APK - August 1998

Question 1

The following apply to anteromedial rotatory instability of the knee except

a. Anterior subluxation of the medial tibial condyle occurs with anteromedial rotatory subluxation
b. May be accentuated by a tear of the anterior cruciate ligament
c. Occurs with tears of the medial and lateral compartment ligaments
d. Result of abduction stress test is positive with the knee at 30 degrees of flexion as is the result of the anterior drawer test with the tibia externally rotated
e. Occurs with a tear of the medial compartment ligaments, including the posterior oblique ligament

Answer 1

c. Occurs with tears of the medial and lateral compartment ligaments

Question 2

The following statements characterize vibration syndrome, EXCEPT:

a. Common symptoms include intermittent numbness and tingling in the fingers
b. Exposure to cold with not trigger vasospasm in the fingers
c. There is recurrent episode of finger blanching due to complete closure of digital arteries
d. Condition is caused in part by forceful gripping prolonged use of vibrating tools
e. Also referred to as white finger or Reynaud’s phenomenon

Answer 2

b. Exposure to cold with not trigger vasospasm in the fingers

Question 3

Patellofemoral pain (PFP) is a prominent knee complaint. The following describes the mechanism most widely thought to cause PFP, EXCEPT:

a. Abnormal patellar tracking which can lead to excessive strain on both prepatellar retinacular supports and the articular cartilage
b. The vastus lateralis is hypothesized to contract simultaneously as the vastus medialis oblique muscle rather than earlier
c. Asynchronous timing of vastus muscle contraction has been postulated to contribute to patellar instability
d. A hypothesis suggests that there is an imbalance between the primary dynamic patellar stabilizers, resulting in lateral tracking and malalignment
e. The lateral pull of the vastus lateralis muscle is not adequately counteracted by the medial pull of the vastus medialis oblique muscle

Answer 3

b. The vastus lateralis is hypothesized to contract simultaneously as the vastus medialis oblique muscle rather than earlier

Question 4

Continuous standing, particularly on a hard surface, can cause fatigue and stress on the back, legs, and feet. Improvements in workstation design include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Opportunities to change positions, move around, or alternate between sitting or standing
b. Feet must remain flat on the floor
c. Provide cushioned in soles
d. Provide anti-fatigue mats or other floor materials which provides cushioning
e. Provide stools or sit-lean stands

Answer 4

b. Feet must remain flat on the floor

Question 5

This is the most common method for lifting and allows full use of good body mechanics principles. To perform the lift, the individual should establish a wide base of support and straddle the object with one foot slightly ahead of the other:

Golfer’s lift
Diagonal lift
Tripod lift
Power lift
Deep squat lift

Answer 5

Diagonal lift

Question 6

Which hip-repair surgical procedure is indicated for pain in early stages of degenerative joint disease before motion has been lost?

Double-cup arthroplasty
Femoral prosthesis
Muscle release
Arthrodesis
Displacement Osteotomy

Answer 6

Displacement Osteotomy

Question 7

Following are true of macro-trauma, EXCEPT:

a. Results injuries repetitive injury
b. Direct injuries result in a joint-closing (compression) type of injury
c. Results from an injury of a magnitude that causes immediate clinical signs and symptoms
d. Indirect macro-traumatic mechanisms include joint distraction and rotation or transmitted torque
e. A single-incident injury manifested by strain or sprain or contusion

Answer 7

a. Results injuries repetitive injury

Question 8

The following statements describe true leg length discrepancy, EXCEPT:

a. To determine true leg length discrepancy, measure the distance from the anterior superior iliac spines to the medial malleolus of the ankles
b. With the subjects in supine with knees flexed to 90 degrees and feet flat on the table, if one knee appears higher than the other, the femur of that extremity is longer
c. With the subject in supine with knees flexed to 90 degrees and feet flat on the table, if one knee projects further anteriorly than the other, the femur of the extremity is longer
d. A fracture that crossed the epiphyseal plate during childhood may result in true leg length discrepancy
e. Measurement begins at the slight concavity must below the anterior superior iliac spine

Answer 8

b. With the subjects in supine with knees flexed to 90 degrees and feet flat on the table, if one knee appears higher than the other, the femur of that extremity is longer

Question 9

The following statements apply to alveolar dead space, EXCEPT:

a. All of these
b. A condition that occurs when blood flow is blocked by a pulmonary embolus
c. Selected alveoli are replaced with scar tissue, decreasing ventilation to areas with normal perfusion
d. A result of vascular abnormalities
e. The volume of gas in alveoli that is ventilated but poorly perfused or under-perfused

Answer 9

c. Selected alveoli are replaced with scar tissue, decreasing ventilation to areas with normal perfusion

Question 10

Molecules or ions are moved uphill against an electrical or pressure gradient across cell membranes in a process called:

Osmosis
Active transport
None of these
Diffusion

Answer 10

Active transport

Question 11

The following statements describe Parkinson’s Disease, EXCEPT:

a. It affects mostly the elderly
b. Bradykinesia and rigidity are characteristics of the disease
c. It is due to the degeneration of the dopaminergic neurons
d. Its clinical manifestations include tremors
e. It can be completely reversed by giving L-dopa

Answer 11

e. It can be completely reversed by giving L-dopa

Question 12

The following statements apply to halo skeletal traction, EXCEPT:

a. This is applied to reduce or immobilize stable cervical fractures of dislocations
b. The halo is a metal ring that is secured around the patient’s head by four pins, two anterior and two posterior
c. None of these
d. Permitting mobility is an advantage of halo traction over other forms, reducing respiratory and circulatory problems and muscle atrophy
e. Because of the pins penetrate the skull only about ⅛+. Skin incisions and drill holes are not necessary, reducing the risk of infection

Answer 12

c. None of these

Question 13

Rupture of this ligament shows that the tibia can be pulled excessively forward on the femur:

Posterior Cruciate Ligament
Medial Collateral Ligament
Lateral Collateral Ligament
Anterior Cruciate Ligament

Answer 13

Anterior Cruciate Ligament

Question 14

The goal of postural regulation is to stabilize the head with respect to the vertical. The following statements describe this stabilization concept, EXCEPT:

a. None of these
b. Predetermined response appears to be formed through experience with self-initiated goal-directed activity
c. Meter input is used primarily for “knowledge of response” to make appropriate adjustments in subsequent anticipatory postural actions
d. Geocentric frame of reference enable anticipation or prediction of center of force displacements that are induced by voluntary motion
e. Corrections of head position occur in advance of a voluntary change in body position

Answer 14

c. Meter input is used primarily for “knowledge of response” to make appropriate adjustments in subsequent anticipatory postural actions

Question 15

The following statements are true in supracondylar and condylar fracture, EXCEPT:

a. Traction is treatment of choice
b. Traction is not indicated in this type of fracture
c. For transverse or oblique fractures, and other fractures that aren’t complex, internal fixation may be used
d. Rod, nail, plate or screws may be used as internal fixation device
e. Internal fixation carries risk of damage to the sciatic or popliteal artery

Answer 15

b. Traction is not indicated in this type of fracture

Question 16

This type of muscle has a great stabilizing component:

Spurt
Isotonic
Isometric
Shunt
Concentric

Answer 16

Shunt

Question 17

The following describe the 6-minute walk test (6MW), EXCEPT:

a. The patient is encouraged to cover as much as possible le over a flat, measure coursed in 6 minutes
b. Used to assess exercise tolerance in patients with pulmonary disease
c. Supplemental oxygen is administered as needed to maintain oxygen saturation above a prescribed level (usually 88%-90%)
d. The patient is allowed to stop and rest as needed, but the clock is not stopped
e. It is essential not to repeat the 6MW and report the better effort

Answer 17

e. It is essential not to repeat the 6MW and report the better effort

Question 18

The following statements apply to mononeuropathy, EXCEPT:

a. Multiple single-nerve paresis are often due to disseminated vasculitis and infarction of nerve trunks
b. Refers to a dysfunction of a single nerve, not several nerves that are separately involved without general affliction of the peripheral nervous system
c. May be caused by primary “neuritis” related to viral infection
d. Examples include the paralysis of the facial nerve and of the ninth-tenth cranial nerve complex
e. Etiology is usually vascular occlusive disease or vasculitis, trauma of some kind, of impingement

Answer 18

b. Refers to a dysfunction of a single nerve, not several nerves that are separately involved without general affliction of the peripheral nervous system

Question 19

Waddell’s nonorganic signs assess a patient’s pain behavior in response to certain maneuvers. Which of the following signs indicate a positive simulation test?

a. Cogwheeling of many muscle groups that cannot be explained on a neurological basis
b. Marked improvement of straight leg raising of distraction as compared with formal testing
c. Back pain is reported with the first 30 degrees when the pelvis and shoulders are passively rotated in the same plane as the patient stands
d. Deep tenderness left over a wide area, not localized to structure
e. Disproportionate verbalization, facial expression, muscle tension and tremor

Answer 19

c. Back pain is reported with the first 30 degrees when the pelvis and shoulders are passively rotated in the same plane as the patient stands

Question 20

The following statements apply to Percussion and Vibration, EXCEPT:

a. Recommended for patients with impaired cognition or poor coughing ability
b. Recommended for the patient who is intubated and mechanically ventilated
c. Used to enhance mucociliary clearance from both central and peripheral airways
d. The exact mechanism of action of chest percussion is unknown, but there is some evidence that physical stimulation alters airflow and is associated with the release of pulmonary chemical mediators
e. Alterations in airway diameter and airflow may increase the viscosity of mucus, making percussion more effective in mobilizing secretions that are adherent to the bronchial walls

Answer 20

e. Alterations in airway diameter and airflow may increase the viscosity of mucus, making percussion more effective in mobilizing secretions that are adherent to the bronchial walls

Question 21

Arterial blood pressure increases with:

Decreased angiotensin
Increase bradykinin
Decreased Aldosterone
Increased carbon dioxide

Answer 21

Increased carbon dioxide

Question 22

The McKenzie system is a commonly used method of examining and treating patients who have low back pain. McKenzie has defined the following, EXCEPT:

a. The lateral shift is considered to be clinically relevant when a single-glide test does not alter the location or intensity of the pain reported by the patient
b. If the lateral shift is determined to be clinically relevant, then the lateral shift must be corrected prior to the use of other treatment procedures or the symptoms may worsen
c. The progress of lateral shifts is determined during the postural examination
d. The use of a two-step procedure is used to determine when clinically relevant lateral shifts are present
e. A lateral shift is a lateral displacement of the patient’s trunk in relation to the pelvis

