APK - August 1999

Question 1

Congenital muscular torticollis is a musculoskeletal anomaly with the following characteristics except

a. Child referred to PT before one year of age have better outcomes that nose referred later
b. Conservative treatment approach is a stretching program to lengthen the involved muscle
c. Clinical features include a heavy tilt away from the side of the shortened muscle and head rotation toward the ipsilateral side
d. Restricted neck ROM secondary to a shortened SCM
e. A surgical approach is lengthening of the involved muscle

Answer 1

c. Clinical features include a heavy tilt away from the side of the shortened muscle and head rotation toward the ipsilateral side

Question 2

Which is true of individuals without cardiopulmonary abnormalities?

The (increase/decrease) in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the (increase/decrease) in metabolic rate, allowing (arterial/venous) blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise

Answer 2

The INCREASE in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the INCREASE in metabolic rate, allowing ARTERIAL blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise

Question 3

To be admitted to the PT-OT examination, the applicant at the time of filing of application must satisfy the following requirements, EXCEPT:

a. A foreign applicant can be admitted to the PT-OT examination even if his country of citizenship does not allow Filipino therapists to practice in his country on the same as the subjects/citizens of that country
b. Clinical experience must include neurological musculoskeletal, pulmonary, cardiovascular, pediatrics and psychosocial functions
c. He/she is at least twenty-one years of age
d. Must have completed at least nine months of clinical internship in physical and occupational therapy in an adequate PT-OT dept of a certified hospital or clinic under the supervision of a competent and duly registered therapist
e. Applicant must have received a degree from a school of physical and occupational therapy duly recognized by the government

Answer 3

a. A foreign applicant can be admitted to the PT-OT examination even if his country of citizenship does not allow Filipino therapists to practice in his country on the same as the subjects/citizens of that country

Question 4

The Problem Oriented Medical Record is a system based on the following, EXCEPT:

a. Identification of a specific treatment plan
b. Assessment of the effectiveness of the treatment plans
c. Preparation of the informed consent
d. Formation of present and past information about the patient
e. Development of a specific, current problem

Answer 4

c. Preparation of the informed consent

Question 5

The Radial Nerve innervates the following muscle

Extensor indicis proprius
The medial lumbricals
Two radial lumbricas
Flexor digitorum coomunis
Abductor pollicis brevis

Answer 5

Extensor indicis proprius

Question 6

A terminal lateral rotation of the tibia is said to “lock” the joint when the knee is fully extended. This key is the

Gastrocnemius
Biceps femoris
Piriformis
Soleus
Popliteus

Answer 6

Popliteus

Question 7

Learning the trunk forward when standing from a sitting position is better accomplished because:

Forward shfiting of the line of gravity
Increased posterior torque
Center of gravity is shifted forward
Increased base of support

Answer 7

Center of gravity is shifted forward

Question 8

Signs of cardiac dysfunction include the following, EXCEPT:

a. A heart rate that is either excessively high of exceptionally low during exercise
b. An increase in diastolic blood pressure during exercise that is greater than 15 to 20 mm Hg
c. Electrocardiographic changes such as dysrythmias or ST-segment depression
d. A diastolic blood pressure that does not rise progressively as work level increases
e. A systolic blood pressure that falls during exercise

Answer 8

d. A diastolic blood pressure that does not rise progressively as work level increases

Question 9

If the tendon surface become irritated and rough, and if the sheath becomes inflamed and continues to press on the tendon, the following condition may be diagnosed:

a. Tendinitis
b. Epicondylitis
c. Stenosing tenosynovitis
d. Tenobursitis
e. Cystitis

Answer 9

c. Stenosing tenosynovitis

Question 10

In Allen Test, if the hand does not react, of it if flushes very slowly

a. The released artery is not occluded
b. The released vein is not occluded
c. The released artery is partially or completely occluded
d. The released vein is partially or completely occluded
e. The released artery and vein are partially or completely occluded

Answer 10

c. The released artery is partially or completely occluded

Question 11

Mean arterial pressure is expected to increase if

a. Stroke volume increases
b. There is maintained exertion
c. Calcium channel blockers are administered
d. cardiac output decreases
e. there is generalized vasodilatation

Answer 11

a. Stroke volume increases

Question 12

Licenses of registered physical and occupational therapists shall be renewed upon presentation of credit units earned in the past three years totaling

a. 30 credit units
b. 50 credit units
c. 70 credit units
d. 60 credit units
e. 80 credit units

Answer 12

b. 50 credit units

Question 13

Denervation hypersensitivity

a. Is due to an increase in the number of receptors
b. Is due to a decrease in the sensitivity of receptors.
c. Is due to an increase in the amount of neurotransmitters released
d. Results from avulsion of the nerve
e. Is due to an increased sensitivity to neurotransmitter

Answer 13

a. Is due to an increase in the number of receptors

Question 14

Crystalloids and colloids solution in water

a. Blood platelets
b. White Blood Cells
c. Plasma
d. Macrophages
e. Phagocytes

Answer 14

Plasma

Question 15

Decreases vascular resistance by inhibiting calcium mediated contraction of vascular smooth muscle:

a. Calcium channel blockers
b. Beta adrenergic blockers
c. Diuretics
d. Calcium channel blockers
e. Angiotensin-converting (ACE) enzyme inhibitors

Answer 15

Calcium channel blockers

Question 16

A deep sulcus that outlines and sweeps backward above the temporal pole, and then continues on the superolateral surface, almost horizontally backwards, marking the line along which the hemisphere became folded. The speech and hearing area are both closely associated with it.

a. Medial
b Central
c. Lateral
d. Collateral
e. Calcarine

Answer 16

Lateral

Question 17

This joint is the upper extremity’s only attachment to the trunk:

a.Sternoclavicular
b.Acromioclavicular
c. Scapulothoracic
d. Glenohumeral
e. Scapulothoracic

Answer 17

Sternoclavicular

Question 18

The shape of articulating surfaces of bi-axial joints are either

a. Plane or saddle
b. Condyloid or ellipsoid
c. Pivot or condyloid
d. hinge or pivot
e. ball and socket

Answer 18

Condyloid or ellipsoid

Question 19

Area of skin supplied by one dorsal root.

a. Erector pili
b. Dermatome
c. Myotome
d. Epidermis
e. Dermis

Answer 19

Dermatome

Question 20

Proximal side to side tremor found on heel thin or finger-nose testing:

a. Cerebellar tremor
b. Parkisonian tremor
c. Myoclonus
d. Senile Tremor

Answer 20

Cerebellar tremor

Question 21

Theoretical relationships are established between the primary concept to be measured and one or more other concepts in this type of validity.

a. Prescriptive
b. Content
c. Predictive
d. Construct
e. Face

Answer 21

Construct

Question 22

Facial expression is an age-related change that may affect expressive communication in the elderly. The sagging cheeks or jowls which give a resting appearance of “anger” or “crabbiness” to many elderly are actually the result of

a. Pessimistic outlook over the years
b. Significant loss of fat in the muscle fibers of the face
c. Denervated facial nerve
d. None of these
e. All of these

Answer 22

Significant loss of fat in the muscle fibers of the face

Question 23

The following statements describe the Median Nerve, EXCEPT:

a. It is formed from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus.
b. It accompanies the axillary and brachial arteries.
c. As it passes the cubital fossa, it gives off a deep branch, the anterior interosseous nerve
d. It gives off branch only until it reaches the elbow region
e. It enters with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles and all lumbricals

Answer 23

It enters with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles and all lumbricals

Question 24

The following statement characterize the Radial Nerve, EXCEPT:

a. A little father down the arm, it passes obliquely lateralwards to run behind the humerus in its spiral groove, deep to the Triceps
b. As it crosses the elbow joint, it supplies the muscles arising from the lateral supracondylar ridge: the Brachioradialis and Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis
c. It is the largest nerve of the upper limb
d. Its nerve divides include C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
e. The nerve divides into a long Superficial Branch and Deep Branch or Posterior Interosseous Nerve.

Answer 24

As it crosses the elbow joint, it supplies the muscles arising from the lateral supracondylar ridge: the Brachioradialis and Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis

Question 25

The Act known as the Philippine Physical a n d Occupational Therapy Law, creating the board of examiners for PT and OTs is known as Republic Act No.

a. 8066
b. 5680
c. 5670
d. 8056
e. 5690

Answer 25

5680

Question 26

Assistive devices are often used and prescribed to facilitate the process of gait training. The following statements are true, EXCEPT:

a. These devices may be used as permanent functional aids the can be used for home or community ambulation.
b. When a person using an assistive device has compromised cardio respiratory function, the increased demand may not be within the limits of his or her reserve capacity
c. Ambulating while using an assistive device is known to create a metabolic demand different from that for unassisted ambulation
d. Assistive devices are used as transitional aids towards the goal of independent ambulation
e. The decreased metabolic demand with the use of assistive devices is at least in part due to the lower speed

Answer 26

The decreased metabolic demand with the use of assistive devices is at least in part due to the lower speed

Question 27

The following statement characterize De Quervain’s disease, EXCEPT:

a. Combinations of hand twisting and forceful gripping can cause the disease
b. Repetitive friction accounts for the absorb thickening of the fibrous sheath and resultant contraction of the tendons
c. Attributed to excessive friction between two thumb tendons and their common sheath
d. Affects the tendons on the side of the wrist and at the base of the thumb
e. The tendons affected are connected to the muscles on the back of the forearm that contract to pull the thumb back and away from the hand.

