APK - February 1999

Question 1

Development of the vertebrae nervous system involves progressive neural events which can include the following except

Retraction of neural projections
Formation of complex neural pathways
Synaptogenesis
Myelinization
Axonal growth

Answer 1

Retraction of neural projections

Question 2

The following statements apply in combined posterolateral and anteromedial rotatory instability, EXCEPT:

a. Adduction and abduction stress test results are positive at 30 degrees of flexion
b. Results of the anterior drawer test is positive with the tibia in neutral position
c. Anterior drawer test causes the tibia to rotate externally and back
d. Occurs with tear of the medial and lateral compartment ligaments
e. Results of the anterior drawer test is negative with tibia in internal rotation

Answer 2

c. Anterior drawer test causes the tibia to rotate externally and back

Question 3

Digestion of lactose results in:

2 molecules of fructose
1 molecule glucose + 1 molecule galactose
1 molecule of glucose + 1 molecule fructose
2 molecules of glucose
1 molecule galactose + 1 molecule fructose

Answer 3

1 molecule glucose + 1 molecule galactose

Question 3

Craniosacral therapist assess these aspects of craniosacral motion, EXCEPT:

a. Symmetry, whether both sides of the skull demonstrate equal amplitude and rate
b. Rate, the number of cycles of flexion per minute
c. Quantity, whether the rate and corresponding amplitude is of a reasonable number
d. Quality, whether the motion is smooth or uneven
e. Amplitude, the magnitude of excursion of flexion and extension

Answer 3

c. Quantity, whether the rate and corresponding amplitude is of a reasonable number

Question 4

A deep sulcus that outlines and sweeps backward above the temporal pole, and then continues, on the superolateral surface, almost horizontally backwards, marking the line along which the hemisphere became folded. The speech and hearing are both closely associated with it

Collateral Sulcus
Central Sulcus
Calcarine Sulcus
Lateral Sulcus

Answer 4

Lateral Sulcus

Question 5

This gait determinant reduces the vertical rise of the center of gravity as it passes over the same leg and compensated for by increased knee and ankle flexion so the swinging leg can pass under the lowered hemipelvis:

Pelvic list
Lateral displacement of the pelvis
Knee, ankle and foot rotation
Pelvic rotation
Knee flexion in stance

Answer 5

Pelvic list

Question 6

This vitamin is best absorbed in the ileum:

E
K
B12
C
A

Answer 6

B12

Question 6

The following statements are true of the plantarflexors of the foot, EXCEPT:

a. The tibialis posterior lies just posterior to the medial malleolus and is palpable as it comes around the medial malleolus and inserts into the navicular tubercle
b. The flexor digitorum longus tendon lies immediately medial to the flexor hallucis longus tendon and is tested manually by stabilizing the calcaneus and asking the subject to bend or curl his toes
c. The peroneus longus and brevis are the first two tendons posterior to the lateral malleolus
d. To detect existing weakness of the gastrocnemius and soleus by muscle testing, the patient is asked to walk on his toes. If he is unable to perform the task, there is probably at least a minimal weakness in the calf muscle
e. The flexor hallucis longus lies medial to Achilles tendon and to evaluate its function, simply observe the patient’s gait

Answer 6

d. To detect existing weakness of the gastrocnemius and soleus by muscle testing, the patient is asked to walk on his toes. If he is unable to perform the task, there is probably at least a minimal weakness in the calf muscle

Question 7

The largest bone in the proximal carpal row which represents the floor of the anatomic snuffbox:

Navicular
Lunate
Trapezium
Triquetrum
Capitate

Answer 7

Navicular

Question 8

This/These statement/s describes the excitability properly of the neuron:

a. It is most excitable when the membrane potential is reduced to its firing level
b. It is excitable at all times
c. It can be stimulated again at the spike of the action potential
d. None of these
e. All

Answer 8

a. It is most excitable when the membrane potential is reduced to its firing level

Question 8

The ligament/s which limit hip extension is/are:

None of these
Pubofemoral ligament
Ischiofemoral ligament
All of these
Iliofemoral ligament

Answer 8

All of these

Question 9

Injury to the right superior gluteal nerve will result in this gait deviation:

a. Increased pressure in heel strike
b. Decreased stride width
c. Lateral flexion of the trunk to the contralateral side
d. Increased swing phase of reference leg
e. Increased duration of weight bearing as the reference extremity

Answer 9

b. Decreased stride width

Question 9

Children with spastic cerebral palsy demonstrate pathological gait patterns as in the following, EXCEPT:

a. Fixed contracture of the triceps surae muscle group is evident
b. May be accompanied by anterior pelvic tilt during the stance phase
c. Often accompanied by excessive knee flexion or hyperextension
d. Decreased walking speed and stride length
e. Abnormal joint motions including dynamic equinus or excessive ankle plantar flexion during the stance phase of gait

Answer 9

a. Fixed contracture of the triceps surae muscle group is evident

Question 10

According to the original Borg scale for rating of Perceived on a rating of 15 is described as:

Hard
Very, Very hard
Very, very light
Fairly light
Light

Answer 10

Hard

Question 11

Stabilize joints and produces force with no gross change in the joint angle:

Concentric
Isometric
Isotonic
Isokinetic
Eccentric

Answer 11

Isometric

Question 12

When an injured site is immobilized in a cast, the following statements are true in the care of a casted lower extremity, EXCEPT:

a. Flexing and extending the toes is an exercise to test nerve function
b. To check for circulation, briefly press on the large toenail until it turns white. Let go, and observe if the normal pink color returns quickly
c. Excess swelling may be prevented by keeping the casted leg elevated on pillows, above chest level
d. Occasionally, when the skin under the cast feels itchy, an object may be inserted to try to relieve the itching
e. If the toes are cold, cover them. Notify the doctor if that doesn’t warm them

Answer 12

d. Occasionally, when the skin under the cast feels itchy, an object may be inserted to try to relieve the itching

Question 13

The following example illustrates a positive feedback mechanism:

a. A decrease in blood sugar levels activates receptors that bring blood pressure below normal
b. An increase in systemic blood pressure activates receptors in the carotid sinus which send signals to the brain, the final response being to bring blood pressures back to normal
c. An increase in blood sugar levels trigger the release of insulin which in turn acts to bring sugar levels down to normal
d. Platelets activated at the site of vascular injury release chemical messenger which attract more platelets to the same area
e. Stretching the muscle spindle results in signals to the motor neuron such that all muscles of origin contract