Answer 22

a. The lateral shift is considered to be clinically relevant when a single-glide test does not alter the location or intensity of the pain reported by the patient

Question 23

Taste impulses from the anterior ⅔ of the tongue are transmitted via:

Trigeminal nerve
Oculomotor nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Facial nerve
Vagus nerve

Answer 23

Facial nerve

Question 24

This lifting technique allows the individual to conveniently bring the item close to the body before completing the lift. One foot is placed behind the front portion of the object, and drop slowly to the other knee. This lift should be avoided by those with knee problems:

Power lift
Diagonal lift
Deep squat lift
Tripod lift
Partial squat lift

Answer 24

Tripod lift

Question 25

Tumor located at the premotor cortex will give rise to:

Incoordination of the contralateral side
Paralysis of the contralateral side
Tremors of the ipsilateral side
Spasticity of the ipsilateral side
Paralysis of the ipsilateral side

Answer 25

Incoordination of the contralateral side

Question 26

The following statements characterize flexion in the lumbar spine, EXCEPT:

a. Flexion in the low back produces kyphosis
b. Involves relaxation of the anterior longitudinal ligament and stretching of the supraspinal and interspinal ligaments the ligamentum flavum and the posterior longitudinal
c. To test, the subject bends as far forward as he can with knees straight, and try to touch the toes
d. There is no reversal of the normal lordosis during flexion, the low back merely flattens out
e. Limited by the size of the vertebral bodies

Answer 26

a. Flexion in the low back produces kyphosis

Question 27

Subjects who have meniscectomies follow the following program, EXCEPT:

a. Flexion-to-extension exercises are used when there is a partial ROM with very little swelling or discomfort in or about the knee
b. Resistance is kept low but is raised as the subject becomes able to handle the resistance with good exercise technique
c. Subjects with arthroscopic meniscectomies are started on a much more vigorous exercise program much earlier
d. Hamstring stretching exercises and flexion exercises are begun about 10 days after surgery
e. Subjects are allowed to begin straight-leg-raise exercises at day one and progress to about eight sets of 10 repetitions in a very short period of time

Answer 27

a. Flexion-to-extension exercises are used when there is a partial ROM with very little swelling or discomfort in or about the knee

Question 28

This test makes it possible to determine whether or not the radial and ulnar arteries are supplying the hand to their full capacities:

Bunnel-Littler Test
Tinel test
None of these
Allen test
Retinacular test

Answer 28

Allen test

Question 29

Innervates the lateral rectus eye muscle:

Trigeminal nerve
Trochlear nerve
Oculomotor nerve
Abducens nerve

Answer 29

Abducens nerve

Question 30

Inhibitive ankle-foot orthosis are used in children with spastic cerebral palsy for the following reasons, EXCEPT:

a. Inhibit or decrease abnormal reflexes in the lower extremity by protecting the foot from tactile-induced reflexes
b. Normalize movement of trunk, pelvis and lower extremity in standing and during gait
c. Decrease spasticity by prolonged stretch and pressure on the tendons of the triceps surae muscle and too flexors
d. Change in bony alignment of the foot and ankle
e. Prevent excessive ankle plantar flexion and improve lower extremity muscle timing

Answer 30

d. Change in bony alignment of the foot and ankle

Question 31

The following statements describe electrical stimulation (ES) in the treatment of chronic wounds, EXCEPT:

a. ES involves the application of low-level, therapeutic dose of electricity directly into the wound
b. Eliminates many microorganism that might otherwise inhibit or prevent healing
c. ES is not an alternative treatment for a wound that has shown only slow or minimal improvement
d. ES is the first alternative treatment for a wound that has not responded to traditional care
e. Promotes healing by enhancing tissue proliferation and repair

Answer 31

c. ES is not an alternative treatment for a wound that has shown only slow or minimal improvement

Question 32

In lateral epicondylitis, repetitive stress may result in injury to the following muscles:

a. All of these
b. Proximal attachments of the extensor radialis brevis
c. Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus
d. Extensor Digitorum

Answer 32

b. Proximal attachments of the extensor radialis brevis

Question 33

Cardiopulmonary manifestation of spinal cord injury include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Dysrhythmias can be precipitated by hypoxemia in the absence of primary heart disease
b. Normal-position included change in respiratory functional can be accentuated with changes in body position
c. Hemodynamically unstable initially due to the effects of spinal shock and hypotension
d. Inspiratory and expiratory capacities are decreased
e. Residual volume and ventilation of the lung bases are diminished

Answer 33

e. Residual volume and ventilation of the lung bases are diminished

Question 34

In cardiac transplantation, postoperative cardiovascular physiology is dramatically affected by the following, EXCEPT:

None of these
Immunosuppression
Donor-recipient size mismatch
Denervation
Rejection

Answer 34

None of these

Question 35

Forward bending is a complex movement of combined lumbar and hip motion, and many of the tasks that occur during everyday activities require trunk flexion. The following statements apply to this movement, EXCEPT:

a. Stretching short hamstring may affect lumbar motion during forward bending
b. Excessive lumbar motion decreases tensile loads on the spine
c. Short hamstring muscles, because of their attachment to the posterior leg and to the ischial tuberosity, may limit hip flexion ROM
d. LBP could result from excessive lumbar motion due to their influence on lumbopelvic rhythm during forward bending
e. Restricted hip motion is coupled with excessive lumbar motion

Answer 35

b. Excessive lumbar motion decreases tensile loads on the spine

Question 36

The only two muscles inserted into the back part of the sclera:

Superior Oblique and Inferior Oblique
Superior Rectus and Medial Rectus
None of these
Lateral Rectus and Inferior Rectus

Answer 36

Superior Oblique and Inferior Oblique

Question 37

In getting a laminectomy patient out of bed, the following procedures are observed, EXCEPT:

a. Raise herself to a standing position by pushing against the bed with her palm, reminding to keep the back straight and to look straight ahead
b. The incision site need not be splinted
c. Help lower herself slowly into a chair, keeping the back straight; make sure the knees are elevated to hip level or slightly higher to avoid stress on the lumbar spine
d. Raise the head of the bed to low Fowler’s position
e. Raise herself into sitting position by pushing against the mattress with her upper hand as she swings her legs over the side of the head

Answer 37

c. Help lower herself slowly into a chair, keeping the back straight; make sure the knees are elevated to hip level or slightly higher to avoid stress on the lumbar spine

Question 38

In radial nerve paralysis, the following happens, EXCEPT:

a. Extension in drop-wrist position is due to tendon action, not active contraction
b. Wrist drop develops
c. Grip strength may be good if the wrist is supported in extension by means of a splint
d. The wrist can be actively extended or stabilized for effective grasp

Answer 38

d. The wrist can be actively extended or stabilized for effective grasp

Question 39

The following statements are true of the Stance Phase of gait, EXCEPT:

a. A spike of bone protruding from the medial tubercle on the plantar surface of the os calcis may cause the subject to avoid heel strike completely
b. If the gluteus maximus is weakened, the subject must thrust his thorax posteriorly to maintain hip extension
c. A flatfooted or calcaneal gait can result from the weakness of the gastrocnemius, soleus and flexor hallucis longus
d. Problems in stance phase can cause the subject to walk with an antalgic gait
e. A weakened gluteus medius forces the subject to lurch forward to the uninvolved side to place the center of gravity over the hip

Answer 39

e. A weakened gluteus medius forces the subject to lurch forward to the uninvolved side to place the center of gravity over the hip

Question 40

On a full-term, healthy newborn infant, gentle rubbing on one cheek elicits a response that deviates his mouth to that side. This is called:

Asymmetric Tonic Neck reflex
Moro Reflex
Symmetric Tonic Neck Reflex
Rooting Reflex
Sucking Reflex

Answer 40

Rooting Reflex

Question 41

The following statements apply to the ulnar nerve, EXCEPT:

a. Innervates the hypothenar, all interossei, two medial lumbricals, the adductor pollicis and part of the flexor pollicis brevis via its deep palmar branch in the hand
b. Innervates the flexor carpi ulnaris and the flexor digitorum profundus to the 4th and 5th digits in the forearm
c. Carries fibers from the C8 and T1 roots
d. In early or minimal lesions of the ulnar nerve, there is atrophy of the first dorsal interosseus and sensory loss distally in the fifth digit
e. Paralysis causes the grip to be fairly weak but finger abduction and adduction will be nearly lost

Answer 41

e. Paralysis causes the grip to be fairly weak but finger abduction and adduction will be nearly lost

Question 42

If the distal insertion of the extensor digitorum communis has been torn away from the distal phalanx an attendant avulsion of a bone fragment, a bony excrescence become palpable on the dorsal surface of the distal interphalangeal joint. This deformity is known as:

Mallet finger
Swan-neck
Trigger thumb
Heberden’s
Boutonniere

Answer 42

Mallet finger

Question 43

In a workplace, an issue closely related to heights is difficulty with reaches. Following are some recommendation to improve on material handling ergonomics problem, EXCEPT:

Increase dimensions of the work surface
Smaller lot sizes
Tilt the work surface
Provide containers with removable sides
Provide cut-outs in the work surface

Answer 43

Increase dimensions of the work surface

Question 44

The nerve most likely to be injured in wrist slashing is:

Median nerve
Ulnar nerve
Radio-ulnar nerve
Musculocutaneous nerve
Radial nerve

Answer 44

Median nerve

Question 45

There is a greater frequency of tears of the medial semilunar cartilage, a common athletic injury. This is due to:

a. The medial meniscus which is fixed to the tibia front and back by its two horns as well as around its periphery
b. The posterior cruciate ligament which is attached to the tibia so far back as to allow some of its fibers to arise from the back of the bone below the upper surface
c. Tightness of the medial coronary ligament of the knee that prevents back-and-forth movements of the medial
d. None of the above

Answer 45

c. Tightness of the medial coronary ligament of the knee that prevents back-and-forth movements of the medial

Question 46

The most important joint in the upper extremity for spatial placement is:

Sternoclavicular joint
Shoulder joint
Claviculohumeral joint
Elbow joint
Wrist joint

Answer 46

Shoulder joint

Question 47

The following statements are true of the triquetrum, EXCEPT:

a. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon
b. It lies under the pisiform
c. Lies just distal to the ulnar styloid process, in the proximal row
c. Third highest of all the carpal bones in incidence of fracture
d. Palpated by radially deviating the hand

Answer 47

a. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon

Question 48

The major modifiable risk factors for the development and progression of coronary artery disease include the following, EXCEPT:

Habitual smoking
Hypertension
Physical activity
Habitual Smoking
Hypercholesterolemia

Answer 48

Physical activity

Question 49

In a normal electrocardiogram, this wave is caused by potentials generated as the ventricles depolarize:

T wave
QRS complex
Q wave
P wave

Answer 49

QRS complex

Question 50

The following statements describe Osteochondritis Dissecans, EXCEPT:

a. Usually a history of intermittent nonspecific knee pain, usually related to some form of exertion
b. Symptoms include acute episodes of locking, giving way, or joint effusion when a fragment becomes detached and falls into the joint
c. Treatment may include debridement with femoral condyle drilling to increase the vascularity in the subchrondral bone to help form a new articular surface
d. Commonly has a lesion of the articular surface of the femoral condyles
e. Most common location of separation is the medial aspect of the anterior margin of the medial femoral condyle

Answer 50

e. Most common location of separation is the medial aspect of the anterior margin of the medial femoral condyle

Question 51

Excessive inversion stress is the most common cause of ankle injury because:

a. The talus can be forced to invert father than it can evert
b. None of these
c. The ligamentous thickenings on the lateral side of the joint are separate, and therefore not as strong as the deltoid
d. All of these
e. The medial malleolus is shorter than the lateral malleolus

Answer 51

d. All of these

Question 52

The following statements apply to the 11th cranial nerve, EXCEPT:

a. Lifting the shoulders up toward the ear then resisting the movement from above tests the trapezius
b. This combined motor and sensory nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and the upper portion of the trapezius muscles
c. Testing the function of the 11th nerve also tests for involvement of functions by motor neuron disease and dystrophy
d. Testing the function of the 11th nerve will detect weakness of either central or peripheral nuclei of origin
e. The nuclei of origin of the various parts of this nerve are not adjacent and differential paresis may occur from central nuclear lesions

Answer 52

b. This combined motor and sensory nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and the upper portion of the trapezius muscles

Question 53

Transfer training after open reduction internal fixation are as follows, EXCEPT:

a. If the lower extremities are too weak or painful to be lifted as transfer progresses, wheelchair leg rests are fully elevated to maintain a long sitting position with the knees extended
b. The subject is instructed to push with the arms on the supporting surface in order to raise the hips and begin moving to the transfer surface
c. Depending on the comfort and ease of the transfer, transfer training may be accomplished with or without a sliding board
d. Subjects do not practice wheelchair mobility
e. Legs are pulled along with the hips as subjects move

Answer 53

d. Subjects do not practice wheelchair mobility

Question 54

The upper eyelids normally cover 1-2 mm of the superior margin of the cornea in forward gaze. Ptosis of the upper lid is an abnormality which may be due to which condition?

Edema due to infection, trauma or venous stasis
All of these
Horner’s syndrome
Third-nerve paresis
Myasthenia gravis

Answer 54

All of these

Question 55

A spot within a muscle, ligament, tendon or periosteal tissue, that elicits a localized rather than referred pain to adjacent areas upon sustained stimulation:

Tender point
Stimulation point
Acupuncture point
Trigger point
Motor point

Answer 55

Tender point

Question 56

Supplied by the femoral nerve, this neurologic level crosses the anterior portion of the middle of the thigh:

L2
L1
L4
L3
S1

Answer 56

L2

Question 57

If the cardiac output is 7.2 L/min and the heart rate is 80 bpm, then the stroke volume is:

70 ml
100 ml
90 ml
80 ml
60 ml

Answer 57

90 ml

Question 58

This anatomical area involves the highest percentage of symptoms among physical therapists reporting musculoskeletal symptoms:

Wrist/hands
Neck
Shoulders
Low back
Upper back

Answer 58

Low back

Question 59

The neurological basis for sexual dysfunction in men with spinal cord injury (SCI) are as follows, EXCEPT:

a. The parasympathetic spinal outflow originating from the S-2 to S-4 spinal segments is primarily responsible for mediating reflexogenic erection
b. The T-10 to S-2 spinal segments contain the reflex arc that receives sensory afferents from the genitals
c. The neural output from the hypothalamus to the sexual organs courses in the anterolateral columns to terminate in the intermediolateral cell columns of T-10 to L-3
d. In men, the sympathetic output is primarily responsible for regulating ejaculation and psychogenic component of penile erection
e. Supraspinal component of the motor pathways descends with the corticospinal tracts to the S-2 to S-4 segments of the sacral cord

Answer 59

b. The T-10 to S-2 spinal segments contain the reflex arc that receives sensory afferents from the genitals

Question 60

Due to the difference in length of the moment arms used by the hip abductor (HA) muscles and body weight, the HA muscles must produce this force to that of body weight to ensure frontal-plane equilibrium:

About twice
Five times
About four times
Three times
Equal

Answer 60

About twice

Question 61

Following are measurable determinants of gait, EXCEPT:

a. The knee should remain flexed during all components of stance phase
b. The body’s center of gravity lies two inches in front of the second sacral vertebrae and oscillates no more than two inches in a vertical direction
c. The pelvis and trunk shift laterally approximately one inch to the weight-bearing side
d. During the swing phase, the pelvis rotates 40 degrees forward
e. The width of the base should not be more than two to four inches from heel to heel

Answer 61

a. The knee should remain flexed during all components of stance phase

Question 62

The following muscles arise from the medial epicondyle of the humerus and bounds the medial side of the antecubital fossa:

a. Flexor Carpi Radialis, Palmaris Longus and Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
b. Flexor Digitorum Sublimis, Flexor Digitorum Profundus and Flexor Pollicis Longus
c. None of these
d. Pronator Teres, Palmaris Longus, and Flexor Digitorum Superficialis

Answer 62

a. Flexor Carpi Radialis, Palmaris Longus and Flexor Carpi Ulnaris

Question 63

A cardiac cycle is from the beginning of one heartbeat to the beginning of the next. Each cycle is initiated by

Atrioventricular node
Purkinje fibers
Sinoatrial node
Atrioventricular bundle

Answer 63

Sinoatrial node

Question 64

Paralysis of the left gluteus maximus is compensated for during the stance phase by:

a. Increased ankle plantarflexion of the affected extremity
b. Hyperextension of the spine
c. External tibial torsion at heel strike
d. Maintenance of knee flexion of affected extremity

Answer 64

b. Hyperextension of the spine

Question 65

In root compression syndrome, the following statements are true, EXCEPT:

a. Paresthesia are common and are usually experienced distally, in the hand or foot
b. Stretch reflexes whose arcs are largely or entirely incorporated in the involved root will be exaggerated
c. Pain in the segment distribution of a root is the hallmark of these syndrome
d. Weakness and atrophy in the corresponding myotomal distribution result from prolonged or severe root compression
e. Findings to confirm the syndrome are those which relate spinal movement to the radiating pain

Answer 65

b. Stretch reflexes whose arcs are largely or entirely incorporated in the involved root will be exaggerated

Question 66

The following statements describe care of knee extension mechanism injuries, EXCEPT:

a. When using stationary bike, resistance should be kept low and a steady pace of about 20 mph maintained
b. Running is encouraged because the biomechanical forces of running put great stress upon the extensor mechanism
c. Flexion-to-extension motions or heavy resistance may aggravate these type of injuries
d. Resistance for straight-leg-raises is kept to an upper limit of 6.8 kg
e. Hamstring stretching is useful in preventing over-compressions of the patella against the underlying bony surface

Answer 66

b. Running is encouraged because the biomechanical forces of running put great stress upon the extensor mechanism

Question 67

Persistent asymmetry of the Moro reflex suggest the following, EXCEPT:

Hemiparesis
Fracture of the clavicle
Injury to the brachial plexus
Hemiplegia
Fracture of the humerus

Answer 67

Hemiplegia

Question 68

The following statements described the Hassis Infant Neuromotor Test (HINT), EXCEPT:

a. Asks the infant’s parent or caregiver to assess how the infant moves and plays
b. Aimed at identifying early motor deficits and early signs of cognitive delay in infants at risk
c. Spans an age range of 3 to 12 months
d. Designed to examine differences in motor behavior, specifically posture and antigravity control
e. Was developed to provide a reliable and valid neuromotor screening tool for early identification of neurodevelopment handicaps in high-risk infants

Answer 68

d. Designed to examine differences in motor behavior, specifically posture and antigravity control

Question 69

This test refers either to the elicitation of pain from tapping for neuromotor on the end of a cut nerve or to the provocation of pain on the leading edge of a regenerating nerve. In the knee, testing concerns the area around the medial side of the tibial tubercle:

McMurray Test
Tinel Test
Distraction Test
Apprehension Test
Bounce Home Test

Answer 69

Tinel Test

Question 70

Which of the following processes in early ambulation after fixation does not apply?

a. To bring the patient to a chair from a standing position, flex your knees and hips and slowly lower her into the chair, elevating the patient’s legs on a stool for comfort and to reduce swelling
b. To assist the patient into a standing position, move in close and grasp the patient under her arms, allowing the patient to hold you around your neck
c. Obtain a straight-backed, relatively high chair with arms, and place it close to the bed, on the patient’s unaffected side
d. To bring the patient back to into bed from a chair, slide the chair so its braced against the bed, have the patient bend forward from the hips and flex the knee of the unaffected leg at a 90 angle
e. To bring your patient to a sitting position on the bed, first raise the head of the bed to 30°, have the unaffected leg flexed at a right angle, and the affected leg partially flexed

Answer 70

b. To assist the patient into a standing position, move in close and grasp the patient under her arms, allowing the patient to hold you around your neck

Question 71

All of the following statements are true, EXCEPT:

a. Nerve impulses are propagated by the continuous progression of the action potential along the length of the fiber in myelinated fibers
b. Nerves with large axons have lower stimulus thresholds for development of an action potential than do nerves with smaller axons
c. Nerves with large-diameter axons have greater conduction velocities than do nerves with smaller diameter axons
d. Conduction velocity is also substantially greater in myelinated axons than in unmyelinated axons