Answer 27

b. Repetitive friction accounts for the absorb thickening of the fibrous sheath and resultant contraction of the tendons

Question 28

These procedures stretch the spinal cord and reproduce pain. The patient is in supine and asked to forcibly flex his head onto this chest with his hands behind his head. The result may be pain in cervical spine, and occasionally in the low back or down the legs indicating meningeal irritation, nerve root involvement or irritation of the dural covering of the nerve root.

a. Kernig Test
b. Milgram Test
c. Gaeslan’s Sign
d. Hoover Test
e. Naffziger Test

Answer 28

Kernig Test

Question 29

The osmotic gradient in the medullary interstitial is maintained because

a. The vasa recta is permeable only to water and not to the solutes
b. The oncotic concentration in the vasa recta increases from the cortex to the medulla
c. The rate of fluid flow in the vasa recta is slower than the tubules
d. The flow of fluid in the ascending extremities of the vasa recta is perpendicular but along the same direction
e. The direction of fluid in the descending and ascending limb of the vasa recta is parallel and counter to each other

Answer 29

e. The direction of fluid in the descending and ascending limb of the vasa recta is parallel and counter to each other

Question 30

Neurodevelopmental treatment (NDT) is the most commonly used approach to treatment with cerebral palsy. The following statements describe NDT, EXCEPT:

a. Treatment outcomes are supposed to be achieved through physical handling of the child during movement, giving the child more normal sensorimotor experiences
b. As the child gains postural control , the therapist gradually withdraws support
c. This approach focuses on encouraging and building upon normal movement patterns and normal postural reactions while trying to reduce abnormal movements
d. Current interpretations of NDT does not include the importance of functional skill practice in treatment
e. It is implicit in NDT that improved postural control will lead to improvement in functional skills without necessarily working on these specific skills

Answer 30

d. Current interpretations of NDT does not include the importance of functional skill practice in treatment

Question 31

True hip pain in rheumatoid involvement of the hip produces pain on the

a. Lateral aspect of the high
b. Groin
c. On the acetabular area
d. Medial aspect of the thigh
e. Posterior aspect of the thigh

Answer 31

Groin

Question 32

Resolution No. 381, Series of 1995 standardized the guidelines and procedures for the implementation of the continuing professional education program, which includes the following, EXCEPT:

a. The CPEC is composed of a chairman, from the members of the PRB, and two members, the first is the president of the PPTA and OTAP, the second is the president of the Association of PT and OT Schools
b . The continuing Professional Education (CPE) Council for PT and OT assists its corresponding Professional Regulatory Board (PRB) for PT and OT in implementations CPE program.
c. The CPEC does not accept, approve applicants for accreditation of CPE providers
d. The term of office of the chairman of each CPE council is co-terminus with his/her incumbency in the PRB.
e. The term of office of the first and second member is co-terminus with his/her incumbency as officer of their respective organizations.

Answer 32

The CPEC does not accept, approve applicants for accreditation of CPE providers

Question 33

Disinfection is a process distinct from sterilization. The following statements are true, EXCEPT:

a. Something that is sterile is free of any microbial life.
b. Disinfection is a process that results in the complete removal of all microbial life from an object.
c. Sterilization may be accomplished through autoclaving of irradiation by x-rays or gamma rays
d. Disinfection tends to kill vegetative microorganisms or inhibit their growth
e. Most disinfectants are chemicals, generally used on inanimate objects or surfaces rather than on living tissues.

Answer 33

b. Disinfection is a process that results in the complete removal of all microbial life from an object.

Question 34

The following characterizes straight posterior knee instability, EXCEPT:

a. May be caused by hyperextension, when some other force is directed against the extended knee
b. Structures involved are the anterior cruciate ligament and the miniscotibial portions of the capsule
c. May be caused by hyperextension, when a weight falls on the extended joint
d. Rupture is caused by a force directed against the flexed knee that strikes the anterior aspect of the tibial head and drives it rearward
e. Primary structures involved are the posterior cruciate ligament and the posterior part of the capsule

Answer 34

b. Structures involved are the anterior cruciate ligament and the miniscotibial portions of the capsule

Question 35

Following statements characterize pernicious anemia, EXCEPT:

a. Degeneration of dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord including gray matter
b. There is diminished two-point discrimination and joint sensation
c. Loss of position and vibration sense in the legs and positive Romberg sign.
d. Difficulty in walking and tingling sensations in the feet
e. In later stages, muscle stretch reflex may disappear.

Answer 35

a. Degeneration of dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord including gray matter

Question 36

Vestibular influence on the geocentric frame of reference are as follows, EXCEPT:

a. Detection of head acceleration
b. Tibialis anterior muscle activity increases during ambulation when head is tilted backward.
c. Otolith organs provide reference for head position with respect to earth-vertical
d. No influence on trunk and limb stability when head position changes
e. Used for repositioning the eyes based on changes in head orientation

Answer 36

d. No influence on trunk and limb stability when head position changes

Question 37

Deep tendon reflexes are

a. Polysynaptic nerve response presynaptic potential
b. Excitatory transmission
c. Monosynaptic reflex response
d. Excitatory
e. Bisynaptic reflex pressure

Answer 37

Monosynaptic reflex response

Question 38

The following statements describe the “Carrying Angle”, EXCEPT:

a.The angularity of the extended and supinated limb disappears on pronation
b. As the ulna swings round the trochlear from flexion to extension, the trochlear is forced gradually lateralwards.
c. The difference in circumference between the two ends (ulna and trochlear) of the hour- glass is responsible for forcing the ulna gradually out of line with the humerus
d. The difference in alignment between humerus and ulna is compensated for when the lower end of the radius crosses over the medial side of the ulna
e. This difference in alignment between the humerus and ulna amounts to about 15 degrees when the elbow is fully extended

Answer 38

b. As the ulna swings round the trochlear from flexion to extension, the trochlear is forced gradually lateralwards.

Question 39

Allograft rejection is a result of

a. Formation of antibodies and sensitized lymphocytes, either or both of which may destroy the antigen, a property of acquired immunity
b. Histocompatibility complexes
c. That function to which protects an individual from toxins that might cause tissue damage
d. Destruction of the antigen by phagocytosis, a property of innate immunity
e. Provoked immunity

Answer 39

a. Formation of antibodies and sensitized lymphocytes, either or both of which may destroy the antigen, a property of acquired immunity

Question 40

These mechanoreceptors are found in the skin and connective tissues surrounding bones and joints to detect vibration:

a. Muscle spindle
b. Ruffini’s end organs
c. Miessner’s corpuscles
d. Pacinian Corpuscles
e. Krause’s end bulb

Answer 40

Pacinian Corpuscles

Question 41

A pathway of communication between the two hemispheres is created as these fibers cross the midline from one hemisphere to the other.

a. Transhemisphere
b. Projection
c. Commissural
d. Superior Longitudinal Bundle
e. Association

Answer 41

Commissural

Question 42

The aorta leaves this chamber of the heart.

a. Right ventricle
b. It bypasses the heart
e. Left auricle
c. Right auricle
d. Left ventricle
e. Left auricle

Answer 42

Left ventricle

Question 43

Nerve cells at rest are positively charged on the outside and negatively charged on the inside

a. Active Potentials
b. Action Potential
c. Hyperpolarization
d. Depolarization
e. Resting membrane potential

Answer 43

Resting membrane potential

Question 44

The following statements describes Down Syndrome, EXCEPT:

a. Deficits in eye-hand coordination, laterality, and visual control were present in older children.
b. The present of monosynaptic reflex during platform perturbations suggested that balance problem do not result from hypotonia but from defects within higher-level postural control mechanisms
c. In 7-11 years of age group, those with Down Syndrome scored equally in running speed, balance strength and visual motor controls than the group without
d. In children 1-6 years of age postures responses to loss of balance were slow and therefore insufficient for maintaining stability
e. Attainment of early motor milestones is thought to be delayed because of problems with ligamentous laxity in some joints, decreased strength, and hypotonia.

Answer 44

c. In 7-11 years of age group, those with Down Syndrome scored equally in running speed, balance strength and visual motor controls than the group without

Question 45

Transaction of the pituitary stalk will produce

Increased LH Ant.
Decreased TSH Ant.
Decrease prolactin
Increased FSH
Increased ACTH

Answer 45

Decreased TSH Ant.

Question 46

The following statements apply to Duchenne (pseudohypertrophic) dystrophy, EXCEPT:

a. Subject is still able to rise from a forward flexed position without using his hands to assist the movement
b. Contractures are common and patients seldom survive into the third decade
c. The enlargement of the muscles is due to fatty infiltration and the muscles are weak.
d. A primary, genetic disorder characterized by early weakness and enlargement of the musculature of the calves, thighs, hips and shoulders
e. Onset is in the first five years of life and occurs almost exclusively in boys

Answer 46

a. Subject is still able to rise from a forward flexed position without using his hands to assist the movement

Question 47

This structure resist the tendency of the femur to slide forwards off the plateau like tibial surface in actions such as in jumping with knees bent:

Lateral collateral ligament
Posterior cruciate ligament
Medial and lateral menisci
Anterior cruciate ligament
Medial collateral ligament

Answer 47

Posterior cruciate ligament

Question 48

Plantar-flexion contractures can interfere with the performance of functional tasks through the following, EXCEPT:

a. Soft tissues passively limit dorsiflexion to the muscle moment developed about the ankle during the stance phase.
b. Decrease the plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions.
c. There is knee hyperextension during the stance phase
d. There is decreased ankle dorsiflexion during the swing phase
e.There is decreased peak hip extension in late stance phase

Answer 48

b. Decrease the plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions.

Question 49

This joint is primarily responsible for inversion/eversion and abduction/adduction of the foot.