Answer 13

d. Platelets activated at the site of vascular injury release chemical messenger which attract more platelets to the same area

Question 14

The following statements characterize the Atlanto-Axial joints, EXCEPT:

a. A pair of alar ligaments serves to limit the rotation of the head
b. The atlas and axis are united by three joints, two paired and one medially placed
c. The gliding movement occurs on the axis
d. The paired lateral atlanto-axial joints are plane joints and lie directly below the paired atlanto-occipital joints
e. When the “no” movement occurs, the atlas and axis move on the skull as a unit and the median atlanto-axial joint rotates in a collar formed by the anterior arch of the atlas and the transverse ligament

Answer 14

e. When the “no” movement occurs, the atlas and axis move on the skull as a unit and the median atlanto-axial joint rotates in a collar formed by the anterior arch of the atlas and the transverse ligament

Question 15

The following arteries contribute to a rich anastomosis at the base of the brain known as the Circle of Willis:

The two vertebral arteries
All of these
The two internal Carotid arteries
None of these

Answer 15

All of these

Question 16

Decrease catecholamine stimulation of the heart, may also cause a general decrease in systemic sympathetic activity:

Calcium channel blockers
Diuretics
Beta-adrenergic blockers
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Alpha-adrenergic blockers

Answer 16

Beta-adrenergic blockers

Question 17

An upper limb tension test is considered positive if the following are present, EXCEPT:

a. The patient’s responses are different from what is expected for asymptomatic subjects
b. It reproduces the patient’s symptoms
c. There is tissue resistance or a decrease in the ROM on one side of the body as compared with the other
d. The test responses can be altered by a sensitizing maneuver that provokes an increase in symptoms
e. The symptoms are aggravated by movements that are generally towards from the site of restriction or symptoms

Answer 17

e. The symptoms are aggravated by movements that are generally towards from the site of restriction or symptoms

Question 18

Motor innervations mainly responsible for phonation:

Hypoglossal
Vagus
Phrenic
Trigeminal
Accessory

Answer 18

Vagus

Question 19

These muscles extend the arm and are the chief lateral rotators.

Supraspinatus and Subscapularis
Infraspinatus and Teres major
Subscapularis and Pectoralis Major
Infraspinatus and Teres Minor
Teres Major and Latissimus Dorsi

Answer 19

Infraspinatus and Teres Minor

Question 20

In closed-pack position:

a. Ligament attachments are farthest apart and under tension
b. All of these
c. The joint difficult to distract and mechanically compressed
d. Maximum surface contact occurs

Answer 20

b. All of these

Question 21

Motions in the foot take place on certain joints. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Forefoot abduction and adduction take place primarily at the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints
b. Forefoot abduction and adduction take place primarily at the midtarsal joint
c. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion take place between the talus and the tibia within the ankle mortise
d. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion take place between the talus and the tibia and fibula within the ankle mortise
e. Subtalar inversion and eversion take place primarily at the talocalcaneal, talonavicular, and calcaneocuboid joints

Answer 21

c. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion take place between the talus and the tibia within the ankle mortise

Question 22

The following characteristics describe Type IIB muscle fibers, EXCEPT:

a. Associated with mitochondria, myoglobin and sparse capillary density
b. Fatigue rapidly
c. High levels of glycolytic enzyme activity
d. Resistant to fatigue
e. Fast contraction times

Answer 22

d. Resistant to fatigue

Question 23

The following may cause biomechanical or physiological predisposition to microtrauma, EXCEPT:

a. Foot malalignment that places abnormal stresses on particular tissues
b. Insufficient flexibility
c. Improper technique
d. Proportional relationship between maximum output capacity and rapid expulsion of force
e. Limb length discrepancies

Answer 23

d. Proportional relationship between maximum output capacity and rapid expulsion of force

Question 24

Using proper body mechanics, which of the following statements is incorrect when moving an object?

a. Keeping upper body straight, use the leg and hip muscles to stand upright, holding the object close to the body
b. To move an object front able to floor, keep back straight, flex hips and knees and slowly lower the object to the floor
c. If the object is too heavy. Ask a coworker for help
d. For an object placed on a high shelf, slide the object off the shelf and using smooth coordinated movement, lower the object to a waist-level table
e. When lifting the box at waist level, to change direction to the left, move your left foot so the toes are pointing left

Answer 24

d. For an object placed on a high shelf, slide the object off the shelf and using smooth coordinated movement, lower the object to a waist-level table

Question 25

The radial nerve dominant test is designed to place tensile stress on neural tissues of the upper limb along the course of the radial nerve. The following motions are applied to the upper limb with the patient in supine, EXCEPT:

a. Medial rotation of the shoulder
b. Shoulder girdle depression with approximately 10 degrees of shoulder abduction
c. Elbow extension
d. Ulnar deviation
e. Supination of the forearm

Answer 25

e. Supination of the forearm

Question 26

The following describe clotting abnormalities, EXCEPT:

a. Presence of clots usually rules out movement in the affected limb
b. Arterial occlusion and thromboemboli can become lodged in arteries supplying vital organs
c. Can be caused by mobility and an increase in blood cells
d. Patients are prone to emboli and bleeding
e. Can originated in the deep veins of the legs

Answer 26

c. Can be caused by mobility and an increase in blood cells

Question 27

Which of the following is true of the coracoclavicular ligament?

a. The coracoclavicular ligament travel altogether in all of coracoclavicular joint movements of any considerable extent
b. Due to the fibers oblique direction, the ligament transmits forces applied to the scapula at the shoulder region, to the medial 2/43 of the clavicle
c. All of these
d. A fibrous joint that allows some independent movement between the clavicle and coracoids process

Answer 27

c. All of these

Question 28

The following are characteristics of below-knee amputees, EXCEPT:

a. Positioning the body weight more posterior with respect to the knee would increase the external knee flexion moment, thus placing a higher demand on the quadriceps femoris musculature
b. To compensate for decreased tibial mobility, progression is augmented through a backward trunk lean
c. There may be decreased tibial speed, which may be attributed to the lack of normal ankle mechanics because of the cushioned heel keeps body weight on the heel
d. Increasing stride length during fast walking is more dependent on torque of the amputated limb knee extensors
e. There is prolonged hip extensor activity, more than twice the duration and intensity of normal