Answer 71

a. Nerve impulses are propagated by the continuous progression of the action potential along the length of the fiber in myelinated fibers

Question 72

The following statements are true of the total knee replacement, EXCEPT

a. May be used for a knee with varus/valgus deformity greater than 40 degrees
b. Prosthesis life is estimated at 25 years
c. Performed to relieve severe pain, joint contracture, and swelling in a patient who would otherwise be ambulatory
d. May be used for a knee with flexion contracture greater than 60 degrees
e. In most cases, it works best for older patients

Answer 72

b. Prosthesis life is estimated at 25 years

Question 73

Depending on patient size and transfer method, condition and mobility potential, the following are preferred features in wheelchair selection for a hemiplegic, EXCEPT:

a. Fixed armrests and foot-and-leg rests are swing-detachable with heel loops
b. Motorized type with reclining back
c. Back with head extension and foot-and-leg rests are elevating
d. Standard type with standard handrims
e. Extension brakes and fixed back

Answer 73

b. Motorized type with reclining back

Question 74

Stimulation of the anterior hypothalamus causes all of the following, EXCEPT:

Sweating
Cutaneous vasodilatation
Increased respiration
Shivering

Answer 74

Shivering

Question 75

Home exercise program following open reduction internal fixation include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Basic ROM and strengthening exercises to prevent contracture and reduce atrophy while non ambulatory
b. Subject’s full weight bearing status may be achieved at 3 months post surgery
c. Subjects perform isometric exercises, ROM exercises, and upper extremity exercise until fatigued
d. Even as pain increases or weakness develops, full active ROM must be performed

Answer 75

d. Even as pain increases or weakness develops, full active ROM must be performed

Question 76

Decreases vascular resistance by decreasing catecholamine mediated vasoconstriction of peripheral vasculature:

Alpha-adrenergic blockers
Diuretics
Angiotensin-converting (ACE) enzyme inhibitors
Calcium channel blockers
Beta-adrenergic blockers

Answer 76

Alpha-adrenergic blockers

Question 77

The following statements are true of the primary dorsiflexor of the foot, EXCEPT:

a. The extensor digitorum longus tendon is perceptible on the dorsum of the foot, crossing in front of the ankle mortise and fanning out to insert, by slips into the dorsal surfaces of the middle and distal phalanges of the four lateral toes
b. The tendon of the extensor hallucis longus is perceptible to its insertion at the proximal end of the distal phalanx of the great toe
c. The primary dorsiflexor of the foot lie in the anterior tibial compartment and share a common innervations, the deep peroneal nerve
d. The muscle belly of the extensor digitorum brevis can be palpated where it bulges out from the sinus tarsi and therefore can be isolated for muscle testing
e. The tendon of the tibialis anterior can be seen where it crosses the anteromedial portion of the ankle joint

Answer 77

d. The muscle belly of the extensor digitorum brevis can be palpated where it bulges out from the sinus tarsi and therefore can be isolated for muscle testing

Question 78

The following statements apply to cane selection, EXCEPT:

a. To determine proper sizing, ask patient to stand with the cane’s tip 4” (10cm) to the side of his foot, the cane should extend from the floor to his hip joint
b. A rubber tip keeps the cane from slipping and helps prevent accident
c. As the cane is held, the elbow should be flexed at a 45 degree angle
d. As the cane is held, the elbow should be flexed at a 30 degree angle
e. If he has poor balance, he’ll probably need a broad-based cane

Answer 78

c. As the cane is held, the elbow should be flexed at a 45 degree angle

Question 79

When applied, second class levers can be:

a. Levers that operate at a mechanical disadvantage but one of speed
b. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage
c. Levers of stability and speed
d. All of these

Answer 79

b. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage

Question 80

Electrical bone stimulation is indicated to treat fracture non-unions. Contraindications include the following, EXCEPT:

a. An active systemic infection
b. Paget’s disease
c. Non-pathologic fracture
d. A congenital or developmental condition, i.e., osteogenesis imperfects
e. Pseudarthrosis

Answer 80

c. Non-pathologic fracture

Question 81

Atrial depolarization is represented in the ECG as the:

ST interval
P wave
PR interval
QRS complex
T wave

Answer 81

P wave

Question 82

An area routinely addressed in fitness tests is flexibility, and the sit-and-reach test (SRT) is typically used. The following statements characterize SRT, EXCEPT:

a. It evaluated flexibility of the low back and hamstring muscles
b. The subject being tested leans forward in a long-sitting position
c. Passing scores are given when subjects can reach at least 4 cm beyond their toes
d. A score given is based on the most distant point reached by both hands on a standardized box
e. It is an important test because decreased flexibility is thought to contribute to the development of low back pain

Answer 82

c. Passing scores are given when subjects can reach at least 4 cm beyond their toes

Question 83

This tendon can be isolated by holding the subject’s fingers in extension and flexing the finger in question at the IP joint, if the finger can be flexed at the specified joint, the tendon is intact:

Interossei
Flexor digitorum profundus
Lumbricals
Flexor digitorum superficialis
None of these

Answer 83

Flexor digitorum superficialis

Question 84

When the patient is able to make two breaths in order to complete counting aloud to 15, the Ventilatory Index Scale is:

0
1
2
4
3

Answer 84

2

Question 85

Knees with ligamentous repair follow the following program, EXCEPT:

a. Excessive quadriceps femoris muscle activity can cause the tibia to become subluxed anteriorly and stretch the repaired tissues
b. Immobilized for at least six weeks
c. Gait is partial weight bearing with crutches
d. The very complicated anteromedial, anterolateral and posterolateral surgeries requires an especially slow progression
e. Quadriceps femoris setting and ankle ROM is initiated at day one

Answer 85

c. Gait is partial weight bearing with crutches

Question 86

As part of an overall ergonomic program, a variety of administrative practices can be used effectively, but must not be used instead of considering engineering improvements. Following are some accepted recommendations, EXCEPT:

Subdivision of labor
Exercise
Workload reduction
Job rotation
Work/Rest schedule

Answer 86

Exercise

Question 87

To create electrical neutrality, the major intracellular cation is balanced intracellularly by which anions?

C1 -
HCO - 3
HPO - 4
Organic anions
KMnO4

Answer 87

Organic anions

Question 88

The following statements characterize harness-supported treadmill ambulation, EXCEPT:

a. Minimized load to healing tissues and conserves energy during exercise
b. Increases an individual’s effective body weight by given amount using a supporting harness
c. It can reduce pain and skin breakdown during the initial phases of prosthetic use
d. Counterbrace system accommodates the rise and fall of the body during treadmill ambulation
e. Facilitates the expression of a more normal gait

Answer 88

b. Increases an individual’s effective body weight by given amount using a supporting harness

Question 89

A frame of reference for balance and head control that gives information about body position with respect to the environment:

Geosynchronous
Egocentric
Ecocentric
Exocentric
Proprioceptive

Answer 89

Exocentric

Question 90

The distal carpal consists of the following, EXCEPT:

Hamate
Navicular
Capitate
Trapezium
Trapezoid

Answer 90

Navicular

Question 91

The following statements characterize intracranial hyperextension, (IC), EXCEPT:

a. A good indicator of a bad prognosis in persons with head trauma, and subarachnoid and intracerebral hemorrhage
b. Commonly observed in person with serious injuries and diseases of the central nervous system
c. Ventricular drainage and controlled hyperventilation could decrease ICP
d. Exercise will not increase ICP
e. A patient’s head may be elevated and stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system is avoided to prevent further increases in ICP

Answer 91

d. Exercise will not increase ICP

Question 92

This reflex, with a C6 component, primarily indicates the neurologic integrity of C5:

Triceps reflex
Biceps reflex
Flexor reflex
Brachioradialis reflex
Symmetric tonic neck reflex

Answer 92

Biceps reflex

Question 93

Normal cardiac rhythm is:

40-70 bpm
30-60 bpm
120-150 bpm
60-90 bpm
100 - 130 bpm

Answer 93

60-90 bpm

Question 94

Any bodily movement produced by skeletal muscles that results in increased energy expenditure:

Physical activity
Training
Exercise
Performance
Physical fitness

Answer 94

Physical activity

Question 95

The stability and integrity of the transverse arch is maintained by:

Hypothenar and thenar muscles
Extrinsic muscles of the hands
Interossei and lumbricals
Tendons
Ligaments

Answer 95

Hypothenar and thenar muscles

Question 96

The following muscle chiefly flex the distal interphalangeal joint:

Lumbricals
Flexor Digitorum Profundus and Flexor Pollicis Longus
None of these
Flexor Digitorum Superficialis and Flexor Carpi Ulnaris

Answer 96

Flexor Digitorum Profundus and Flexor Pollicis Longus

Question 97

This transport mechanism exist in all cell bodies and maintains the sodium and potassium concentration differences across the cell membrane; it also established a negative electrical potential inside the cells:

Sodium-potassium pump
Calcium pump
Sodium counter-transport
Active transport

Answer 97

Sodium-potassium pump

Question 98

Cardiac dysfunction results in the following, EXCEPT:

Excessive fatigue
Chest pain
Changes in electrocardiographic activity or heart sounds
Dyspnea
Decreased or absent peripheral pulses

Answer 98

Decreased or absent peripheral pulses

Question 99

During isovolumetric contraction phase:

a. The aortic and tricuspid valves are closed
b. The aortic valve is open while the pulmonic valve is closed
c. The mitral valve is open but the tricuspid valve is closed
d. The mitral valve is open while the aortic valve is closed
e. The mitral and aortic valves are closed

Answer 99

e. The mitral and aortic valves are closed

Question 100

The following steps describe the increased cardiopulmonary activity in response to various levels of physical activity, EXCEPT:

a. During exercise, CO is increased because of increase in both stroke volume and heart rate, with stroke volume reaching its maximal level at approximately 40% of maximal oxygen consumption
b. When ventilation occurs, the muscles contract creating a negative pressure within the thorax allowing air to move inward from the mouth to various lung parts
c. Because of regional differences in the distribution of both ventilation and perfusion, the possibility exists to have areas of the lungs that are well ventilated but underperfused, but not vice versa
d. In myocardial ischemia, the ability to adequately fill the left ventricle may be impaired and patients may experience dyspnea or signs and symptoms of decreased CO.
e. At rest, the primary muscles of respiration are the diaphragm, scalene and parasternal intercostals

Answer 100

c. Because of regional differences in the distribution of both ventilation and perfusion, the possibility exists to have areas of the lungs that are well ventilated but underperfused, but not vice versa

Question 101

Which is true of the following examples of anatomic pulleys?

a. In quadriceps and patellar tendons, where the direction of pull is changed as the knee flexes and improves the force arm distance due to the interposed patella
b. All of these
c. In the leg, where tendons of the peroneal and long toe flexor descend distally on the posterior aspect of the legs and go behind and around the malleoli to form attachments in the foot and toes.
d. In the palmar side of the phalanges, when the flexor digitorum profundus and superficialis contract, their tendons rise for the joint axes and are held down by seven pulley-like loops that deflects the tendon with movement.