Talonavicular
Talocrural
Subtalar
Transverse tarsal
Calcaneocuboid

Answer 49

Transverse tarsal

Question 50

This muscle has an extensive origin from the whole lower half of the shaft of the humerus and inserted by a tendon into the tuberosity of the ulna below the coronoid process, its sole concern is flexion of the elbow joint

Brachialis
Brachioradialis
Pronator Teres
Biceps brachii
Coracobrachialis

Answer 50

Brachialis

Question 51

When force is applied at a site intermediate between the fulcrum and the weight to be moved, this lever

a. Does not exist
b. Is a first class lever
c. Is a second class lever
d. Can not be moved
e. Is a third class lever

Answer 51

Is a third class lever

Question 52

Following statements are true of upper motor neurons, EXCEPT:

a. Provides final direct link with muscles through myoneural junctions
b. Synapse directly on alpha, beta and gamma motor neuron in the spinal cord and cranial nerve nuclei.
c. Completely contained within the central nervous system
d. Synonymous to corticospinal tract
e. Lesion results in exaggerated deep reflexes and muscle rigidity.

Answer 52

Provides final direct link with muscles through myoneural junctions

Question 53

Gait patterns between young (20-40 y.o.) and old (60-80 y.o) people differ in their gait performance as follows, EXCEPT:

a. Ankle dorsiflexion is slightly increased in older, while ankle plantar flexion was decreased in older people.
b. Peak hip flexion exhibit a slightly increase in the older persons.
c. Peak knee extension is significantly less in the older persons.
d. Stride length is significantly greater in the younger persons.
e. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old

Answer 53

e. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old

Question 54

The following statements describe clavicular motion, EXCEPT:

a. After the shoulder has been abducted 90 degrees, clavicular transverse rotation occurs to complete scapular upward rotation and shoulder flexion
b. The clavicle rotates at the sternoclavicular joint approximately 40 degree around its long axis.
c. Clavicle motion include elevation-depression and protraction-retraction
d. Tightening of the trapezoid and conoid ligaments cause the upward rotation of the clavicle
e. When clavicular rotation is prevented, arm elevation is limited to 90 degrees.

Answer 54

e. When clavicular rotation is prevented, arm elevation is limited to 90 degrees.

Question 55

The following statements are true of the hips, EXCEPT:

a. The anterior and lateral portions of the greater trochanter are covered by the tensor fascia latae and the gluteus medius muscle
b. When the iliac crests are not level in relation to each other, it is usually because of pelvic obliquity
c. When the greater trochanter is unequal, they may be due to a congenital dislocation of the hip or a hip fracture that has healed in a poor position.
d. The pubic tubercles are just above the top of the greater trochanter.
e. About three inches from the top of the iliac crest, the iliac tubercle marks the widest point on the crest

Answer 55

d. The pubic tubercles are just above the top of the greater trochanter.

Question 56

Functional capacity evaluation are often used to determine the following, EXCEPT:

a. A person’s readiness to return to work
b. The degree of the person’s disability in order to collect disability pay
c. The need for further rehabilitation
d. Physical capabilities and work tolerance
e. The need for job modification

Answer 56

b. The degree of the person’s disability in order to collect disability pay

Question 57

In this lifting technique the individual establishes a wide, solid base of support with one foot positioned in front of the other. The body is slightly over the load with the knees bent in half squatting position. No bending at the waist takes place. In the beginning of the lift, the head moves first, followed by the straightening of the legs.

a. Golfer’s lift
b. Deep squat lift
c. Tripod lift
d. Power lift
e. Partial squat lift with support

Answer 57

Power lift

Question 58

Bilateral vestibular deficits results in the following, EXCEPT:

a. None of these
b. Oscillopsia
c. Skew deviation
d. Disequilibrium
e. Postural instability

Answer 58

c. Skew deviation

Question 59

The following statements are true of the Pituitary Gland, EXCEPT:

a. Its rich blood supply is derived from the small branches of the Right and Left Internal Carotid Arteries
b. It is made of the Anterior and Posterior Lobe that function differently
c. It is a pea-size gland hanging by a stalk, the infundibulum, from the floor of the third ventricle of the brain, just behind the optic chiasm
d. Its shape and appearance resembles a miniature pine cone, projecting backwards from the back of the roof of the ventricle.

Answer 59

d. Its shape and appearance resembles a miniature pine cone, projecting backwards from the back of the roof of the ventricle.

Question 60

These carpal bones form the radiocarpal joint by their biconcave distal end of the radius and the biconcave proximal articulating surfaces.

a. Scaphoid and Capitate
b. Scaphoid and Lunate
c. Capitate and Lunate
d. Lunate and Capitate
e. Scaphoid and Trapezoid

Answer 60

b. Scaphoid and Lunate

Question 61

Which of the following meals will be emptied first?

a. 300 cal semi solid high protein
b. 300 cal liquid high carbohydrate
c. 300 cal liquid high protein
d. 300 cal solid high protein
e. 300 cal solid high carbohydrate

Answer 61

b. 300 cal liquid high carbohydrate

Question 62

A frame of reference for balance and head control that provides spatial coordinates for limb and body-segment positions:

a. Exocentric
d. Egocentric
b. Proprioceptive
e. Geocentric
c. Gravitational

Answer 62

d. Egocentric

Question 63

This great parasympathetic nerve supplies the thorax and abdomen.

a. Abducens
b. Hypoglossal
c. Pelvic Splanchnic
d. Vagus
e. Glossopharyngeal

Answer 63

d. Vagus

Question 64

The following statements characterize carpal tunnel syndrome, EXCEPT

a. Pain, numbness and tingling of the hands
b. Advanced cases may include wasting of the hypothenar eminence and an apparent clumsiness of the hand
c. Condition may affect both hands or only the dominant hand
d. Symptoms are most often acute while sleeping
e. Uncomfortable sensations are usually felt on the first three fingers and the base of the thumb

Answer 64

b. Advanced cases may include wasting of the hypothenar eminence and an apparent clumsiness of the hand

Question 65

In the revised category-ratio rating of perceived exertion (RPE), a rating of 7 is described as:

a. Very strong
b. Very, very strong
c. Somewhat strong
d. Weak
e. Moderate

Answer 65

a. Very strong

Question 66

Feedback information about the kinematic or kinetic components of the movement being attempted by the patient.

a. Result Oriented
b. Knowledge of Performance
c. Knowledge of Function
d. Knowledge of Results
e. Performance Oriented

Answer 66

b. Knowledge of Performance

Question 67

The following characteristics describe Type lIA muscle fibers, EXCEPT:

a. Contained in motor units characterized by a high firing frequency or discharge rate
b. High threshold for activation and slow-twitch contraction.
c. Have cytological properties that fall between type I and type lIB fiber
d. Relatively fatigue resistant
e. With intermediate levels of glycolytic and oxidative enzyme activity

Answer 67

c. Have cytological properties that fall between type I and type lIB fiber

Question 68

If there is anterior cruciate instability, the tibia will rock

a. Backward
b. Medially
c. Forward
d. Laterally
e. Diagonally

Answer 68

Forward

Question 69

A solute with a high portion coefficient is

a. Moves through the cell membrane with difficulty
b. Where saturation can occur
c. Directed against a chemical gradient
d. More soluble in fat than in water
e. More soluble in water than in fat.

Answer 69

More soluble in fat than in water

Question 70

Suggested dimension (in feet) for a treatment cubicle area is

10x10
8x8
6x8
8x12
8x10

Answer 70

8x10

Question 71

This vertically-directed device acts as the pivot round which the rotation occurs and which brings this lateral rotation of the tibia (or medial rotation of the femur) to a halt.

Lateral collateral ligament
Posterior cruciate ligament
Medial ligament
Semilunar cartilages
Anterior cruciate ligament

Answer 71

Anterior cruciate ligament

Question 72

Energy costs during walking adults with below knee amputations (BKAs) and those without amputation may be generalized as follows, EXCEPT:

a. When adults with BKAs walked at the same speed as adults without, their energy costs were approximately 32% greater.
b. Energy costs are the same between adults with BKAs and those without when walking at the same speed.
c. They have the same energy costs because the person with amputations walked at slower speeds.
d. Adults with BKAs and short residual limbs (less than 6% of total body height) has a 40% increase when they perform the same activities.
e. Adults with BAKs and long residual limbs (greater than 8% of total body height) had a 10% increase in oxygen consumption compared with adults without.

Answer 72

b. Energy costs are the same between adults with BKAs and those without when walking at the same speed.

Question 73

Hypocoagulopathy can lead to

Increased heart workload
Hemorrhage and edema
Embolus formation
Thrombus formation
Increased breathing

Answer 73

b.Hemorrhage and edema

Question 74

Normally, the movement of the contents of the gastrointestinal tract is slowest along this segment.