Answer 28

b. To compensate for decreased tibial mobility, progression is augmented through a backward trunk lean

Question 29

Following statements describe fibromyalgia, EXCEPT:

a. A non-articular rheumatic disease of unknown origin characterized by tenderness at 11 or more of the 18 tender points sites
b. Cardiovascular training offers no benefit in reducing the symptoms
c. There may be patient-reported joint swelling without objective findings of swelling
d. The tender points are primarily localized to the musculotendinous junctions
e. Generalized fatigue, chronic headache and sleep disturbance may be present

Answer 29

b. Cardiovascular training offers no benefit in reducing the symptoms

Question 29

The normal neck shaft angle is:

115
130
125
120
110

Answer 29

125

Question 29

The following statements characterize the fibula, EXCEPT:

a. The upright triangle at the lower end of its medial aspect
b. Act as a lateral “splint” for the ankle joint
c. Has three joints with the tibia and one with the talus
d. The fibula is the whole security of the ankle joint
e. Act as pulley for tendons passing behind it at the ankle

Answer 29

a. The upright triangle at the lower end of its medial aspect

Question 30

The following statements describe lesions in lumbosacral levels, EXCEPT:

a. The spinal cord ends at the L-1 to L-2 vertebral level in adult
b. Lesions above the L-1 vertebral level which interrupt the descending spinal cord pathways yet spare the sacral components
c. The sacral components are not spared in lesions above the L-1 vertebral level
d. The vertebral level of injury does not always correlate with the spinal segment level of injury
e. In adults, injuries at or below the L-1 vertebral level that damage the S2 to parenchyma will damage the lower motor neurons and parasympathetic center located in the S-2 to S-4 spinal cord segments

Answer 30

c. The sacral components are not spared in lesions above the L-1 vertebral level

Question 31

In this test, the patient is asked to place the thumb inside his closed fist. If passive or active ulnar deviation of the wrist produces pain over the styloid process of the radius, this indicates a:

Peripheral neuropathy
Positive Finkelstein’s test
Positive Hoffman sign
Negative dysdiadochokinesia
Negative Finkelstein’s test

Answer 31

Positive Finkelstein’s test

Question 32

The ability to move within a given posture without loss of balance:

Harmony
Steadiness
Dynamic stability
Symmetry
Order

Answer 32

Dynamic stability

Question 33

Functionally, anatomic actions determine muscle participation in postures and movements, additionally, muscles also participate in posture and movements according to limb and body position in relation to gravity, applied resistance, and velocity in motion:

Both statements are true
First statement is true, second statement is false
Both statements are false
First statement is false, second statement is true

Answer 33

First statement is false, second statement is true

Question 34

PTRP ka na this JUNE, 2024! 🫶🏽

Question 35

Following are example of anatomic pulleys, EXCEPT:

a. In the leg, where tendons of the peroneal and long toe flexor descend distally on the posterior aspect of the legs and go behind and around the malleoli to form attachments in the foot and toes
b. In the quadriceps and patellar tendons, where the direction of pull is changed as the knee flexed, and improves the force arm distance due to the interposed patella
c. When the flexor digitorum superficialis contract, their tendons rise from the joint axes, and held down by loops that deflect the tendon with movement
d. The patella raising the line of pull of the quadriceps muscle from the knee joint axis
e. In the palmar side of the phalanges, when the flexor digitorum profundus contract their tendons rise from the joint axes, and held down by seven loops that deflect the tendon with movement

Answer 35

d. The patella raising the line of pull of the quadriceps muscle from the knee joint axis

Question 36

The anterior ⅓ is rostral to the central sulcus and above the lateral fissure on the lateral surface of the hemisphere:

Occipital lobe
Insular lobe
Parietal lobe
Frontal lobe
Temporal lobe

Answer 36

Frontal lobe

Question 37

Optic radiation lesions could result in the following visual field defects, EXCEPT:

a. The more posterior the lesion, the more nearly do the visual field defects in the two eyes resemble each other
b. Temporal lobe lesions result in an ipsilateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia
c. Parietal lobe lesions is a contralateral homonymous, inferior quadrantanopia
d. Interruption of the entire radiation gives complete loss of vision to the opposite side, homonymous hemianopsia

Answer 37

c. Parietal lobe lesions is a contralateral homonymous, inferior quadrantanopia

Question 38

The center of gravity at its lowest point is raised by:

Knee motion during stance
Adduction of femur
Femoral abduction
Pelvic tilt
Pelvic rotation

Answer 38

Pelvic rotation

Question 38

Carpal tunnel syndrome can result in the following, EXCEPT:

a. Compression can stem from anterior dislocation of the lunate bone or swelling secondary to Colles
b. Constriction of the tunnel traps the tendons running through it, and restricts, and may even prevent flexion of the fingers
c. Flexing the subject’s wrist to its maximum degree and holding it in that position for at least a minute may reproduce tingling of the fingers (Phalen’s Test)
d. Pain is elicited or reproduced by tapping over the volar carpal ligament
e. Compression of the median nerve can restrict motor function and sensation along its distribution in the lower arm

Answer 38

e. Compression of the median nerve can restrict motor function and sensation along its distribution in the lower arm

Question 39

The following interactions are true, EXCEPT:

a. The muscles are only able to maintain weight and force if they are passively stretched by changing joint angle
b. Physiological extensors that maintain body posture against gravity are activated more frequently than flexors
c. Unloaded muscles lose weight and are less forceful even if they are exercised or stimulated for 20 minutes per day
d. A muscle contracting at a long length would produce a greater load because of the passive length-tension properties of the muscle
e. Shortening contractions in unloaded muscles will indulge fatigue more rapidly than isotonic contractions because more oxygen is consumed

Answer 39

e. Shortening contractions in unloaded muscles will indulge fatigue more rapidly than isotonic contractions because more oxygen is consumed

Question 40

The state when the sum of forces acting on the body is balanced

Terminal velocity
Inertia
Force Vector
Gravity minimized
Equilibrium

Answer 40

Equilibrium

Question 41

Fractures, though not usually life threatening, may be caused by:

Pathologic muscle contractions and pathologic decay
All of these
Fatigue or stress
Direct force
Torsion force