Answer 101

b. All of these

Question 102

These cardinal signs characterized inflammation, EXCEPT:

Edema
Rubor
Pain
Heat
No disturbance of function

Answer 102

No disturbance of function

Question 103

Which of the following is true of the flexor digitorum superficialis?

a. Both of the superficialis and profundus act to clench the fist
b. All of these
c. The chief joint that it flexes is the proximal interphalangeal joint
d. It is supplied by the median nerve

Answer 103

b. All of these

Question 104

The following statements are true of laminectomy, EXCEPT:

a. Involved a surgical removal of a portion of the lamina
b. Spinal fusion may be performed along with laminectomy for additional vertebral stability
c. The protruding disc fragments are removed to relieve pressure on the nerve root
d. Spinal fusion can only be performed in laminectomy
e. In laminectomy with spinal fusion, the spine is reinforced by using bone chips or inserting a metallic rod, screw or plate

Answer 104

d. Spinal fusion can only be performed in laminectomy

Question 105

An Ober Test is positive if:

a. There is to-and-for motion of the greater trochanter
b. The hip does not extend fully when one leg is flexed and the other is fully extended
c. The subject arches his back to reform the lumbar lordosis when he lowers his leg
d. The thigh remains abducted when the leg is released
e. The thigh drops to the adducted position when the leg is released

Answer 105

d. The thigh remains abducted when the leg is released

Question 106

The following statements are true of the heart, EXCEPT:

a. It lies behind the body of the sternum and in front of the middle four thoracic vertebrae (T5, T6, T7, and T8)
b. During development, the heart undergoes rotation so that its right side is carried backwards and its left side forwards
c. It is about the size of a clenched fist and occupies a central position in the thoracic cavity
d. The right ventricle occupies most of the anterior surfaces and forms all but the extremities of the inferior border

Answer 106

b. During development, the heart undergoes rotation so that its right side is carried backwards and its left side forwards

Question 107

The following statements describe Parkinson’s Disease, EXCEPT:

a. Functional limitations in bed mobility, transfers, and gait may become severely disabling as the disease progresses
b. Results from neurotransmitter imbalances associated with degeneration of the substantia nigra
c. Mobility of the neck, torso, and extremities is lost
d. The primary impairments typically are rigidity, bradykinesia, tremor and postural instability
e. Presents stooped, flexed posture, characterized by excessive lumbar kyphosis and loss of thoracic lordosis

Answer 107

e. Presents stooped, flexed posture, characterized by excessive lumbar kyphosis and loss of thoracic lordosis

Question 108

The following statements are true of the Swing Phase of gait, EXCEPT:

a. The ankle dorsiflexors are active during the entire swing phase to clear the ground by holding the ankle neutral
b. The knee reaches its maximum degree of flexion approximately 65 degrees between toe-off and midswing
c. Steppage gait occurs when the ankle dorsiflexor do not work properly
d. If the subject has poor quadriceps strength, he may rotate the pelvis posteriorly in an exaggerated motion to provide forward thrust for the leg
e. If the hamstrings are weak, heel strike may be excessively harsh and the may hyperextend

Answer 108

d. If the subject has poor quadriceps strength, he may rotate the pelvis posteriorly in an exaggerated motion to provide forward thrust for the leg

Question 109

The following statements are true of erythrocytes, EXCEPT:

a. They are produced in red bone marrow and in the spleen and other lymphoid tissues
b. A mature red cell is completely filled with hemoglobin, a high specialized compound of protein and iron
c. These are formed in bone marrow where they pass through several stages before reaching maturity
d. The life of an erythrocyte is about four months, and four million new cells every second of every minute must be produced

Answer 109

a. They are produced in red bone marrow and in the spleen and other lymphoid tissues

Question 110

The following statements apply to the common peroneal nerve, EXCEPT:

a. Subject is able to walk on his toes and Achilles reflex is preserved
b. Interruption of the nerve results in loss of dorsiflexion of ankle and toes and in loss of eversion of the foot
c. There is foot drop with hypotonia and atrophy of muscle but not sensory loss
d. Received fibers from the L4, L5, S1, and S2 roots
e. There is varying sensory loss along the lateral aspect of the dorsum of the foot

Answer 110

c. There is foot drop with hypotonia and atrophy of muscle but not sensory loss

Question 111

To test this nerve, the subject protrudes the tongue and moves it from side to side:

Hypoglossal nerve
Vagus nerve
Spinal accessory nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve

Answer 111

Hypoglossal nerve

Question 112

Which of the following pain intervention techniques apply to the gate control theory directly?

a. Stimulus produced analgesia and prefrontal lobotomy
b. Placebo treatment and aspirin
c. Acupuncture and hypnosis
d. Paracetamol
e. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation and whirlpool bath

Answer 112

e. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation and whirlpool bath

Question 113

The following describes the “Q” angle, EXCEPT:

a. The acute angle formed by the triceps femoris tendon and the ligamentum patellae
b. An increased in the “Q” angle above 15 degrees may increase the tendency for lateral patellar malposition
c. An increased “Q” angle associated with another deficiency of the extensor mechanism may allow the patella to sublux more easily
d. The second line is drawn from the center of the patella to the center of the anterior-superior iliac spine on the pelvis
e. Determined by drawing one line from the middle of the patella to the center of the tibial tubercle

Answer 113

a. The acute angle formed by the triceps femoris tendon and the ligamentum patellae

Question 114

Fracture of a long bone, i.e. a femur may cause traumatic hemorrhage even if the break is closed. Which of the following statements does not apply:

a. Blood loss may eventually cause hypovolemic shock
b. None of these
c. Within 24-48 hours, as much as 1 to 2 liters (2 to 4 units) of blood may accumulate in the patient’s thigh
d. Increasing ecchymosis of his injury
e. Laboratory tests may show decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit

Answer 114

b. None of these

Question 115

Thrombus formation in the legs, particularly in patients following surgery may be prevented in the following manner, EXCEPT:

a. Gentle mobilization and modified exercises after thrombi have resolved
b. Increase movement and activity to negate sequelae of restricted mobility and recumbency on oxygen transport
c. Specially designed stockings in conjunction with pneumatic compression devices to stimulate the normal action of the muscle pump in the leg
d. Stockings that are applied with uniform pressure along the leg, and removed frequently for 10 minute periods are reapplied
e. Compression stockings to prevent peripheral blood pooling and augment venous return

Answer 115

b. Increase movement and activity to negate sequelae of restricted mobility and recumbency on oxygen transport

Question 116

Despite the presence of third cranial nerve paralysis, upon examination it was determined that the eyes is able to rotate inward, indicating that the superior oblique muscle is intact. This indicates:

All of these
Cranial nerve II is only partially denervated
None of these
Cranial nerve IV is intact
Cranial nerve IV is also denervated

Answer 116

Cranial nerve IV is intact

Question 117

This muscle is active in foot inversion if accompanied by dorsiflexion:

Extensor hallucis longus
Tibialis anterior
Tibialis posterior
Extensor digitorum longus

Answer 117

Tibialis anterior

Question 118

The product of heart rate and stroke volume:

Cardiac output (in liters per minute)
Ventilation
Breathing
Tidal volume
Metabolic rate

Answer 118

Cardiac output (in liters per minute)

Question 119

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation has been used for pain management over the years. Conventional TENS has the following properties, EXCEPT:

a. Uses intensities below the motor threshold
b. Uses relatively low pulse frequencies (50-100 pulses per second)
c. Used relatively short pulse durations (2-50 microseconds)
d. Stimulates large-diameter fibers
e. Stimulates superficial cutaneous nerve fibers

Answer 119

b. Uses relatively low pulse frequencies (50-100 pulses per second)

Question 120

A dome shaped bump that lies in the occipital region on the midline and marks the center of the superior nuchal line:

Lanula
None of these
Cricoid tubercle
Cricoid ring
Inion

Answer 120

Inion

Question 121

When other forms of reconstructive hip surgery have failed, and the patient still suffers incapacitating pain, a total hip replacement may be performed. The following statements are true, EXCEPT:

a. It is contraindicated on patients with history bone infection
b. A young patient won’t receive total hip replacement, because the prosthesis lifespan is uncertain
c. The prosthesis is considered total because the both joint components are replaced
d. After total hip replacement, no activities are prohibited
e. The procedure usually restores joint movement and stability, allowing the patient to ambulate without severe pain

Answer 121

d. After total hip replacement, no activities are prohibited

Question 122

Functional limitations observed in patients with cerebellar dysfunction may include in the following, EXCEPT:

Hypertonicity
Gait ataxia
Fatigability and weakness
Dyssynergia
Postural instability

Answer 122

Hypertonicity

Question 123

In this lifting technique, the individual squats in front of the object with the feet and knee approximately shoulder width apart, this should only be used when lifting small, light, items or when insufficient space is provided. This lift should be avoided by those with knee problems:

Power lift
Tripod lift
Deep squat lift
Diagonal lift
Golfer’s lift

Answer 123

Deep squat lift

Question 124

Which of the following statements is true in forefoot adduction correction test?