Mouth
Large intestine
Esophagus
Small intestine
Stomach

Answer 74

Large Intestine

Question 75

The following statements characterize thoracic outlet syndrome, EXCEPT:

a. There is numbness in the fingers of the hand
b. Involves both the nerves and adjacent blood vessels of the shoulder and the upper arm
c. Arm may feel as if it is “going to sleep”
d. There is compression of the nerves and blood vessels between the neck and shoulder
e. Wrist pulse remain strong

Answer 75

. Wrist pulse remain strong

Question 76

The following statements describe work hardening programs, EXCEPT

a. Attempts to meet the functional and physical needs of clients
b. Emphasize physical conditioning through strengthening endurance, and coordination exercises
c. Supposed to simulate or duplicate actual job takes
d. Work oriented
e. A job specific type of rehabilitation program that attempts to address vocational and behavioral needs of clients
f. None of the above

Answer 76

b. Emphasize physical conditioning through strengthening endurance, and coordination exercises

Question 77

Shortly after the brachial plexus exit the vertebral bodies and pass between the scalenus anticus and medius muscles, the nerve roots of C5 and C6 join to form

The middle trunk
The posterior cord
The lateral cord
The upper trunk
The lower trunk

Answer 77

The upper trunk

Question 78

In retinacular test, the proximal IP joint is held in a neutral position and the distal IP joint attempts to move into flexion. When the proximal IP joint is flexed to slightly relax the retinaculum, and the distal IP joint still does not flex

a. The distal IP joint capsule is probably contracted
b. There is no contraction in the distal IP joint capsule
c. The retinacular ligaments are loose
d. The retinacular ligaments are tight
e. None of these

Answer 78

a. The distal IP joint capsule is probably contracted

Question 79

Coordination disturbances are usually assessed through the following methods, EXCEPT:

“Finger-to-Nose” test
Reciprocal tracking tasks
Tracking tasks
Unilateral tapping tracking tasks
Kinematic analysis

Answer 79

Kinematic analysis

Question 80

Depolarization is initiated when this moves inside the cell.

Potassium
Magnesium
Chloride
Sodium
Permanganate

Answer 80

Sodium

Question 81

Normal spread of excitation in the heart is:

a. SAN →AVN →Bundle of his →Purkinje Fibers →Ventricles
b. AVN →Bundle of His →Atrium →Purkinje Fibers →Ventricles
c. SAN →AVN →Purkinje Fibers →Bundle of His →Ventricles
d. SAN →Bundle of His →AVN →Purkinje Fibers →Ventricles
e. AVN →SAN →Purkinje Fibers →Ventricles →Atria

Answer 81

a. SAN →AVN →Bundle of his →Purkinje Fibers →Ventricles

Question 82

Supplying the lower limb, this artery enters the thigh in the midline in front then descends vertically.

a. Tibial Artery
b. Left Femoral Circumflex Artery
c. Femoral Artery
d. Sciatic Artery
e. Popliteal Artery

Answer 82

c. Femoral Artery

Question 83

The sensory cranial nerve supply of the eyeball is

a. Fourth (Trochlear)
b. Third (Oculomotor)
c. Sixth (Abducens)
d. Ophthalmic Division of the Fifth (Trigeminal)
e. Seventh (Facial)

Answer 83

d. Ophthalmic Division of the Fifth (Trigeminal)

Question 84

Muscle contraction strength gradation can be accomplished in the following manner, ЕХСЕРТ:

a. Motor neurons with greatest innervations ratio are activated initially activating few muscle fibers.
b. Increasing the frequency of stimulation of individual motor units
c. Simultaneously recruiting the number of activated motor unit
d. Initially activating few muscle fibers.
e. As each active muscle fiber is developing maximum tension, the percentage of time is increased.l

Answer 84

a. Motor neurons with greatest innervations ratio are activated initially activating few muscle fibers.

Question 85

Factors contributing to neuropathic plantar ulceration in patients with diabetes include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Food deformities
b. Limited mobility of the great toes metatarsophalangeal joint
c. Limited mobility of the talocrural joint
d. Limited mobility of the subtalar joint
e. Decreased plantar sensation

Answer 85

e. Decreased plantar sensation

Question 86

The following are true of Tetanic contractions, EXCEPT:

a. Serial, continuous contractions, in which individual contractions cannot be distinguished
b. Series of increasingly stronger twitch contractions occurring in response to repeated contractions
c. They occur in response to a bombardment of the muscle by rapid, successive stimuli
d. Incomplete Tetanic contractions may convert to a normal contraction if the excessive stimulation ceases abruptly

Answer 86

b. Series of increasingly stronger twitch contractions occurring in response to repeated contractions

Question 87

In evaluating the client, the caregiver

a. Initiate planning for extended treatment as necessary.
b. Prepare and document the treatment plan and program
c. Determines the client’s current conditions his functional abilities and limitations
d. Documents client’s condition and functional outcome abilities
e. Determines and selects the appropriate treatment techniques and equipment

Answer 87

c. Determines the client’s current conditions his functional abilities and limitations

Question 88

Splints that incorporate some elastic component such as springs of rubber bands that exerts a force on the joint but allow for some change of joint position.

a. Dynamic-progressive
b. Static-progressive
c. Static-progressive
d. Static
e. Dynamic

Answer 88

e. Dynamic

Question 89

When defining the motion between the foot and leg, a common center of rotation is assumed with this joint primarily responsible for dorsiflexion/plantar flexion components:

a. Metatarsophalangeal
b. Talonavicular
c. Talocrural
d. Transverse tarsal
e. Calcaneocuboid

Answer 89

d. Transverse tarsal

Question 90

The following statements are true of biceps brachii, EXCEPT:

a. A simultaneous flexion of the shoulder and elbow and supination of the forearm will result from an isolated, unopposed contraction of the biceps.
b. When the forearm is supinated, it acts in flexion of the elbow with or without a load, in slow or in fast movements in either concentric or eccentric contraction
c. Its effectiveness as a supinator is almost four times as effective as the supinator at an angle of 90 degrees
d. It is most effective as a supinator when the elbow is flexed at about a 145 degree angle.
e. Its effectiveness as a supinator diminishes as the elbow is extended

Answer 90

d. It is most effective as a supinator when the elbow is flexed at about a 145 degree angle.

Question 91

The following statements describe repair of acute instability, EXCEPT

a. Advancement of the posterior oblique ligament is a reconstructive procedure that is almost always used
b. Peripheral tears of the medial meniscus is salvaged buy suturing the structure to the capsular ligaments
c. The need to drill holes in bone to reattach ligaments is seldom necessary inasmuch as the periosteum is usually intact and will hold sutures well
d. Repair of an acute case by direct suture is usually avoided
e. Ligament stapling is avoided because it tends to “strangle”

Answer 91

c. The need to drill holes in bone to reattach ligaments is seldom necessary inasmuch as the periosteum is usually intact and will hold sutures well

Question 92

Segmental development is evidence of the human torso’s nerve supply of an orderly series of spinal nerves; i. e one pair of spinal nerve supplies this strip-like area of skin, and is known as a

a. Myotome
b. Terminal Branches
c. Dermatome
d. Spinal Nerves
e. Vertebral Nerves

Answer 92

c. Dermatome

Question 93

Differentiation of these three vesicles at the rostral end of the neural tube initiates brain development.

a. Prosencephalon, mesencephalon and metencephalon
b. Telencephalon, diencephalon, and mesencephalon
c. Prosencephalon, mesencephalon and rhombencephalon
d. Mesencephalon, rhombencephalon and metencephalon
e. Prosencephalon, rhombencephalon and myelencephalon

Answer 93

c. Prosencephalon, mesencephalon and rhombencephalon

Question 94

When digital muscles have their proximal attachment in the forearm or humerus, they are classified as

a. Extrinsic
b. Thenar
c. Intrinsic
d. Midtrinsic
e. Hypothenar

Answer 94

a. Extrinsic

Question 95

These muscles retract the protracted scapula and turn the glenoid fossa downwards, thus forcibly lowering the raised arm, with other muscles, they keep the scapula applied to the chest wall.

a. Serratus Anterior
b. Trapezius
c. Pectoralis minor
d. Rhomboids
e. Levator Scapulae

Answer 95

d. Rhomboids

Question 96

The most important factor giving rise to a concentrated urine is the presence of

a. Distal Convoluted Tubule
b. Proximal tubule
c. Anti-diuretic hormone
d. Wel develop zonula occludes at the collecting tubule
e. Non-reabsorbable solute in the lumen of the connecting tubule

Answer 96

c. Anti-diuretic hormone

Question 97

Neuromuscular electrical stimulation has been used for the following, EXCEPT:

a. Facilitate motor control
b. Increase strength
c. Temporarily reduce hyperreflexia
d. Improve range of motion
e. Muscle reeducation

Answer 97

b. Increase strength

Question 98

As gliding occurs, the “No” movement takes place on the surface of these joints that are nearly flat and circular.

a. Axial
b. Atlanto-occipital
c. Atlanto-axial
d. axial-occipital
e. occipital

Answer 98

c. Atlanto-axial

Question 99

The most important substance regulating blood pressure that is produced by the kidney is

a. Vasopressin
b. Renin
c. Anti-Diuretic Hormone
d. Prostaglandin
e. Progesterone

Answer 99

c. Anti-Diuretic Hormone

Question 100

The following are true of palmar prehension pattern, EXCEPT:

a. Large objects may be held by widening the grip.
b. This grasp is used to pick up small objects.
c. In a glass jar, the entire palmar surface of the hand grasps around it, and the thumb closes in over the glass.
d. The thumb opposes one or more of the other digits.

Answer 100

c. In a glass jar, the entire palmar surface of the hand grasps around it, and the thumb closes in over the glass.