Answer 41

All of these

Question 42

The following statements describe power, EXCEPT:

a. Power will be positive when the moment and angular velocity are in the opposite direction
b. A positive power usually indicates that the muscle is generating mechanical energy (concentric contraction)
c. Reflects rate of work performed at a given joint
d. A negative power usually indicates that the muscle is absorbing mechanical energy (eccentric contraction)
e. Calculated by taking the product of the moment and the joint angular velocity

Answer 42

a. Power will be positive when the moment and angular velocity are in the opposite direction

Question 42

The following are true of the spinal (or dorsal root) ganglia, EXCEPT:

a. Each spinal nerve possesses one, and the ganglia are found each in intervertebral foramen resting on a pedicle
b. A collection of cell bodies whose axons are in the anterior horn of the gray matter of the cord
c. Each spinal ganglion’s cell body is part of a unipolar’ afferent neuron having a T-shaped axon
d. All of these

Answer 42

b. A collection of cell bodies whose axons are in the anterior horn of the gray matter of the cord

Question 43

This stretching technique uses bouncing or quick, jerking movements imposed on the muscles to be stretched and can theoretically exceed the extensibility limits of the muscle in an uncontrolled manner and cause injury:

Compound stretch
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
Sustained stretch
Ballistic stretch
Static stretch

Answer 43

Ballistic stretch

Question 44

The following are examples of deep somatic sensation, EXCEPT:

Deep pain
Strong smell
Proprioception
Vibration sense
Deep pressure

Answer 44

Strong smell

Question 45

The perpendicular distance from the pivot joint to the line of action of the weight is the:

Mechanical advantage
Force arm
Lever arm
Mechanical disadvantage
Weight arm

Answer 45

Weight arm

Question 46

Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy presents the following clinical picture, EXCEPT:

a. Degree involvement ranges from facial weakness to severe generalized weakness
b. Initially affects facial, scapular, upper arm, and abdominal and foot dorsiflexor muscles
c. Disease may progress to the proximal hip and distal arm and hand musculature
d. Mode of inheritance is autosomal dominant
e. Course is usually progressive but does not progress to wheelchair dependence

Answer 46

e. Course is usually progressive but does not progress to wheelchair dependence

Question 47

With respect to tying a traction knot, the following statements are true, EXCEPT:

a. To prevent fraying, tape the cord around the area you’ll be cutting
b. For safety, all traction knots are checked every eight hours
c. The most commonly used traction knot is the slipknot
d. The free end cord above the knot is secured by wrapping it with adhesive tape
e. The knot must also be wrapped and covered with adhesive tape

Answer 47

e. The knot must also be wrapped and covered with adhesive tape

Question 48

Cervical root compression syndromes are illustrated by the following, EXCEPT:

a. There is localized paraspinal pain and tenderness which may precede extreme pain and which indicates a focus of disease proximal to the shoulder joint
b. Usually involves one of the three lower cervical roots, C6, C7, or C8
c. Gentle manipulation of the neck reproduces pain felt below the elbow, and duplicates paresthesia in the hand
d. If moderate pressure over the spine enhances pain felt the extremity impingement may be from other source
e. Often, neck movements are restricted

Answer 48

c. Gentle manipulation of the neck reproduces pain felt below the elbow, and duplicates paresthesia in the hand

Question 49

This muscle contracts maximally when flexing the hip beyond 90 degrees:

Pectineus
Rectus Femoris
Iliopsoas
Sartorius

Answer 49

Iliopsoas

Question 50

Compression-side fractures of the inferior side of the femoral neck are characterized by the following statements, EXCEPT:

a. With an overt fracture line, bed rest is indicated
b. Usually negative radiograph and positive bone scintigraphy initially
c. If sclerosis is present without an overt fracture, bed rest is indicated
d. Any widening of the fracture line would require stabilization with multiple Kowles pins
e. When hip pain is absent at rest, radial progressive weight bearing and increased activity are begun

Answer 50

d. Any widening of the fracture line would require stabilization with multiple Kowles pins

Question 51

Stimulation of mass movements after ingestion of a normal meal is called:

Ileal brake
Gastrocolic reflex
Enterogastric reflex
Gastro-sphincteric reflex
Retrosphincteric reflex

Answer 51

Gastrocolic reflex

Question 52

Rh factor incompatibility occurs in this setting:

Mother = Rh _
Fetus = Rh _
Father = Rh _

Answer 52

Rh (-) mother, Rh (+) fetus, Rh (+) father

Question 53

Gait in the hemiplegic is described as follows, EXCEPT:

a. The rectus femoris resists knee flexion in the swing phase
b. Hip hiking is related to ipsilateral trunk leaning and adduction of the contralateral hip
c. Toe-off is delayed on the affected side
d. The hip and knee flexes to clear the foot which the ankle is plantar flexed through the swing phase
e. Forward momentum of the thigh results in backward movement of the pelvis

Answer 53

b. Hip hiking is related to ipsilateral trunk leaning and adduction of the contralateral hi

Question 53

Functional map of the motor cortex resembling an image of the body turned upside down and reversed left to right:

Homunculus
Brodmann’s area
Premotor cortex
None of these

Answer 53

Homunculus

Question 54

The following statements characterize the nervous system, EXCEPT:

a. The speed at which a nerve impulse travels along the length of an axon is related to the diameter of the axon
b. In a peripheral nerve, the average conduction velocity of large motor and sensory fibers is about the same
c. Impulse conduction is faster in axons with myelin sheath
d. Larger axons conduct impulses at a slower velocity

Answer 54

d. Larger axons conduct impulses at a slower velocity

Question 54

The following applies to an open-complicated-complete-oblique fracture:

a. All of these
b. Fracture has injured surrounding nerves and blood vessels causing additional complications
c. The bone breaks and completely snapped
d. Either one or both broken ends protrude through or communicates with the wound site
e. The bone breaks at an angle

Answer 54

a. All of these

Question 54

Blood flow velocity is least in:

Capillaries
Arteries
Pulmonary artery
Veins

Answer 54

Capillaries

Question 55

The ability of the stomach to accommodate food and fluid without a significant increase in pressure is known as:

Repetitive relaxation
Perceptive relaxation
Retropulsion
Tone
Sieving function

Answer 55

Repetitive relaxation

Question 55

A powerful adductor and medial rotator of the arm, the clavicular head flexes the shoulder joint and from this position the sternal head extends the shoulder joint:

Serratus Anterior
Teres Major
Pectoralis Major
Pectoralis Minor
Latissimus Dorsi

Answer 55

Pectoralis Major

Question 55

Muscle group affected in tennis elbow:

Elbow extensors
Elbow flexors
Wrist pronator
Wrist extensors
Wrist flexors

Answer 55

Wrist extensors

Question 56

Stimulation of carotid baroreceptors:

a. Occurs when blood pressure is elevated, thus stretching the blood vessel walls
b. All of these
c. Results in decreased heart rate and decreased cardiac contractility
d. None of these
e. Results in reflex vasodilatation

Answer 56

b. All of these

Question 57

The most effective stimulus for the muscle spindle to elicit the knee jerk is:

Touch
Needle prick
Stretch
Pain
Stimulation of the proprioceptors

Answer 57

Stretch

Question 58

At a comfortable room temperature (24-25 deg. c) the major mechanisms of heat exchange between the skin and environment is:

a. Conduction convection and evaporation
b. Radiation, conduction and convection
c. Radiation, conduction and evaporation
d. Evaporation, convection and conduction
e. Radiation, convection and evaporation

Answer 58

c. Radiation, conduction and evaporation

Question 59

To prevent both regurgitation and aspiration, the optimal position for patients with neuromuscular conditions but without increased intracranial pressure or gastric dysfunction is:

Prone and Trendelenburg
Ventral Trendelenburg
Medial Trendelenburg
Lateral Trendelenburg
Supine and Trendelenburg

Answer 59

Lateral Trendelenburg

Question 59

This type of traction immobilizes a body part for prolonged periods by attaching weighted equipment directly to the patient’s bones, accomplished with pins, screws, wires or tongs:

Weight traction
Skin Traction
Skeletal Traction
Manual Traction
Equipment Traction

Answer 59

Skeletal Traction

Question 60

Gait following stroke is grossly characterized by the following, EXCEPT:

a. Lesser than normal knee flexion moment at mid-stance
b. Sometimes loss of dorsiflexion of the ankle in the swing phase and initial contact
c. Reduction or loss of the knee flexion phase in stance
d. Increased stance on the unaffected side and decreased stance phase on the affected side
e. Reduction of knee flexion in the swing phase

Answer 60

a. Lesser than normal knee flexion moment at mid-stance

Question 61

A set of attributes that people have or achieve that relates to the ability to perform physical activity:

Exercise
Physical fitness
Physical activity
Work out
Aerobics

Answer 61

Physical fitness

Question 62

If two forces are pulling from the same point, the resultant force:

a. Decreases as the angle between the two forces increase
b. Is the sum of the two forces
c. Reaches a maximum when the forces are on the same line and acting in opposite direction
d. Is the diagonal of the parallelogram
e. Increases as the angle between the two forces decreases

Answer 62

d. Is the diagonal of the parallelogram

Question 63

When one shifts to an upright from supine position:

a. The lungs receive a greater portion of the cardiac output
b. More blood shifts to the venous portion of the circulation
c. The heart receives a lesser portion of the cardiac throughout
d. The heart receives a greater portion of the cardiac output
e. More blood shifts to the arterial portion of the circulation

Answer 63

b. More blood shifts to the venous portion of the circulation

Question 64

Rupture of this ligament allows excessive backward movement of the tibia on the femur:

Posterior Cruciate Ligament
Lateral Collateral Ligament
Medial Collateral Ligament
Anterior Cruciate Ligament

Answer 64

Posterior Cruciate Ligament

Question 65

This ligament maintains the forward concavity and forms a bridge deep to which past the numerous tendons that flex the wrist and fingers:

Annular ligament
Denticulate ligament
Intra-articular ligament
Flexor retinaculum
Extensor retinaculum

Answer 65

Flexor retinaculum

Question 66

A movement disorder resulting from pathological changes involving the cortex and basal ganglia and characterized by slow writhing movements of a wormlike character involving the extremities, trunk and neck:

Athetosis
Chorea
NOTA
Paralysis Agitans

Answer 66

Athetosis

Question 66

This cranial nerve supplies the muscles of expression, including the Buccinator:

Fifth
Eight
Seventh
Third
Ninth

Answer 66

Seventh

Question 67

In the normal upright adult lung, blood flow is greatest at this part of the lung:

Both at the base and apex
At the base
At the apex
Equally distributed throughout
Near the middle

Answer 67

At the base

Question 68

Inhibitory post-synaptic potentials (IPSP) are produced with hyperpolarization of the cell membrane. This is due to:

Sulfate influx
Potassium influx
Magnesium influx
Chloride ion influx
Sodium influx

Answer 68

Chloride ion influx

Question 68

Cerebrospinal fluid fill these cavities within the brain:

Cistern
Ventricles
Subarachnoid space
Meninges
Sinus

Answer 68

Ventricles

Question 69

The following conditions describe lesion of the cerebellum, EXCEPT:

a. An oscillating tremor may appear on attempted movement
b. Lesions of the vermis cause difficulty in maintaining upright posture, ataxia of gait and truncal ataxia
c. Nystagmus is often present
d. Acute cerebellar hemispheric lesion produces a tendency to fall to that side with weakness and hypotonia
e. Intrinsics lesion produce sensory deficits

Answer 69

e. Intrinsics lesion produce sensory deficits

Question 70

The following statements describe the prosthesis of an above knee amputee, EXCEPT:

a. When a SACH foot is used, it is set at about 90 degrees with respect to the shank
b. At faster speeds, a knee damper assists in improving control of the calf momentum
c. To improve foot clearance, the unaffected pelvis may be elevated
d. Due to lack of propulsion on the calf, the pelvis drops in late stance on the prosthetic side
e. The prosthetic limb’s forward motion must be generated at a site other than the calf

Answer 70

c. To improve foot clearance, the unaffected pelvis may be elevated

Question 70

This lifting or stooping technique reduces the stress on both the back and the knees. The feet are positioned shoulder width part with one foot slightly in front of the other. One hand is placed on the forward thigh or a fixed object as the knees and hips are bent and then lowers him to pick up the item. The lift is completed by pushing off with the supporting hand as he stands up:

Power lift
Tripod lift
Partial squat lift with support
Deep squat lift
Diagonal lift

Answer 70

Partial squat lift with support

Question 71

Frowning muscle:

Procerus
Nasalis
Frontalis
Corrugator supercilli

Answer 71

Corrugator supercilli

Question 72

The site of most frequent fracture of the upper end of the humeral shaft:

Greater tubercle
Bicipital groove
Surgical neck
Anatomical neck

Answer 72

Surgical neck

Question 73

Body parts moving in the same direction with equal velocity:

Transfer
Parallel Rotary
Translatory
Angular

Answer 73

Angular

Question 73

Cell’s permeability causes this rapid exchange of positive and negative ions

Action potential
Repolarization
Membrane potential
Resting potential
Depolarization

Answer 73

Depolarization

Question 74

The following statements are true of the shoulder joint, EXCEPT:

a. The scapula, which forms the mobile base of the shoulder joint, has minimal passive suspension from the skeleton via the acromioclavicular joint and coracoclavicular ligament
b. An implication of the shoulder’s structural modification to increase mobility is that it relies on ligaments to provide adequate stability
c. The ligaments are few and only provide stability in limited joint ranges of motion
d. The joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing 2 to 3 cm of distraction between articular surfaces
e. The articular surfaces of the humeral head and the glenoid fossa of the scapula lack congruity

Answer 74

b. An implication of the shoulder’s structural modification to increase mobility is that it relies on ligaments to provide adequate stability

Question 75

Principles of prevention of cumulative trauma injury for the hands and wrists include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Eliminate direct pressure on the palm
b. Design tools to keep wrist in the ”neutral” position
c. Isolate vibration
d. Increase excessive or unnecessary grasping force where possible
e. Reduce the number of repetitions

Answer 75

d. Increase excessive or unnecessary grasping force where possible

Question 76

The posterior triangle of the neck is bounder by the following structures:

a. The Scalene, Levator Scapulae, and Splenius
b. Trapezius, Sternohyoid and Clavicle
c. Sternocleidomastoid, anterior border of Trapezius, and the clavicle
d. Splenius, Capitis, Sternohyoid, and clavicle
e. Omohyoid, Sternocleidomastoid, and Levator Scapulae

Answer 76

c. Sternocleidomastoid, anterior border of Trapezius, and the clavicle

Question 77

Cranial nerve integrity involves several components, tests and measures are used to localize dysfunction in the brainstem and cranial nerves and are appropriate in the presence of the following impairments, EXCEPT:

a. Aerobic capacity and endurance
b. Joint integrity and mobility
c. Gait, locomotion, and balance
d. Neuromotor development and sensory integration
e. Muscle performance

Answer 77

d. Neuromotor development and sensory integration

Question 77

Conduction in the nerve axon has:

a. Forward flow that is otherwise called an antidromic conduction
b. Negative charges that is otherwise called orthodromic saltatory conduction’
c. Unmyelinated nerve axons called saltatory
d. Positive charges that flow into an area of negativity called the current sink
e. Backward flow that is otherwise called orthodromic conduction

Answer 77

d. Positive charges that flow into an area of negativity called the current sink

Question 78

In comparison to motor stimulation, sensory nerve excitation, irrespective of waveform, require less of the following, except:

Phase charge
Peak voltage
Total pulse charge
Differential amplitude
Peak current

Answer 78

Differential amplitude

Question 79

This artery enters the thigh in the midline in front, descends vertically and supplies the lower limb:

Left femoral circumflex artery
Tibial artery
Femoral artery
Popliteal artery

Answer 79

Femoral artery

Question 80

Craniosacral therapy is a relatively new evaluation and treatment approach and assumes the presence of craniosacral motion to be as follows, EXCEPT:

a. An inherent rhythmical motion in human and animals different from any other rhythm in the body
b. Restricted craniosacral motion and presence of pathology in the body can guide corrective treatment to produce improvements in pain and dysfunction
c. It is a physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary
d. It is unstable and fluctuates in response to exercise, emotion and rest
e. It is claimed to change in response to trauma, autism, or learning disability

Answer 80

c. It is a physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary

Question 81

The immobile but not rigid union of this ligament provides security to the ankle joint:

Calcaneocuboid
Superior tibiofibular
Subtalar
Inferior tibiofibular ligament
Interosseous tibiofibular ligament

Answer 81

Inferior tibiofibular ligament

Question 82

The following statements apply to elbow flexion range of motion, EXCEPT:

a. Normal variation is between 120 to 160 degrees
b. Subjects with little soft tissue have a hard end-feel
c. Has hard end-feel on contact of muscle between arm and forearm
d. Contact on the muscle between the forearm and arm can stop the motion
e. Averages 145 degrees

Answer 82

b. Subjects with little soft tissue have a hard end-feel

Question 83

When a muscle is the principal agent in producing a desired movement, it is said to be a/an:

Antagonist
Synergist
Prime Mover
Postural muscle
Fixators

Answer 83

Prime Mover

Question 84

Which of the following is considered in wheelchair selection?

a. For a patient with poor sitting balance, recommend a chair with a solid seat
b. All of these
c. If your patient has bilateral leg amputations, recommend a chair with wheels back a few inches
d. A wheelchair with several types of hand projections on the hand rims is indicated for patients with arm or hand weakness
e. None of these

Answer 84

b. All of these

Question 85

The greater sciatic notch immediately below the sacroiliac joint allows this nerve to pass:

Gluteal nerve
Femoral nerve
Genitofemoral nerve
Sciatic nerve
Obturator nerve

Answer 85

Sciatic nerve

Question 86

When using exogenous microcurrents, the type of tissue to be stimulated and the status of the tissue determine the polarity of the treating electrode. What type of stimulation would you use with an indolent ulcer?