a. If forefoot can be fully corrected to less than neutral, foot will probably not correct itself, and cast correction is necessary
b. If forefoot can only be partially corrected to neutral or less, foot will still correct itself and cast correction is not necessary
c. If you can manually correct adduction and abduct forefoot greater than the neutral position, no treatment is necessary as foot will partially correct itself
d. If forefoot can be fully corrected to neutral or greater, foot will probably not correct itself, and cast correction is not necessary
e. If you can manually correct adduction and abduct forefoot beyond neutral position, no treatment is necessary as foot will partially correct itself

Answer 124

a. If forefoot can be fully corrected to less than neutral, foot will probably not correct itself, and cast correction is necessary

Question 125

The following statements are true of breathing exercises, EXCEPT:

a. Indicated during mechanical ventilation
b. Indicated in the ICU setting for patients with neuromuscular disease
c. Benefit includes increased tidal volume, improved thoracic cage mobility and increased inspiratory capacity
d. Used when thoracic excursion is decreased as a result of retained secretions or pain
e. May be used during weaning from mechanical ventilation

Answer 125

a. Indicated during mechanical ventilation

Question 126

Characteristic of patellofemoral pain syndrome include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Can be used for malalignment of the lower extremity
b. Most frequently recommended treatment is exercise
c. Surgical treatment is rarely indicated
d. Pain results in decreased force by knee extensors
e. Consists of anterior knee pain excluding intra-articular pathology, peripatellar tendinitis and bursitis

Answer 126

a. Can be used for malalignment of the lower extremity

Question 127

The following statements characterize extension in the lumbar spine, EXCEPT:

a. To test, the subject is instructed to bend backward as far as he can, using the examiner’s hand on the posterior superior iliac spine as fulcrum
b. Increase in lumbar lordosis is resisted by the rectus abdominis muscles
c. Stretches the anterior longitudinal ligament and relaxes the posterior ligaments
d. When testing extensions, the examiner must not assist the subject manually by pushing gently on his chest
e. Motored by the intrinsic muscles of the back

Answer 127

d. When testing extensions, the examiner must not assist the subject manually by pushing gently on his chest

Question 128

Among health care workers, the job-factor described that has the highest problematic percentage for the development of work-related musculoskeletal disorders is:

a. Performing the same tasks over and over
b. Reaching or working away from your body
c. Lifting or transferring dependent patients
d. Bending or twisting your back in an awkward way
e. Working in the same positions in long periods

Answer 128

c. Lifting or transferring dependent patients

Question 129

From the frontal plane, the neck of the femur has an anterior angle of 13 to 15 degrees. A decrease in this angle, a factor in out-toeing during walking, is called:

Coxa Vara
Coxa valga
Retroversion
Anteversion

Answer 129

Retroversion

Question 130

The bones and associated ligaments of the foot form arches:

All of these
Medial longitudinal arch
Transverse arch
Lateral longitudinal arch

Answer 130

All of these

Question 131

This test was developed to assist in diagnosing posterior meniscal tear by causing a palpable or audible “click” within the joint:

McMurray Test
“Bounce Home” Test
Apley’s Compression Test
Distraction Test
Reduction Test

Answer 131

McMurray Test

Question 132

The following statements apply to lower lumbar root compression, EXCEPT:

a. Atrophy of the gastrocnemius may be seen
b. Severe foot drop is unlikely, but toe drop is common with atrophy of the anterior compartment
c. Percussion by fist or hammer over the lower lumbar segments may aggravate pain in the thigh or leg
d. Ankle jerk reflex is commonly diminished or absent in S1 root impingement but may be normal in L5 root syndromes
e. Test of straight-leg-raising frequently shows marked limitation in range of thigh flexion on the good side

Answer 132

e. Test of straight-leg-raising frequently shows marked limitation in range of thigh flexion on the good side

Question 133

The following statements describe the patellar reflex, EXCEPT:

a. While the reflex may be significantly diminished, it is rarely totally absent
b. A deep tendon reflex mediated through nerves emanating from L2, L3, and L4 neurologic levels
c. To test, the subject sits on a chair with one leg dangling over his knee
d. Even if the L4 nerve root is pathologically involved, the reflex may still be present
e. For clinical application, the patellar reflex is to be considered an L4 reflex

Answer 133

c. To test, the subject sits on a chair with one leg dangling over his knee

Question 134

In the jaw reflex involving the masseter and temporalis muscles, this cranial nerve mediates the reflex are:

Facial
Accessory
Hypoglossal
Glossopharyngeal
Trigeminal

Answer 134

Trigeminal

Question 135

After total hip surgery, for the next 3 months, the following must be observed as part of the patient’s home care, EXCEPT:

a. Keep the affected leg facing front at all times whether sitting, lying or walking
b. Legs must not be crossed legs whether lying, sitting or standing
c. Place a pillow between the legs when lying in unaffected side, with the affected leg uppermost
d. Patient may reach down to the end of the bed to pull covers
e. Never turning hip or knee inward or outward

Answer 135

d. Patient may reach down to the end of the bed to pull covers

Question 136

A form of tendon inflammation that occurs when a muscle/tendon unit is repeatedly tensed:

Epicondylitis
De Quervain’s disease
Tendinitis
Stenosing tenosynovitis
Tenosynovitis

Answer 136

Tendinitis

Question 137

The following relationships are true of the low back, EXCEPT:

a. Lumbar lordosis is unrelated of hip and trunk flexibilities
b. Longer abdominal muscles and shorter erector spinae muscles are associated with an increased lumbar curve
c. Individuals with exaggerated lumbar curvature while standing tend to have short hamstrings, rotating the pelvis posteriorly, resulting in concurrent reduction of lumbar lordosis
d. There is no correlation among hip extension ROM, standing pelvic tilt, standing lumbar lordosis and abdominal muscle performance variables
e. The length of the hamstring muscles are negatively related to the lumbar curve

Answer 137

c. Individuals with exaggerated lumbar curvature while standing tend to have short hamstrings, rotating the pelvis posteriorly, resulting in concurrent reduction of lumbar lordosis

Question 138

The following applies to resisted movement testing, EXCEPT:

a. Performed to determine the status of the contractile unit and its segmental innervations from the spinal cord
b. Considered to be specific in evaluating the status of the contractile unit
c. While it primarily assesses the contractile unit, it causes some joint compression that may lead to inappropriate conclusions
d. Performed in the shortened, midrange, and stretched position for total evaluation of the contractile unit
e. Performing in shortened position prevents excessive compression or distraction of noncontractile structures

Answer 138

e. Performing in shortened position prevents excessive compression or distraction of noncontractile structures

Question 139

Within the depression between the medial malleolus’ posterior aspect and the Achilles tendon lie several soft tissue structures, EXCEPT:

Flexor hallucis longus tendon
Flexor digitorum longus tendon
Posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve
Tibialis posterior tendon
Tibialis anterior tendon

Answer 139

Tibialis anterior tendon

Question 140

Some of the eight basic techniques which can be used to safely perform most lifting tasks include the following. EXCEPT:

Golfer’s lift
Diagonal lift
Tripod lift
Full squat lift
Deep squat lift

Answer 140

Full squat lift

Question 141

The following are effects of cardiac transplantation on cardiovascular and pulmonary variables, EXCEPT:

a. The peak heart rate achieved during maximal exercise is markedly lower in cardiac transplant patients than in age-matched subjects thereby limiting the usefulness of exercise prescriptions based on target heart rate
b. Peak systolic blood pressure of cardiac transplant recipient is less than that of individuals without, but diastolic blood pressure is not much different
c. Resting stroke volume of patients following cardiac transplantation is less than that of individuals without, but diastolic blood pressure is not much different
d. At rest, cardiac recipients exhibit lower heart rates than do individuals without cardiac transplants due to the loss of vagal tone associated with the surgical procedure
e. Oxygen consumption at anaerobic threshold is markedly lower than that of individuals without cardiac transplants, partially due to skeletal muscle weakness

Answer 141

d. At rest, cardiac recipients exhibit lower heart rates than do individuals without cardiac transplants due to the loss of vagal tone associated with the surgical procedure

Question 142

Epidemiological studies have established some risk factors for work-related low back pain and include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Vibration
b. Movements into inner ranges of motion such as stretching or reaching heavy-materials handling
c. Prolonged posture of sitting or standing
d. Requirements of lifting, pushing, pulling, bending and twisting
e. Repetitious work, poor management employee relations and new employment status

Answer 142

b. Movements into inner ranges of motion such as stretching or reaching heavy-materials handling

Question 143

Type of contraction when the muscle shortens but the tension remains constant:

Isometric
None of these
Isotonic
Isokinetic

Answer 143

Isotonic

Question 144

In this knee instability, the mechanism of injury is a forcible blow against the front of the tibia with the leg externally rotated and planted in a varus position:

Anterolateral rotatory instability
Combined rotatory instability
Anteromedial rotatory instability
Posterolateral rotatory instability
Straight lateral instability

Answer 144

Posterolateral rotatory instability

Question 145

The following are true of the types of breathing exercises, EXCEPT:

a. Use of a flutter valve, the forced-expiration technique and autogenic drainage are beneficial in patients with cystic fibrosis, although efficacy has not been determined
b. Following coronary artery bypass of gall-bladder surgery, breathing exercises offer no advantage over early patient mobilization
c. Incentive spirometry is no more advantageous or cost-effective than instruction in deep breathing and coughing
d. Diaphragmatic breathing and lateral costal and segmental coastal and segmental costal expansion exercises are used most often post-operatively
e. Inspiratory muscle training and resistive diaphragmatic breathing exercises are not beneficial in weaning the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Answer 145

e. Inspiratory muscle training and resistive diaphragmatic breathing exercises are not beneficial in weaning the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Question 146

The Babinski sign is the single most important sign in neurology. The following statements apply to Babinski sign, EXCEPT:

a. The normal response is flexion with adduction of the toes
b. When the sign is absent, then the system is diseased
c. When present after age 12-16 months, it indicates dysfunction of the corticospinal motor system
d. About one second is an appropriate time for the stimulus
e. The abnormal response is dorsiflexion of the great toe and fanning of the others with withdrawal at the knee and hip

Answer 146

b. When the sign is absent, then the system is diseased

Question 147

A patient requires skin traction using a cervical head halter. The following applies to proper head halter application, EXCEPT:

a. The patient’s head may be elevated 20 deg for patient comfort
b. If any adjustment to the straps is necessary, the anterior straps must be adjusted first, then the posterior
c. The back of the halter is positioned beneath the head, aligning the sides in order not to cover the patient’s ears
d. A head halter is contraindicated for extended use for it can cause skin irritation
e. To avoid zygomatic nerve damage, the straps leading to the sidepiece should be loose over the patient’s check