Question 101

Postoperative rehabilitation of acute-posterolateral instability of the knee consist of the following, EXCEPT:

a. After the cast is removed, a knee-ankle-foot-orthosis with a dial lock is applied
b. Active extension is controlled because the arcuate complex has been advanced
c. Orthosis is worn at all times and the dial lock is adjusted to allow extension of an additional 15 degrees each week
d. The long-leg brace dial lock is adjusted to allow full flexion but to limit extension to about 60 degrees
e. The subject begins partial weight bearing when the lock prevents only the final 15 degrees of extension

Answer 101

d. The long-leg brace dial lock is adjusted to allow full flexion but to limit extension to about 60 degrees

Question 102

In performing this test, the patient with contracture will be unable to keep his leg, spine, and pelvis flat on the table when the opposite hip is flexed.

a. Baker’s test
b. Segal’s Maneuver
c. Patrick test
d. Gallic’s Flexion Test
e. Thomas Test

Answer 102

e. Thomas Test

Question 103

Thin, strong sheet of fibrous tissue that occasionally attaches flattened muscles.

a. Raphe
b. Tendons
c. Aponeurosis
d. Retinaculae

Answer 103

c. Aponeurosis

Question 104

When a muscle contracts to eliminate some undesired movement that would otherwise be produced by the prime mover, it is said to be a/an

a. Primer mover
b. Fixators
c. Antagonist
d. Coordinator
e. Synergist

Answer 104

e. Synergist

Question 105

Following statements are true of lower motor neuron lesions, EXCEPT:

a. Muscle atrophy may begin to show within a few weeks
b. Even with the loss of sensory feedback to the nervous system coordinated movements are still properly accomplished
c. The muscle loses both its voluntary and reflex response
d. Hypotonia is observed as well as absence of muscle stretch reflex

Answer 105

b. Even with the loss of sensory feedback to the nervous system coordinated movements are still properly accomplished

Question 106

Which of the following is NOT true of the Deltoid?

a. The nerve supply is by C5 and C6 via the circumflex nerve
b. It can carry the arm higher than the horizontal position
c. It is a powerful abductor of the humerus but cannot initiate that movement
d. The middle fibers concern themselves with abduction alone

Answer 106

b. It can carry the arm higher than the horizontal position

Question 107

Decrease in resting membrane potential, making it more positive.

Depolarization
Membrane denervation
Hyperpolarization
Action potential degradation
Variable conductance

Answer 107

Depolarization

Question 108

Diffusion occurs faster if

The temperature is lower.
The partition coefficient is higher
The partition coefficient is higher and the molecular size is bigger
The molecular size is bigger
The molecular size is bigger and the temperature is higher

Answer 108

The partition coefficient is higher

Question 109

The following statements are true of straight leg raising test, EXCEPT:

a. The normal angle between the table and the leg measures approximately 80 degrees
b. At the point where the patient experiences pain, lower the leg slightly and then dorsiflex the foot - if the there is no pain, the pain induced is probably due to the sciatic nerve
c. Designed to reproduce back and leg pain
d. If there is a positive reaction to the straight leg raising test and the foot dorsiflexion maneuver, the pain may be either in the lumbar spine or along the course of the sciatic nerve
e. The foot is lifted upward supporting the calcaneus, and with the knee remaining straight, raise the leg to the point of discomfort or pain

Answer 109

b. At the point where the patient experiences pain, lower the leg slightly and then dorsiflex the foot - if the there is no pain, the pain induced is probably due to the sciatic nerve

Question 110

Which crutch-walking technique would you choose for patients with a walking cast, degenerative joint disease or new leg prosthesis; or for a patient who has had leg surgery?

a. Swing-through three-point gait
b. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)
c. Three-point gait (non-weight bearing)
d. Four-point gait
e. Two-point gait

Answer 110

b.Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)

Question 111

Muscles will develop strength very rapidly even if the contractions are performed only a few times each day and if they contract at or near their maximal force of contraction.

a. Both statements are false
b. Both statements are true
c. First statement is false, second statement is true
d. First statement is true, second statement is false

Answer 111

Both statements are true

Question 112

This nerve provides innervations to the superior, inferior and medial rectus, and the inferior oblique muscle of the eye.

a. Trigeminal
b. Oculomotor
c. Optic
d. Abducens
e. Trochlear

Answer 112

Oculomotor

Question 113

The left and right cerebral hemisphere is separated by the

a. Medial longitudinal fissures
b. Anterior median fissures
c. Central sulcus
d. Parieto-occipital fissures
e. Lateral fissure

Answer 113

Medial longitudinal fissures

Question 114

The following statements are true in the technique known as phonophoresis, EXCEPT:

a. Medications commonly used include hydrocortisone, salicylate and lidocaine, and frequently, hydrocortisone is combined with a gel base to formulate a 10% hydrocortisone solution
b. Combined use of a drug-impregnated coupling medium with ultrasound to drive whole molecules of topically applied medication percutaneously into inflamed tissues
c. Often applied via continuous ultrasound with intensity between 1.0 and 2.0 W.cm, at a frequency of 5 MHz, and with treatment duration of 5 minutes.
d. The physical mechanism by which phonophoresis acts is not known
e. Acts is a fast, painless, noninvasive alternative to local injection

Answer 114

a. Medications commonly used include hydrocortisone, salicylate and lidocaine, and frequently, hydrocortisone is combined with a gel base to formulate a 10% hydrocortisone solution

Question 115

In this type of gating, protein channel gates are opened by the binding of another molecule with the protein causing a conformational change in the protein molecule that opens or closes the gate:

a. Ligand gating
c. Voltage gating
b. None of these
d. Both of these

Answer 115

Ligand gating

Question 116

Babinski’s sign is a strong indication of a disorder of:

a. Basal nuclei
b. Reticulospinal tract
c. Corticospinal tract
d. Vestibulospinal tract
e. Tectospinal tract

Answer 116

c. Corticospinal tract

Question 117

This elbow flexor is innervated by the radial nerve and attaches proximally to a ridge on the humerus above the lateral epicondyle:

None of these
Brachioradialis
Biceps
Brachialis

Answer 117

Brachioradialis

Question 118

If your patient can’t support his full weight on his legs but does have reasonably good muscular coordination and arm strength, which crutch walking gait would you choose?

a. Four-point gait
b. Swing-through three-point gait
c. Three-point-and-one gait (partial-weight-bearing)
d. Three-point-gait (non weight bearing)
e. Two-point gait

Answer 118

e. Two-point gait

Question 119

Components of subtalar joint pronation when the foot is bearing weight:

a. Excessive calcaneal eversion, talar abduction and talar dorsiflexion
b. Excessive calcaneal eversion, talar adduction and talar plantar flexion
c. Moderate calcaneal inversion and talar dorsiflexion
d. Excessive calcaneal inversion, talar adduction, and talar plantar flexion
e. Talar adduction and talar dorsiflexion and moderate calcaneal inversion

Answer 119

b. Excessive calcaneal eversion, talar adduction and talar plantar flexion

Question 120

The hormone regulating Ca++ metabolism that is produced by the kidney is

a. Estrogen
b. Thyroid
c. Parathyroid
d. 1-25 OH2 cholecalciferol
e. Calcitonin

Answer 120

e. Calcitonin

Question 121

The following apply to Distraction, EXCEPT:

a. Relieves pain in the cervical spine by decreasing pressure on the joint capsule around
the facet joint
b. May help alleviate muscle spasm by relaxing the contracted muscle
c. The test faithfully reproduce pain referred to the upper extremity from the cervical spine
d. The test demonstrates the effect that neck traction might have in relieving pain
e. Relieves pain due to a narrowing of the neural foramen by widening the foramen

Answer 121

c. The test faithfully reproduce pain referred to the upper extremity from the cervical spine

Question 122

Changes in the capability to produce a given response during practice when augmented feedback about the performance is provided

a. Initiative
b. Response
c. Learning
d. Performance
e. Function

Answer 122

Learning

Question 123

This type of contraction occurs when muscular tension equals the opposing force

a. Relaxed
b. Isometric
c. isotonic
d. concentric
e. eccentric

Answer 123

Isometric

Question 124

The most abundant cation inside the living cell is

a. Na+
b. K+
c. Mg++
d. CI-
e. Ca++

Answer 124

b. K+

Question 125

The gate control theory of Melzack and Wall has been used to explain the effectiveness of conventional sensory level TENS in reducing pain. The following statements discuss the theory, EXCEPT

a. Central transmission of pain impulses via large-diameter, a myelinated fiber is via inhibition of second order neurons located in the dorsal horn.
b. Intramuscular receptors send afferent impulses via group Il and VI fibers and the spinothalamic tract to brain-stem cardiovascular centers.
c. The transmission rate of action potentials from peripheral nociceptors to the central nervous system can be modulated by convergence of other afferent inputs at the level of the spinal cord
d. Some group Il and VI afferent mediate the pressure response to sustained isometric muscle contraction
e. Transcutaneous electrical stimulation of group I and l afferent fibers is thought to modulate central transmission of pain impulses carried by group Il and VI fibers

Answer 125

a. Central transmission of pain impulses via large-diameter, a myelinated fiber is via inhibition of second order neurons located in the dorsal horn.

Question 126

If a 40 kilogram force is applied over an area of four square centimeters, the pressure (in kilograms per square centimeter) is equal to

a. 20
b. 5
c. 10
d. 160
e. 80

Answer 126

10

Question 127

These muscles are said to place the hand in the (metacarpophalangeal joints flexed, interphalangeal joints extended):

a. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
b. Four lumbricals
c. Palmar interossei
d. Dorsal interossei

Answer 127

Four lumbricals

Question 128

Informed consent includes the following, EXCEPT:

a. May be given before, during of after the initial treatment.
b. The client or surrogate may sign a document to document the process indicating authorization to the proposed treatment
c. Known or potential risks associated with the treatment are explained, and the client must be able to ask questions and receive responses about any aspects of treatment
d. Consent from a legally qualified surrogate is necessary if the patient has not reached
the legal age o f consent, or mentally confused.
e. Provide sufficient information about the proposed and alternative treatment/s appropriate to the client’s condition, to allow him to make a knowledgeable decision.

Answer 128

May be given before, during of after the initial treatment.