Either Cathodal or Anodal
Cathodal and Anodal
Anodal
Not indicated
Cathodal

Answer 86

Anodal

Question 87

Acute postoperative rehabilitation of lung transplant cases include the following, EXCEPT:

a. ROM exercises progressing to transfer out of bed
b. Adequate pain control, optimal positioning, and modification in coughing techniques
c. Huff coughing with closure of the glottis
d. Postural drainage with shaking or vibration provided the patient is stable
e. Body positioning and mobilization

Answer 87

c. Huff coughing with closure of the glottis

Question 88

The following statements describe O2 carrying capacity of the blood, EXCEPT:

a. A shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right facilitates the unloading of O2 from hemoglobin
b. The O2 content of the blood is determined by the amount of hemoglobin in the blood and by the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood
c. Decreases concentration of carboxyhemoglobin produces a leftward shift of the curve impairing O2 delivery
d. Acidosis and increased body temperature facilitate the unloading of O2 from hemoglobin and the diffusion of 02 from capillaries to muscle cells
e. A shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left impairs the amount of O2 extracted by muscle

Answer 88

c. Decreases concentration of carboxyhemoglobin produces a leftward shift of the curve impairing O2 delivery

Question 89

Joint motion kinematic pattern is predictable during walking. The moments that influence these motions may be variable depending on the strategy used to achieve the kinematic result. The following describe these moments during the stance phase of gait, EXCEPT:

a. The moment pattern at the knee is the least consistent lower extremity joint moment because moment at the ankle and hip can control movement at the knee when the foot is fixed on the ground
b. Support moment has a shape similar to the vertical ground reaction force during stance
c. Movement about the ankle has a consistently recognized moment pattern i.e., a small dorsiflexor moment followed by a large plantar-flexor moment
d. The summation of the ankle plantar-flexor, knee extensor and the hip extensor moment remains inconsistent
e. Moment pattern at the hip is less consistent than at the ankle, but usually shows an extensor moment followed by a flexor moment.

Answer 89

d. The summation of the ankle plantar-flexor, knee extensor and the hip extensor moment remains inconsistent

Question 90

The following levels of amputations are presently being performed, EXCEPT:

a. Removal of arm from 7” above the elbow
b. Removal of the foot at ankle joint
c. Removal of lower arm above 7” below the elbow at the junction between the middle and lower third of the forearm
d. Removal of leg 5” to 7” below the tibia
e. Removal of patella with quadriceps brought over femur end

Answer 90

a. Removal of arm from 7” above the elbow

Question 91

This muscle separates the neck into the posterior and anterior triangle and protects the great vascular and nerve trunks:

Sternohyoid
Scalenus anterior
Sternothyroid
Sternocleidomastoid
Omohyoid

Answer 91

Sternocleidomastoid

Question 92

Examples of static load include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Standing upright for long periods of time
b. Holding the arms unsupported out in front to do assembly work
c. Walking for long periods of time
d. Continuously holding a tool in one hand and the product in the other
e. Reaching overhead and looking upward

Answer 92

c. Walking for long periods of time

Question 93

The following statements describe the principle of all-or-none law, EXCEPT:

a. Physiologic mechanisms exist for fine gradation of the force of muscle contraction
b. The law applies only to individual motor units
c. All muscle fibers in a given motor unit contract or relax almost simultaneously
d. Activated muscle fibers contract maximally if the nerve activates the motor fibers of a motor unit sufficiently
e. In the same motor unit, it is possible for some muscle fiber to contract while others are relaxed

Answer 93

e. In the same motor unit, it is possible for some muscle fiber to contract while others are relaxed

Question 94

In this class of lever, force is applied at one end of the lever arm, the weight to be moved is at the other end the fulcrum is at some point intermediate between the two:

First
Second
None of these
Third
Fourth

Answer 94

First

Question 95

The following characterize the Golgi Tendon Organs (GTO), EXCEPT:

a. GTOs discharge nerve impulses that are transmitted over large, rapidly conducting afferent axons to the spinal cord and cerebellum
b. GTO nerve impulses at the spinal cord excited inhibitory interneurons
c. GTO nerve impulses at the spinal cord will not limit the force developed to tolerance by the tissues being tressed resulting in injury
d. GTO’s reside within muscle tendons near the points of attachment of the muscle fiber to the tendon
e. Small bundle of muscle fibers produce tension that stimulate GTOs

Answer 95

c. GTO nerve impulses at the spinal cord will not limit the force developed to tolerance by the tissues being stressed resulting in injury

Question 96

In the gate control theory of pain, stimulation of large fibers normally leads to inhibition of:

Ventral horn cells
Substantia Gelatinosa interneurons
Large diameter fibers
Small diameter fibers
Dorsal horn cells

Answer 96

Small diameter fibers

Question 97

All carpal bones have four articulating surfaces, EXCEPT:

Triquetrum
Scaphoid
Hamate
Pisiform
Trapezium

Answer 97

Pisiform

Question 98

These molecules supply energy to myofilaments to allow movement of the acting filaments toward the center of the A bands:

Adenosine Triphosphate
Calcium Ions
Adenosine Diphosphatase
AOTA

Answer 98

Adenosine Triphosphate

Question 99

Stress fractures of the femoral neck are generally characterized by the following EXCEPT:

a. Radiographs are often negative
b. Injection with a local anesthetic will provide the complete relief of pain
c. There is sudden onset of pain and a recent change in activity level
d. In the early stages, localized pain that worsens with activity and improves with rest is present
e. Localized tenderness may occur at the greater trochanter

Answer 99

b. Injection with a local anesthetic will provide the complete relief of pain

Question 100

Following are the many uses of electromechanical dynamometers, EXCEPT:

a. To establish the relative efficacy of various treatment and training regiments
b. To collect torque curves that might indicate whether pathology or characteristics specific to subject type were present
c. To evaluate the effects of training or testing mode
d. To quantify exercise so that exercise regimens may be administered
e. To classify muscle performance as normal or abnormal by comparisons with the performance of ipsilateral muscles, with normal data, or with muscle performance in a control group.

Answer 100

e. To classify muscle performance as normal or abnormal by comparisons with the performance of ipsilateral muscles, with normal data, or with muscle performance in a control group.

Question 101

Coagulopathies interfere with the normal mechanism of the blood and affect the normal blood clotting factor that can result in the following, EXCEPT:

a. Excesses do not contribute to tissue infarction
b. Deficits can contribute to bleeding abnormalities and hemorrhage
c. Excesses can contribute thromboemboli
d. Excesses can contribute to obstruction of blood flow to vital organs
e. Deficits and excesses are pathologic and interfere with oxygen transport

Answer 101

a. Excesses do not contribute to tissue infarction

Question 102

The following are possible mechanisms of action for back belts, EXCEPT:

a. Use of biomechanically safe lifting techniques as a result of proprioceptive input
b. Decreased muscular fatigue and strain during lifting as a result of increased muscle support
c. Decreased ROM as a result limiting spinal ROM
d. Existence of a soothing effect as a result of increased local tissue temperature and a sense of safety
e. Redistribution of spinal forces during lifting as a result of decreased intra-abdominal pressure

Answer 102

e. Redistribution of spinal forces during lifting as a result of decreased intra-abdominal pressure

Question 103

This nerve passes between the dense fascia of the forearm and the tendons of the brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus muscles. The tendons can press on this nerve in a scissor-like fashion when the forearm is pronated, causing a proximal tethering on the distal segment of the nerve at the wrist, leading to entrapment causing pain patterns that can be mistaken for de Quervain’s tenosynovitis:

a. Posterior branch of the musculocutaneous nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Dorsal antebrachial cutaneous nerve
d. Median nerve
e. Superficial radial nerve

Answer 103

e. Superficial radial nerve

Question 104

The amount of calories required concentrating 1 osmole of substance tenfold?