Answer 147

b. If any adjustment to the straps is necessary, the anterior straps must be adjusted first, then the posterior

Question 148

The following are characteristics of Myasthenia Gravis, EXCEPT:

a. Involvement is often selective and asymmetric
b. There is weakness and excessive fatigability of muscle
c. Dysfunction arises from imperfect neuromuscular transmission
d. The degree of paresis does not vary during the day
e. Incidence is highest in young women and elderly men

Answer 148

d. The degree of paresis does not vary during the day

Question 149

Daylight and color vision is dependent on the integrity of the:

Ganglion cells
Amacrine cells
Rod receptors
Ossicular chain
Cone receptors

Answer 149

Cone receptors

Question 150

The perpendicular distance from the pivot point to the line of action of the weight is called the:

Lever Arm
Mechanical Advantage
Force Arm
Weight Arm

Answer 150

Weight Arm

Question 151

The following conditions can result from excessive and repetitive end-range motions, excessive force, and stretching leading to chronic soft tissue inflammation, muscle spasm and postural imbalance, EXCEPT:

Repetitive sprain injuries
None of these
Cumulative trauma disorders
Repetitive strain injuries
Repetitive motion injuries

Answer 151

Repetitive sprain injuries

Question 152

Gastric emptying is mainly the function of the:

Pylorus
None of these
Distal body
Fundus
Proximal body

Answer 152

Pylorus

Question 153

The following are characteristics of “fasciculations”, EXCEPT:

a. Refers to low-voltage potentials which results from independent contractions of single, denervated muscle
b. Especially prominent in and characteristics of chronic, progressive, motor neuron disease
c. When infrequent and not accompanied by atrophy, are not necessarily evidence of progressive disease
d. A result of almost any disorder of a motor neuron resulting in spontaneous, irregular, recurrent contraction
e. Occasionally occurs in otherwise normal subjects

Answer 153

a. Refers to low-voltage potentials which results from independent contractions of single, denervated muscle

Question 154

Stroke volume is expected to increase if:

After load increases
Myocardial contractility decreases
Myocardial elasticity decreases
Pre-load increases
None of these

Answer 154

Pre-load increases

Question 155

The following describe patellar misalignment, EXCEPT:

a. May be either permanent or recurrent
b. Release of the tight lateral restraining structures that cause excessive pressure and patellar subluxation (lateral release) may correct the problem
c. Eventual outcome of many cases of chronic patellar medial alignment is patellofemoral arthrosis
d. Vastus medialis advancement with tightening of lax medial restrains (medial roofing) may treat the problem
e. Correction of the varus angle of the patellar tendon (distal realignment) may help resolve the problem

Answer 155

e. Correction of the varus angle of the patellar tendon (distal realignment) may help resolve the problem

Question 156

If the blood pressure reading is 150/90 the mean blood pressure is:

100 mm Hg
135 mm Hg
120 mm Hg
110 mm Hg
115 mm Hg

Answer 156

110 mm Hg

Question 157

So that fibers conveying impulse from a visual field accompany one another to the same cortical center, fibers from each retina cross behind the eyeball in what is known as:

Visual path
Optic chiasm
Macula Lutea
Optic Tract

Answer 157

Optic chiasm

Question 158

A combination of the four primary movements in which flexion, abduction, extension and adduction succeed one another:

Circumduction
Lateral rotation in the horizontal or transverse plane
Medial rotation on the coronal plane
Adduction in the coronal or frontal plane

Answer 158

Circumduction

Question 159

In anterolateral rotatory instability of the knee, healing requires:

a. Six to eight weeks of cast immobilization with the knee flexed 90 degrees and leg maximally externally rotated
b. Four to five weeks of cylinder cast immobilization of the knee at about 60 degrees of flexion
c. None of these
d. A long leg cast over a bulky compressive dressing with the knee positioned 60-70 degrees of flexion and the tibia is internally rotated on the femur for five to eight weeks
e. Cast immobilization with the knee flexed at 60-70 degrees and the tibia internally rotated to prevent the posterolateral subluxation of the tibia for six to eight weeks

Answer 159

a. Six to eight weeks of cast immobilization with the knee flexed 90 degrees and leg maximally externally rotated

Question 160

As part of an overall ergonomics program, a variety of administrative practices can be used effectively, but must not be used instead of considering engineering improvements. Following are some accepted recommendations, EXCEPT:

Work/Rest schedule
Exercise
Job rotation
Workload reduction
Subdivision of labor

Answer 160

Exercise

Question 161

Rapid, unpredictable jerks of a muscle or a part:

Chorea
Myoclonus
Hyperkinesia
Tremor
Athetosis

Answer 161

Chorea

Question 162

Management following open reduction internal fixation of the pelvis include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Time frame for meeting these goals varied from four to eight weeks depending on the subject’s medical status
b. Physical therapy is initiated to begin transfer and exercise training with the subjects
c. Subjects are expected to be able to perform a home exercise program prior to hospital discharge
d. Subjects are maintained on bed rest for 1 to 2 days
e. Short-term goals include independence with transfer and wheelchair mobility

Answer 162

a. Time frame for meeting these goals varied from four to eight weeks depending on the subject’s medical status

Question 163

The attachments of this structure can be palpated and identified by placing the index finger on the lateral epicondyle of the femur and middle finger on head of the fibula:

Lateral collateral ligament
None of these
Medial meniscus
Medial collateral ligament

Answer 163

Lateral collateral ligament

Question 164

Following statements are true of the corticospinal or pyramid tract, EXCEPT:

a. Concerned with skilled movements of the distal muscles of the limb
b. About ⅓ of the axons in the pyramidal tract arise form the primary motor cortex in areas 4 and 6
c. About 90% of the tracts decussate to the opposite side at the lower level of the medulla
d. The fibers arise from the neurons in the ventral part of area 4 on the lateral surface of the hemisphere and from area 8

Answer 164

d. The fibers arise from the neurons in the ventral part of area 4 on the lateral surface of the hemisphere and from area 8

Question 165

Included among the types of irregular bone are the following:

Sesamoid
Wormian
None of these
Carpals
Sesamoid and wormian

Answer 165

None of these

Question 166

Main determinant of cardiac output:

Left ventricle and diastolic pressure
Blood present in the aorta
Efficiency of systolic contraction
Venous pressure

Answer 166

Efficiency of systolic contraction

Question 167

The muscles of expression, including the Buccinator is supplied by:

Seventh cranial nerve
Ninth cranial nerve
Fifth cranial nerve
Third cranial nerve

Answer 167

Seventh cranial nerve

Question 168

Characteristics findings in the diagnosis of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo includes the following, EXCEPT:

a. A latency of 1 or more seconds after the head is moved into the provoking position before the onset of the vertigo and nystagmus
b. Continued nystagmus and a recurrence of vertigo when the person returns to a sitting position
c. Decreased intensity of the vertigo with repeated movement of the person into the provoking position
d. Characteristic nystagmus
e. A gradual reduction in the vertigo and nystagmus with a duration of less than 60 seconds

Answer 168

b. Continued nystagmus and a recurrence of vertigo when the person returns to a sitting position

Question 169

The following describe the lateral meniscus, EXCEPT:

a. There is an area of no point attachment to the tibia from under the anterior cruciate ligament to the anterior margin of the tibia
b. May move anteriorly-posteriorly as the condyle does
c. The lateral meniscus is much less secure than the medial
d. Because of its shape, it is much more of movement by the lateral femoral condyle over the lateral plateau of the tibia
e. Has considerably less mobility than medial meniscus and by its shape and countour tends to be controlled much more by the femoral condyle

Answer 169

e. Has considerably less mobility than medial meniscus and by its shape and countour tends to be controlled much more by the femoral condyle

Question 170

The most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the cerebral cortex is:

Dopamine
Noradrenaline
Glycine
GABA
None of the above

Answer 170

GABA

Question 171

The following assumptions on mechanical pain threshold (MPTh) are true, EXCEPT:

a. MPThs are perceived differently by male subjects than female subjects
b. Women have lower MPThs than do men
c. MPThs do not differ in different body regions
d. There is no gender difference in MPTh with pressure applied at the top of the index finger proximal to the nail
e. There is positive correlation between age and MPTh

Answer 171

c. MPThs do not differ in different body regions

Question 172

The following statements are true of herniated disc, EXCEPT:

a. The most common areas of herniated disc are L4 to L5 and L5 to S1 interfaces
b. Only about 5% of disc herniation occur in the cervical area
c. It is caused by strain, degenerative joint disease, or trauma which may force all of part of the nucleus pulposus through the disc’s weakened of torn outer ring
d. Disc herniation does not cause loss of sensation of motor function in the area innervated by the compressed nerve root
e. Symptoms include low back pain, sometimes accompanied by muscle spasms which may radiate to the buttocks, legs and feet

Answer 172

d. Disc herniation does not cause loss of sensation of motor function in the area innervated by the compressed nerve root

Question 173

The anterior cruciate ligament is:

Slack when the knee is flexed, taut when the knee is fully extended
None of these
Taut when the knee is flexed, slack when the knee is fully extended
Taut when knee is flexed or fully extended
Slack when knee is flexed or fully extended

Answer 173

Slack when the knee is flexed, taut when the knee is fully extended

Question 174

Which eye muscles are contracting when the subject is looking downward and to the left:

Left superior rectus and right inferior oblique
Right inferior rectus and left superior oblique
Right superior rectus and left inferior oblique
Left inferior rectus and right superior oblique

Answer 174

Left inferior rectus and right superior oblique

Question 175

The normal value of hematocrit for men is:

50%
45%
30%
25%
35%

Answer 175

45%

Question 176

Metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joint extension is primarily the action of:

Interossei and lumbricals
Extensor digitorum communis
Extensor digitorum, lumbricals and interossei
Extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi radialis

Answer 176

Extensor digitorum communis

Question 177

The angle formed by the tendons of the quadriceps and ligamentum catella with the center of the patella:

Q-Angle
None of these
Genu Varum
Genu Valgum

Answer 177

Q-Angle

Question 178

The following statements are true of the hinged type of total knee prosthesis, EXCEPT:

a. Rotation places a great stress on the prosthesis/bone interfaces which will eventually loosen
b. Indicated for completely destroyed knee joint
c. Includes a hinge, which functions on one axis, and the hinged pieces are continually articulated
d. Patient must have functioning ligaments in the knee
e. Long, thin intermedullary portions hold the prosthesis in place, without the aid of methyl methacrylate

Answer 178

d. Patient must have functioning ligaments in the knee

Question 179

The following statements characterize percussion in chest PT, EXCEPT:

a. For patients with rib and sternal fracture, controlled mechanical ventilation may even stabilize the fracture site by minimizing negative intrathoracic pressure
b. Used during both the inspiratory and expiratory phases or respiration
c. Pneumothorax and hemothorax that develop as a result of the initial injury is considered a contraindicated to percussion
d. Not indicated for the spontaneously breathing with rib fractures who is responding to breathing exercises and assistive coughing techniques
e. Fast percussion (240 cycles/min) demonstrated the greatest sputum production, although slow percussion (6-12 cycles/min) was more effective than no percussion
f. None of the above

Answer 179

c. Pneumothorax and hemothorax that develop as a result of the initial injury is considered a contraindicated to percussion

Question 180

Postoperative complications in cardiac transplantation include the following, EXCEPT:

Weight loss
Transplant Vasculopathy
Cyclosporine related hypertension
Rejection
Infection

Answer 180

Weight loss

Question 181

Sodium ions can diffuse inward across the cell membrane in which condition:

a. Sensory nerve endings in the skin are excited from mechanical pressure
b. Signals between muscle cells in the heart and intestine are transmitted through electrical currents
c. All of these
d. In the brain, signals from one neuron to the next are transmitted by mechanical neurotransmitters

Answer 181

c. All of these

Question 182

The following statements describe the extensor mechanism of the knee, EXCEPT:

a. The infrapatellar and prepatellar bursae are subject to inflammation caused by trauma and by overuse
b. The patellofemoral and patellotibial ligaments (thickenings in the extensor retinaculum that covers the anterior portion of the knee), stabilize the patella
c. Because of the synovial membrane of the knee is large, it obtains support from the articularis genu during movements of the knee
d. The direction of pull exerted on the patella by the muscles provides for a great amount of dynamic instability of the patella
e. The patella is a critical component because its location allows greater mechanical advantage for knee extension

Answer 182

d. The direction of pull exerted on the patella by the muscles provides for a great amount of dynamic instability of the patella

Question 183

The following statements allow soft tissue palpation of certain structures, EXCEPT

a. The flexor carpi radialis may be palpated radial to the Palmaris longus proximally toward its origin at the medial epicondyle when making a tight first and then to radially deviate and flex the wrist
b. The wrist flexors may be palpated as a unit and individually as you move from their origin at the medial epicondyle and supracondylar line down the forearm and toward the wrist
c. The ulnar nerve may be palpated as it is rolled gently under the index and middle fingers in the sulcus between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon process
d. The medial collateral ligament, a basic stabilizer of the humeroulnar articulation, rises from the medial epicondyle and extends to the medial margin of the ulna’s trochlear notch may be palpated directly
e. To facilitate palpation of the triceps, the subject may lean on the table where it will stand out on the posterior aspect of the arm

Answer 183

d. The medial collateral ligament, a basic stabilizer of the humeroulnar articulation, rises from the medial epicondyle and extends to the medial margin of the ulna’s trochlear notch may be palpated directly

Question 184

Just proximal to the capitates, this is the most often dislocated as well as the second most often fractured bone in the wrist?

Capitate
Lunate
Hamate
Navicular
Base of third metacarpal

Answer 184

Lunate

Question 185

Following spinal cord injury (SCI), myths as to whether men can biologically father children abound. The following statements are true of male fertility following SCI, EXCEPT:

a. High immotile sperm count is caused by lifestyle factors (such as elevated scrotal temperature, or ejaculation frequency)
b. Immotile sperm count may be due to factors within the seminal plasma
c. Semen can be obtained from almost all men with SCI through the use of vibratory or electrical stimulation
d. Most men with SCI experience impairments in erectile and ejaculatory functions
e. While their ejaculated often have normal sperm counts, more immotile sperm are found than men

Answer 185

a. High immotile sperm count is caused by lifestyle factors (such as elevated scrotal temperature, or ejaculation frequency)

Question 186

Which of the following statements is true of the Na+/K+ATPase pump?

All of these
It is an example of an ionic channel
It pumps sodium out and potassium in
It is an example of facilitated diffusion
It is an example of facilitated osmosis

Answer 186

It pumps sodium out and potassium in

Question 187

The following are causes of cardiac muscle dysfunction, EXCEPT:

Pulmonary embolus
Hypotension
Renal insufficiency
Spinal cord injury
Cardiomyopathy

Answer 187

Hypotension

Question 188

The following are actions of the upper fibers of the Trapezius, EXCEPT:

Maintain shoulder level
When fatigued, allow the shoulder to droop
Shrug the shoulders
Retract the scapula

Answer 188

Retract the scapula

Question 189

In Moro reflex, when the infant is held in supine and the head is gently, but abruptly, allowed to drop in partial hyperextension, the following response is observed, EXCEPT:

a. The legs flex slightly
b. Deviates his mouth to a lateral side
c. The hips abduct but to a lesser degree than the arms
d. The arms return forward over the body in a clasping maneuver
e. The arms briskly abduct and extend while hands open

Answer 189

b. Deviates his mouth to a lateral side

Question 190

The sinu-atrial node is the normal pacemaker in the human heart because:

It has the highest intrinsic rate of automaticity
It receives both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervations
It is far from the ventricles
It is located near the entry to the right atrium
It is located near the entry to the right ventricle

Answer 190

It has the highest intrinsic rate of automaticity

Question 191

The following statements are true of the hips, EXCEPT:

a. The combination of an observed shortened extremities, external hip rotation, and pain movement strongly suggests a fractured hip
b. The ischial tuberosity is easily palpable if the hip is flexed as the gluteus maximus moves laterally
c. A line drawn across the top of the iliac crest crosses the spine between the spinous processes of L4 and L5
d. Due to the overhang of the ilium and the obstruction of supporting ligaments, the sacroiliac joint is not palpable
e. The center of the sacroiliac joint, at S2, is crossed by an imaginary line drawn between the posterior superior iliac spines

Answer 191

b. The ischial tuberosity is easily palpable if the hip is flexed as the gluteus maximus moves laterally

Question 192

A patient with long thoracic nerve injury will have the most difficulty in:

Folding blanket
Reaching at shoulder level
Combing his hair
Washing his face
Eating

Answer 192

Combing his hair

Question 193

Sensation to the middle finger is supplied by neurologic level:

C8
C5
C7
T1
C6

Answer 193

C7

Question 194

Decrease in lumbar lordosis results in:

Downward tilt of pelvis
Forward tilt of pelvis
Backward tilt of pelvis
No change in pelvic tilt

Answer 194

Backward tilt of pelvis

Question 195

While use of submaximal contraction recruits slow twitch fibers which selectively atrophies post anterior cruciate ligament injuries, it is still used to do the following, EXCEPT:

a. To provide neurophysiological patterning and prevent reflex dissociation
b. To decrease synovial fluid lubrication
c. To decrease stresses on patella-femoral joint and articular cartilage
d. To provide gradual stress to ligament to stimulate collagen formation and alignment during maturation
e. To control initial muscle contractions in the short arc ROM

Answer 195

b. To decrease synovial fluid lubrication

Question 196

The following conditions apply to chondromalacia patella, EXCEPT:

a. Calliet describes second degree chondromalcia as erosion of the cartilage to subchondral bone and possible involvement of the posterior femoral cartilage
b. Surgical intervention with debridement, realignment, or patellectomy may be necessary as the condition progresses
c. A common degenerative condition involving a softening of the patella’s articular surface
d. Quadriceps femoris muscle wasting, particularly of the oblique fibers of the vastus medialis, is common
e. Intermittent pain is attributed to the quadriceps femoris muscles as they pull the tender patella tightly against the trochlear surface of the femur

Answer 196

a. Calliet describes second degree chondromalcia as erosion of the cartilage to subchondral bone and possible involvement of the posterior femoral cartilage

Question 197

Repeated use of body mechanics is a major cause of back injuries. Some of the common mistakes include the following, EXCEPT:

Insufficient strength
Handling the load too far
Using fast but not jerking motion
Lifting with the back bent forward and the legs straight
Bending and twisting at the same time

Answer 197

Using fast but not jerking motion

Question 198

The following statements apply to the radial nerve, EXCEPT:

a. Extension of the distal phalanges, which appears to be absent in wrist drop, will be found to be possible if ulnar and median nerves are intact
b. Classically paralyzed by ischemia from pressure in the drunken and comatose and also in lead poisoning
c. Abduction and adduction of fingers are not weakened
d. Partly mediates flexion and supination at the elbow through innervations of the brachioradialis muscle
e. A “finger drop” may result when a penetrating injury of the dorsal forearm spares branches that mediate dorsiflexion of the wr5ist but sever the posterior interosseous branch that mediates extension of the thumb and fingers

Answer 198

c. Abduction and adduction of fingers are not weakened

Question 199

Neuromuscular electrical stimulation has been used:

a. Directly on the spastic muscle to produce a reciprocal relaxation effect
b. On the antagonist to the spastic muscle to fatigue them and directly on the spastic muscle produce a reciprocal relaxation effect
c. On the antagonist to the spastic muscle to fatigue them and directly on the spastic muscle produce a reciprocal relaxation effect
d. Directly on both the antagonist to the spastic muscle and the spastic muscle to produce a reciprocal relaxation effect
e. On both the antagonist to the spastic muscle and the spastic muscle

Answer 199

b. On the antagonist to the spastic muscle to fatigue them and directly on the spastic muscle produce a reciprocal relaxation effect

Question 200

Lesion of the seventh cranial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen results in the following condition, EXCEPT:

a. Can still close the eye on the side of the paralysis
b. Bell’s palsy
c. The buccinators is paralyzed, and the cheek puff out during expiration
d. Total paralysis of facial expression muscles on that side

Answer 200

a. Can still close the eye on the side of the paralysis