Question 129

This is formed when synovial fluid extends into the popliteal space and becomes exposed in a membrane.

a. Deep vein thrombosis
b. Lateral meniscitis
c. Baker’s cyst
d. Thrombophlebitis
e. Inflammation of the posterior cruciate ligament

Answer 129

Baker’s cyst

Question 130

To test this muscle, the proximal IP joint of the hand is stabilized

a. Interossei
b. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
c. Lumbricals
d. Flexor Digitorum Profundus
e. Pronator Teres

Answer 130

Flexor Digitorum Profundus

Question 131

The following are actions of the upper fibers of the Trapezius:

a. Shrugs the shoulders, maintain shoulder level but in fatigue allow the shoulders to droop
b. Steady the scapula at the very beginning of the movement of raising the arm above the head
c. Pull the medial end of the scapula downwards
d. Cooperative with the horizontal fibers to rotate the glenoid, cavity upwards
e. Retract the scapula

Answer 131

a. Shrugs the shoulders, maintain shoulder level but in fatigue allow the shoulders to droop

Question 132

Due to their inverted tripod arrangement, they function as a stabilizing mechanism for the pelvis and capable of co-operating with the “splint” mechanism of the iliotibial tract on the lateral side.

a. Sartorius, Gracilis and Semitendinosus
b. Adductor Magnus, Vastus lateralis, and Biceps
c. Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus and gracilis
d. Semitendinosus, Biceps and Gracilis
e. Piriformis, Quadratus Femoris and Obturator Internus

Answer 132

a. Sartorius, Gracilis and Semitendinosus

Question 133

he ability to recognize numbers or letters traced on the body:

a. Sensory extinction
b. Cutaneous tactile localization
c. Stereognosis
d. Graphesthesia
e. Sensory inattention

Answer 133

d. Graphesthesia

Question 134

This nerve supplies the Serratus Anterior Muscle and arises from the C5, C6 and C7 roots of the brachial plexus:

a. Subscapular Nerve
b. Musculocutaneous Nerve
c. Long Thoracic Nerve
d. Lateral Pectoral Nerve

Answer 134

c. Long Thoracic Nerve

Question 135

The nutritional component/s necessary for proper erythrocyte formation and malnutrition is/are:

a. All of these
b. Riboflavin (Vit B2)
c. Iron and folic acid
d. folic acid
e. Iron

Answer 135

c. Iron and folic acid

Question 136

The following statements describe the anterior compartment on the leg’s anterolateral side between the tibia and the fibula, EXCEPT:

a. The tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus and the extensor digitorum longus inserts, into this compartment
b. The anterior fascia, posterior tibia, fibula, and interosseous ligament render it inflexible and unyielding
c. If the structures are tight and intractable, and if the palpation elicits tenderness, there is evidence of an anterior compartment syndrome.
d. Because of its inability to expand, swelling in the anterior compartment can create foot drop or anterior compartment syndrome
e. Necrosis of the muscles, nerves and vessels may result from pathology that may cause swelling within the anterior compartment

Answer 136

a. The tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus and the extensor digitorum longus inserts, into this compartment

Question 137

The Ulnar Nerve innervates the following structures, EXCEPT:

a. All interossei
b. Medial half of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus
c. Adductor Pollicis
d. Palmaris Longus
e. All Hypothenar

Answer 137

Palmaris Longus

Question 138

Suggested dimension (in feet) for an extremity whirlpool in Hydrotherapy area is

a. 8x8
b. 5x7
c. 7×8
d.10x8
e. 8×10

Answer 138

7×8

Question 139

This test helps determine whether the patient is malingering when he states that he cannot raise his leg in that as the patient tries to raise his leg, he puts pressure on the calcaneus of his opposite leg to gain leverage, the patient is not really trying fi he does not bear down as he attempts to raise his leg.

a. Hoover Test
b. Kernig Test
c. Milgram Test
d. Straight Leg Raising Test
e. Valsalva Maneuver

Answer 139

Hoover Test

Question 140

Blood cells which are activated by antigen only when this is associated with another host cell:

a. B-lymphocytes
b. T-lymphocytes
c. Eosinophils
d. Neutrophils
e. Basophils

Answer 140

B-lymphocytes

Question 141

These muscles mainly flex the interphalangeal joint

a. Flexor digitorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus
b. Flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi ulnaris
c. Lumbricals and flexor pollicis longus
d. Lumbricals
e. Flexor digitorum superficialis and lumbricals

Answer 141

a. Flexor digitorum profundus and flexor pollicis longus

Question 142

This type of traction temporarily immobilize an injured area through hands pulling on the injured body part:

a. Manual Traction
b. Reduction Traction
c. Mobilization Traction
d. Skin Traction
e. Skeletal Traction

Answer 142

Manual Traction

Question 143

After successfully passing the Board Examination, the following initials may be added after the name of the successful physical/occupational therapy examinee

a. PTRP/OTRP
b. PTR/OTR
c. PTRP/ORT
d. RPT/ROT
e. RPT/OTRP

Answer 143

PTRP/OTRP

Question 144

In a recent study conducted on phonophoresis, where hydrocortisone was prepared by blending hydrocortisone acetate with Aquasonic gel, which of the following statements is true?

a. 5 minutes of hydrocortisone phonophoresis with 10% hydrocortisone using continuous ultrasound at 1.0 W/cm did not result in an increase in human serum cortisol level.
b. 5 minutes of hydrocortisone phonophoresis with 10% hydrocortisone using continuous ultrasound at 1.0 W/cm resulted an increase in human serum cortisol levels
c. 5 minutes of hydrocortisone phonophoresis with 10% hydrocortisone using continuous ultrasound at 5.0 W/cm did not result in an increase in human serum cortisol levels
d. 10 minutes of hydrocortisone phonophoresis with 20% hydrocortisone using continuous ultrasound at 5.0 W/cm resulted in an increase in human serum cortisol levels
e. 5 minutes of hydrocortisone phonophoresis with 10% hydrocortisone using continuous ultrasound at 5.0 W/cm resulted in an increase in human serum cortisol level.

Answer 144

a. 5 minutes of hydrocortisone phonophoresis with 10% hydrocortisone using continuous ultrasound at 1.0 W/cm did not result in an increase in human serum cortisol level.

Question 145

The powers and duties of the Board of Physical and Occupational Therapy include the following, EXCEPT:

a. To study the conditions affecting physical and occupational therapy education and prepare a written favorable recommendation to authorize schools to offer course in physical or occupational therapy
b. To study, promote and improve the conditions of the practice of physical and occupational therapy
c. To issue, suspend, revoke or re-issue any certificate of registration for the practice of physical and occupational therapy
d. To give examinations to applicants for the practice of physical and occupational therapy in accordance with the provisions of the Philippine Physical and Occupational Therapy Law.
e. To look into the conditions affecting the practice of PT and OT and delegate to accredited professional associations so they may adopt measures of good ethics and high professional standard in the practuce

Answer 145

e. To look into the conditions affecting the practice of PT and OT and delegate to accredited professional associations so they may adopt measures of good ethics and high professional standard in the practuce

Question 146

Incorrect entries in your documentation may be edited by doing the following, EXCEPT:

a. Corrected statement must be entered in the chronologic sequence
b. On the margin, state why the correction was necessary
c. Single line drawn through the inaccurate information, but still making it legible.
d. Correction must be dated and initiated
e. Erase or draw multiple lines on the inaccurate information.

Answer 146

e. Erase or draw multiple lines on the inaccurate information.

Question 147

Inasmuch as the knee extensor mechanism is involved, the following statements apply, ЕХСЕРТ:

a. The exercise is increased according to subject’s tolerance
b. Straight-leg exercises are progressed slowly
c. By the time of discharge (about seven days), the subject should be doing 2-3 sets of 5 leg raises
d. Resistance is seldom added to the exercise
e. Repetitions should be aggressively increased until about 8 sets of 10 sets raises daily are performed over the next three weeks after discharge

Answer 147

d.Resistance is seldom added to the exercise

Question 148

If exercise tightness of the hip ligaments, muscles, or fasciae prevents complete extension of the hip joints, an individual commonly compensates for this limitation by

a. Lengthening the vastus group
b. Accentuating the anterior tilt of the pelvis and lumbar lordosis
c. Increasing the posterior tilt of the pelvis
d. Lumbar kyphosis

Answer 148

b. Accentuating the anterior tilt of the pelvis and lumbar lordosis

Question 149

The following statements apply to Translation, EXCEPT:

a. A process by which a protein molecule is formed while the messenger RNA travels along the ribosomes
b. A codon signals the end of a protein molecule
c. The process is initiated when a molecule of messenger RNA comes in contact with a ribosome
d. The manufacturing plant in which the protein molecules are formed

Answer 149

The manufacturing plant in which the protein molecules are formed

Question 150

Receives the weight of the body when one sits up straight:

Inferior ramus
Ischial tuberosity
Lesser sciatic notch
Spine of ischium

Answer 150

Ischial tuberosity

Question 151

Bound by these tendons, they comprise the anatomical snuff box.

a. Extensor Pollicis Longus, Abductor Pollicis Longus and Extensor Pollicis Brevis
b. Extensor Digitorum Communis, Extensor Indicis Propius and Extensor Carpi Radialis
c. Abductor Pollicis Longus, Abductor Pollicis Brevis and Extensor Indicis Propius
d. Extensor Pollicis Longus, Extensor Indicis Propius and Extensor Pollicis Brevis
e. Extensor Carpi Ulnaris, Extensor Digitorum Communis and Extensor Pollicis Brevis

Answer 151

a.Extensor Pollicis Longus, Abductor Pollicis Longus and Extensor Pollicis Brevis

