absorption of EMB?
aluminum salts
46
Do you takeEthambutol HCL (EMB) with or without food?
take with food
47
Is Cycloserine bacterial static or cidil?
both
48
when do you give Ethionamide?
when first line drugs fail
49
Should you take Ethionamide with or without food?
take with food
50
tremor, psychosis, somnolence, depression, confusion, vertigo, convulsions are adverse effects of which drug?
Cycloserine