Question 152

As proposed by Cyriax, the scheme of selective tension testing is a clinical system of diagnosis of painful problems of soft issues and is conducted in the following manner, ЕХСЕРТ:

a. Resisted contractions
b. Palpation
c. Active motion
d. Assisted contractions
e. Passive motion

Answer 152

d. Assisted contractions

Question 153

Immediate postoperative care following cardiac transplantation include the following ЕХСЕРТ:

a. Oral diet is begun as soon as patient can tolerate it
b. Most patients are weaned from mechanical ventilator assistance within 24 to 36 hours
c. Typically, heart rate is maintained at about 80 beats per minute for the first 72 hours and then tapered off
d. First endomyocardial biopsy is performed 7 to 10 days after transplantation
e. Endotracheal and orogastric tubes are removed within 24 to 36 hours

Answer 153

c. Typically, heart rate is maintained at about 80 beats per minute for the first 72 hours and then tapered off

Question 154

This tiny ophthalmic artery which accompanies the optic nerve and the anterior and middle cerebral arteries supply most of the cerebral hemisphere.

a. Occipital Artery
b. External Carotid Artery
c. Internal Carotid Artery
d. Subclavian artery
e. Optic Artery

Answer 154

c. Internal Carotid Artery

Question 155

The somatic sensory examination is the most difficult and least reliable part of the evaluation. The following rules and generalizations will be helpful, EXCEPT:

a. Consistency of findings of several sensory examination gives some assurance of validity
b. Peripheral nerve lesions are often associated with diminished or absent sweating, dry skin, tropic changes in the nails and loss of subcutaneous tissue
c. The test ordinarily used for the sensory examination are rather crude and the findings are imprecise, the more so the less complete the lesion
d. Subjective symptoms of numbness and paresthesia are unfortunately much the same qualitatively whether they result from thalamic, spinal, radicular or peripheral neural deficits
e. Cutaneous sensitivity is greater on the face, hand, forearms genitalia and feet. Avoid testing calloused areas

Answer 155

a. Consistency of findings of several sensory examination gives some assurance of validity

Question 156

The following statements are generally accepted in improving muscle strength and endurance, EXCEPT:

a. Isometric contractions close to maximal forces for long periods of time is necessary to increase muscle endurance
b. Concentric contractions against light loads may increase endurance
c. To improve endurance a muscle must maintain small forces for long periods of time
d. A muscle must generate close to maximal forces for short periods of time to build muscle strength
e. Isometric or even eccentric forceful contractions may be necessary for building strength

Answer 156

a. Isometric contractions close to maximal forces for long periods of time is necessary to increase muscle endurance

Question 157

Of the body water compartment, the largest is occupied by the

a. Transcellular fluid
b. Intracellular fluid
c. Plasma
d. Spinal cord
e. Interstitial fluid

Answer 157

b. Intracellular fluid

Question 158

A patient points to the lateral aspect of the thigh as his source of pain. This may indicate that underlying problem may be due to

a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Trochanteric bursitis
c. Gluteal bursitis
d. sacroiliac stenosis
e. lumbar spinitis

Answer 158

b. Trochanteric bursitis

Question 159

Abdominal muscle exercise during pregnancy and at least 8 weeks post birth should be chosen with care because of the following reasons, EXCEPT:

a. There is a noted increase in rectus abdominis muscle separation width, length, and angles of insertion
b. Decrements in abdominal muscle function can parallel in time the structural adaptations as pregnancy progressed
c. The ability to stabilize the pelvis against resistance can be decreased as pregnancy progresses and remain compromised postbirth
d. No reversal in rectus abdominis muscle separation may be found by 4 weeks postbirth
e. Continued functional deficits may be found in parallel with incomplete resolution of structural adaptations post birth

Answer 159

d. No reversal in rectus abdominis muscle separation may be found by 4 weeks postbirth

Question 160

The following describe the modified Thomas test, EXCEPT:

a. Hip ROM is considered normal if the patient has 80 degrees of knee flexion
b. The pelvis is placed in approximately 10 degrees of posterior tilt by flexion of one hip and knee toward the chest while lying supine
c. Hip ROM is considered normal if the patient has 10 degrees of femoral extension relative to the pelvis
d. The other leg is positioned to extend off the edge of a treatment table far enough to allow the knee to bend freely
e. It only tests the ROM and the length of the one-joint hip flexor muscles.

Answer 160

It only tests the ROM and the length of the one-joint hip flexor muscles.

Question 161

In an open-packed or loose packed position, EXCEPT:

a. The ligamentous and capsular structures are slack
b. Increased joint friction allow spinning and sliding
c. Joint surface may be distracted several millimeters
d. The ovoid joint surfaces are incongruent
e. Allows spinning, rolling, and sliding, thereby decreasing joint friction.

Answer 161

b. Increased joint friction allow spinning and sliding

Question 162

The following statements describe Closed Kinematic Chain, EXCEPT:

a. The distal segment is fixed and proximal parts move
b. The distal segment of the chain moves in space.
c. Stair climbing is an alternation closed-chain motion during the support phase of the extremity
d. Occurs in the upper extremity when performing chip up.
e. All segments are required to move in the movement of one segment

Answer 162

b. The distal segment of the chain moves in space.

Question 163

Refers to the possibility that the conclusions drawn from experimental results may not accurately reflect what has gone on in the experiment itself.

a. Parallel Reliability
b. External Validity
c. Low Reliability
d. Incoherency
e. Internal Validity

Answer 163

e. Internal Validity

Question 164

It is widely believed that these muscles are involved in “tennis elbow”, a condition in which the extensor muscles, strained by an unusual amount of stress, cause pain at the lateral epicondyle of the elbow and along the course of the muscle.

a. Extensor Communis
b. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
c. Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus
d. The mobile wad of three (Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis in particular)

Answer 164

The mobile wad of three (Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis in particular)

Question 165

Junction formed by the terminal branches of the basilar artery and the two internal carotid arteries:

a. Anterior communicating arteries
b. None of these
c. Circle of Willis
d. Posterior communicating arteries

Answer 165

d. Posterior communicating arteries

Question 166

An example of this class of level is at the atlanto-occipital joint, where the head is balanced by the peel of neck extensor muscles

a. Second
b. Fourth
c. Fifth
d. First
e. Third

Answer 166

d. First

Question 167

In polyneuropathy, lesions often occur bilaterally, the effects are usually more prominent in the proximal than in distal parts of the extremities.

a. The first statement is false, the second statement si true
b. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false

Answer 167

b. The first statement is true, the second statement is false

Question 168

A form of Validity that concerns the extent to which atest of measure appears to measure what it suppose to measure, and actually based on the personal opinion of those either taking or giving a test.

a. Content Validity
b. Face Validity
c. Direct Validity
d. Criterion-Related Validity
e. Construct Validity

Answer 168

b. Face Validity

Question 169

If there is a compression of the subclavian artery, one feels a marked diminution or absence of the radial pulse. This test is called

a. Swallowing Test
b. Adson Test
c. Valsalva Test
d. Compression Test
e. Distraction test

Answer 169

b. Adson Test

Question 170

After internal fixation of the hip, the physical therapist must pay special attention to:

a. Use of a trochanter roll or properly placed sandbags beside the thigh to avoid extreme external rotation
b. All of these
c. Patient may not lean forward further than 30 to 40 which would increase hip flexion
d. To prevent increased pain and undue strain on the fracture site, adduction, external rotation or acute flexion of the patient’s hip must not be allowed
e. Use of pillow or abductor triangle to maintain abduction and keep the affected leg to one side of his midline

Answer 170

b. All of these

Question 171

The following characterizes the patella, EXCEPT:

a. Lateral dislocation is resisted by the lateral lip of the trough being projected forwards
b. It maintains a constant relationship with the fibular as the knee is flexed
c. Its posterior surface is articular since it lies in front of the expanded lower end of the femur.
d. It is easily dislocated medially due to the powerful extensors of the knee that pull obliquely and chiefly from the lateral side of the thigh
e. Enhances the power of knee extensors by increasing the leverage of that muscle.

Answer 171

d. It is easily dislocated medially due to the powerful extensors of the knee that pull obliquely and chiefly from the lateral side of the thigh

Question 172

The following statements apply to myocardial ischemia and infarction, EXCEPT:

a. Characteristic symptoms of pain associated with angina pectoris is caused by an imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply and demand
b. Resolving thrombus formation in the coronary arteries cannot control factors leading to coronary occlusion
c. Caused primarily by coronary artery atherosclerosis that decreases the ability of the coronary arteries to supply adequate oxygen to meet the demands of the myocardium
d. Progressive atherosclerosis also leads to the development of coronary artery thrombosis resulting in vessel before occlusion and MI
e. Drugs are often used to treat the symptoms of ischemic heart disease and restore myocardial oxygen balance before additional damage occurs to the heart

Answer 172

b. Resolving thrombus formation in the coronary arteries cannot control factors leading to coronary occlusion

Question 173

The digestion of food involves the process of

a. Hydrolysis
b. Conjugation
c. Condensation
d. Mastication
e. Decarboxylation

Answer 173

a. Hydrolysis

Question 174

Foot dorsiflexor are composed of:

a. None of these
b. Tibialis Anterior, Extensor Digitorum Brevis and Extensor Hallucis Brevis
c. Tibialis Anterior, Extensor Digitorum Longus and Extensor Hallucis Longus
d. Peroneous Tertius, Peroneus Brevis and Extensor Digitorum Brevis

Answer 174

c. Tibialis Anterior, Extensor Digitorum Longus and Extensor Hallucis Longus

Question 175

This characterizes diabetes mellitus.

a. Decreased blood sugar
b. Increase lipogenesis
c. Androgen binding protein
d. Enhanced protein synthesis
e. Insulin deficiency

Answer 175

e. Insulin deficiency

Question 176

The product of breathing frequency and tidal volume (Vt):

a. Ventilation (in liters per minute)
b. Stroke volume
c. Metabolic rate
d. Heart rate
e. Cardiac output

Answer 176

Ventilation (in liters per minute)

Question 177

Which of the following examples therapeutically increase the pressure on a given area?

a. Use of closed-cell foam shoe inserts for walking
b. Prescribing a wearing schedule for a prosthesis
c. Use of orthotics to increase the force arm length
d. Frequent body weight shifts
e. Decreasing the force arm length in orthotics

Answer 177

e. Decreasing the force arm length in orthotics

Question 178

Following statements are true of the corticospinal or pyramidal tract, EXCEPT:

a. About 1/3 of the axons in the pyramidal tract arise from the primary motor cortex in areas 4 to 6.
b. About 90 percent of the tracts decussate to the opposite side at the lower levels of the medulla.
c. The fibers arise from the neurons in the ventral part of area 4 on the lateral surface of the hemisphere and from area 8.
d. Concerned with skilled movements of the distal muscles of the limb

Answer 178

c. The fibers arise from the neurons in the ventral part of area 4 on the lateral surface of the hemisphere and from area 8.

Question 179

The following statements describe the Triceps Brachii, EXCEPT:

a. The long head may help also in extending the shoulder joint.
b. The long and lateral heads lie side by side and together are comparable to the Biceps.
c. Of the three heads, only the long head arises from the scapula.
d. It acts in a lever system of the Second Class but its lever arm is extremely short.
e. The medial head has fleshy origin from the back of the shaft similar to the Brachialis

Answer 179

d. It acts in a lever system of the Second Class but its lever arm is extremely short.

Question 180

Histologically, warm receptors in the skin are called

a. Naked nerve endings
b. Flower spray endings
c. None of these
d. Krause’s end bulbs
e. End organs of Ruffini

Answer 180

e. End organs of Ruffini

Question 181

Fast twitch fibers differ from slow twitch fibers, EXCEPT:

a. Number of capillaries per mass of fibers in greater in slow twitch fibers
b. Fast twitch fibers are organized for endurance
c. Fast twitch fibers can achieve double the maximal power
d. Fast twitch fibers are twice in diameter

Answer 181

b. Fast twitch fibers are organized for endurance

Question 182

A functional map of the motor cortex resembling an image of the body turned upside down and reversed left to right.

a. Brodmann’s area
b. Hemisphere
c. Parietal Lobe
d. Homunculus
e. Premotor cortex

Answer 182

d. Homunculus

Question 183

The following statements are true of the Tibialis Posterior, EXCEPT:

a. Innervated by the tibial nerve
b. The most deeply situated muscle of the calf
c. Inverts and supinate of the subtalar joint only in dorsiflexion
d. Inverts and assists in ankle plantar flexion

Answer 183

c. Inverts and supinate of the subtalar joint only in dorsiflexion

Question 184

The following statements describe ataxia, EXCEPT:

a. Can result from damage to the dorsal and ventricular spinocerebellar pathways and pontine nuclei
b. Can result from damage to the afferent portions of peripheral nerves and the dorsal column of the spinal cord.
c. Can result from damage to several different motor or sensory regions of the central nervous system.
d. Can result in high amplitude tremor that accompanies movement
e. Damage in one cerebellar hemisphere is manifested contralateral to the lesion

Answer 184

e. Damage in one cerebellar hemisphere is manifested contralateral to the lesion

Question 185

The gateway to pain in opened by

a. Intense stimulation of large diameter fibers
b. None of these
c. Mild stimulation of small diameter fibers
d. Mild stimulation of large diameter fibers
e. Intense stimulation of small diameter fibers

Answer 185

e. Intense stimulation of small diameter fibers

Question 186

The combined action of these muscles is vertebral extension, are continuous from the sacrum to the occiput:

a. None of these
b. Erector Spinae or Sacrospinalis
c. Transversopinal
d. Quadratus Lumborum

Answer 186

b. Erector Spinae or Sacrospinalis

Question 187

Increase in resting membrane potential, making it move negative.

a. Depolarization
b. Velocity excitation
c. Hyperpolarization
d. Action potential propagation
e. Variable conductance

Answer 187

c. Hyperpolarization

Question 188

In one leg standing, the gluteus medius of the supporting leg is performing:

a. Isometric contraction
b. Positive work
c. Eccentric contraction
d. No work

Answer 188

a. Isometric contraction

Question 189

Ergonomic design in office settings has become increasingly important, particularly because of the increased use of computers. The following are acceptable recommendations, EXCEPT:

a. Feet flat on the floor or footrest to provide stability
b. Top of monitor placed at eye level to allow proper head and neck position
c. Padded wrist rest to reduce arm and shoulder discomfort
d. Keyboard placed at 15 degree from elbow height with a slight incline
e. Hard copy holder close to monitor to reduce eye motions and discomfort and allow proper neck posture

Answer 189

d. Keyboard placed at 15 degree from elbow height with a slight incline

Question 190

The following characteristics describe Type I muscle fibers, EXCEPT:

a. Higher myosin ATPase activity than the other fiber type.
b. Resistant to fatigue, with high levels of oxidative enzyme activity and low levels of glycolytic enzyme activity
c. Contained in motor units characterized by a low firing frequency or discharge rate
d. Associated with extensive capillary density and a high concentration of myoglobin
e. Low threshold for activation and slow twitch contraction

Answer 190

a. Higher myosin ATPase activity than the other fiber type.

Question 191

Vacuum-compression therapy may be applied following whirlpool cleansing of the wound at this manufacturer prescribed settings to emphasize the vacuum phase of the cycle in an attempt to increase capillary filling.

a. -0.10 bar (-75 mm Hg) of negative pressure for 90 seconds followed by 0.05 bar (38.5 mm Hg) of positive pressure for 30 seconds
b. -0.10 bar (-75 mm Hg) of negative pressure for 60 seconds followed by 0.05 bar (38.5 mm Hg) of positive pressure for 90 seconds
c. -0.10 bar (-75 mm Hg) of negative pressure for 90 seconds followed by -0.05 bar (-38.5 mm Hg) of negative pressure for 30 seconds
d. -0.10 bar (-75 mm Hg) of negative pressure for 90 seconds followed by 0.05 bar (38.5 mm Hg) of positive pressure for 30 seconds
e. -0.10 bar (-75 mm Hg) of positive pressure for 90 seconds followed by -0.05 bar (-38.5 mm Hg) of negative pressure for 30 seconds.

Answer 191

a. -0.10 bar (-75 mm Hg) of negative pressure for 90 seconds followed by 0.05 bar (38.5 mm Hg) of positive pressure for 30 seconds

Question 192

Constricts the pupil and is involved in light and accommodation reflexes due to their connections with postganglionic neurons.

a. Facial Nerve
b. Trigeminal Nerve
c. Optic Nerve
d. Trochlear nerve
e. Oculomotor nerve

Answer 192

e. Oculomotor nerve

Question 193

Unusually violent and flinging motions of the limbs:

a. Chorea
b. Dystonia
c. ballisimus
d. spasticity
e. athetosis

Answer 193

c. ballisimus

Question 194

This ligament, in accompany with the Supraspinatus muscle, prevents the downward dislocation of the humeral head:

a. Glenohumeral
b. Coracoacromial
c. Coracoclavicular
d. Biceps
e. Coracohumeral

Answer 194

e. Coracohumeral

Question 195

When developing a treatment program, the caregiver

a. Base the treatment goals on the outcome and function.
b. Establishes the functional diagnosis and outcome goals
c. Prepares a written home program for the client and family member
d. Evaluates the patient’s response to treatment determines progress towards functional
outcomes.
e. Gathers data and information for documentation

Answer 195

a. Base the treatment goals on the outcome and function.

Question 196

The kinetic variable that reflects the rate of work performed at a given point.

a. Torque
b. Velocity
c. Strength
d. Energy
e. Power

Answer 196

e. Power

Question 197

Dividing the body into right and left, flexion and extension occurs ni this plane.

a. Transagittal
b. Horizontal
c.. Sagittal
d. Transverse
e. Frontal

Answer 197

c.. Sagittal

Question 198

The following are determinants of gait, EXCEPT:

a. Knee flexion in stance
b. Trendelenburg
c. Medial displacement of the pelvis
d. Pelvic rotation
e. Knee, ankle and foot rotation

Answer 198

c. Medial displacement of the pelvis

Question 199

After transverse rectus abdominals myocutaneous flap procedure, the following techniques may be used to reduce stress on the sutures of the abdominal wound closure ЕХСЕРТ:

a. Teach log-rolling techniques for moving safely in bed without disrupting the sutures
b. Positioning the bed at a 90-degree angle, patient lying on the uninvolved side in a fetal position.
c. Lifting and sit-ups are not permitted until a 6 weeks after surgery
d. Exercises designed for co-contraction of the oblique, transversus abdominis and multifidus muscles for optimal trunk strengthening
e. Avoid Valsalva maneuver by exhaling during physical exertion

Answer 199

b. Positioning the bed at a 90-degree angle, patient lying on the uninvolved side in a fetal position.

Question 200

Occupies an extensive area n the medial aspect of the hemisphere, this lobe of the lateral surface of the hemisphere is caudal to an arbitrary line drawn from the parieto- occipital fissures to the pre-occipital notch and

a. Temporal
b. Frontal lobe
c. Insular lobe
d. Parietal lobe
e. Occipital lobe

Answer 200

e. Occipital lobe