None of these
1200 calories
1600 calories
1400 calories

Answer 104

1400 calories

Question 105

The following are true of the structural foundation of the knee, EXCEPT:

a. The osseous portions of the knee are the femur, tibia, patella, and fibula
b. The added depth of the tibial plateau is extremely important because the lateral femoral condyle and lateral tibial plateau are both somewhat convex
c. The proximal end of the tibia flares to create plateau with anterior and posterior section divided by the tibial spines
d. The menisci deepen the contour of the tibial plateau to provide a good seat for the corresponding femur condyles
e. The shape of the femoral medial and lateral condyle is important in the movement of the tibia on the femur

Answer 105

c. The proximal end of the tibia flares to create plateau with anterior and posterior section divided by the tibial spines

Question 105

Terminal branches of the basilar artery:

Vertebral arteries
Posterior communicating arteries
Superior cerebellar arteries
Paired posterior cerebral arteries

Answer 105

Paired posterior cerebral arteries

Question 106

The line of fusion between the External Oblique is the:

Linea alba
Aponeurosis
Inguinal ligament (of Poupart)
Falx inguinalis
Transversus abdominis

Answer 106

Linea alba

Question 107

The following statements are true of medial collateral ligaments of the knee, EXCEPT:

a. To test the ligament, push laterally against the knee and medially against the ankle to attempt a varus stress
b. If there is a medial joint line gapping, the ligament is not supporting the knee properly
c. A tear on this ligament leads to joint instability, whereas similar defect in the lateral collateral ligament may have little effect either way
d. A “chunk” is felt when the tibia and femur close together as a stress on the injured joint is relieved
e. To test the ligament, push medially against the knee and laterally against the ankle to attempt a valgus stress

Answer 107

a. To test the ligament, push laterally against the knee and medially against the ankle to attempt a varus stress

Question 108

An involuntary trembling and usually used to describe rhythmic alternating movements of a part. May appear largely at rest or be manifested movement:

Chorea
Tremor
Hyperkinesia
Myoclonus
Athetosis

Answer 108

Tremor

Question 109

Hearing impairment resulting from damage to the inner ear or neural fibers of the eight cranial nerve:

Peripheral
Conductive
Mixed
Sensorineural
Central

Answer 109

Sensorineural

Question 110

This nerve innervates the masseter and temporalis muscles, and supplies sensory innervations to the face:

Oculomotor
Trigeminal
Trochlear
Facial
Abducens

Answer 110

Trigeminal

Question 111

The following are differences between closed (CKC) and open kinematic (CKC) chain exercises, EXCEPT:

a. OKC are typically non-weight bearing, with movement occurring at a single joint
b. In CKC, movement at several joints is required to complete the movement
c. CKC are typically weight bearing, an example would be a knee extension exercise, performed in a sitting position with resistance applied to the distal segment
d. In CKC, the distal segment is usually fixed to a supporting surface, and the resistance may be applied both proximally and distally
e. In OKC, the distal segment is free to move, and the resistance is usually applied to the distal segment

Answer 111

c. CKC are typically weight bearing, an example would be a knee extension exercise, performed in a sitting position with resistance applied to the distal segment

Question 112

Oscillations of resting membrane potentials of the GI smooth muscle not associated with muscle contraction is known as:

Fast waves
Slow waves
Spikes
Action potentials
Tone

Answer 112

Slow waves

Question 112

Physiological fatigue is a central concern of ergonomics. To prevent undesirable static overload, the following improvements are recommended, EXCEPT:

a. Improvements in equipment heights
b. Layout changes
c. Holding a single comfortable position
d. Keep the body in a neutral posture and the muscle relaxed
e. Braces, straps and supports to hold the tool to the hand

Answer 112

Holding a single comfortable position

Question 113

The most powerful protractor of the scapula, its paralysis results in “winged” scapula:

Levator scapulae
Pectoralis Minor
Rhomboids
Serratus Anterior
Middle Trapezius

Answer 113

Serratus Anterior

Question 114

The following statements describe Trochanteric bursitis, EXCEPT:

a. Treatment usually consists of rest, immobilization, and local heat
b. There is immediate relief of pain after peri-trochanteric injection with corticosteroid and local anesthetic
c. Results from friction between the bursa and the greater trochanter
d. Pain and tenderness may develop in the medial thigh, groin, and the gluteal areas
e. There is marked tenderness to deep palpation immediately above or posterior to the greater trochanter

Answer 114

d. Pain and tenderness may develop in the medial thigh, groin, and the gluteal areas

Question 115

Following are most frequently reported musculoskeletal or fibrous connective tissue symptoms, EXCEPT:

a. Swelling and numbness of the extremities
b. Swelling in articular, periarticular and soft tissue
c. Nonrestorative sleep with morning fatigue
d. Aches and pains that are specific, fluctuating through the full range of pain sensations frequently accompanied by marked stiffness
e. Tender points frequently accompanied by muscle spasms or nodules that cluster in regions around the neck and shoulders, upper chest wall and lower back

Answer 115

d. Aches and pains that are specific, fluctuating through the full range of pain sensations frequently accompanied by marked stiffness

Question 116

Mitosis can only take place after this event takes place:

Enzyme inhibition
Negative feedback control
None of these
Replication of all DNA in the chromosomes

Answer 116

Replication of all DNA in the chromosomes

Question 117

The surfaces of this joint are nearly flat and circular. Gliding movement occur, the one that shakes the head “No” movement:

Axial-Occipital joints
Atlanto-occipital joint
Atlanto-Axial joints
None of these

Answer 117

Atlanto-Axial joints

Question 118

Disturbance in the execution of speech and often occurs without a disorder of language:

Agnosia
Aphonia
None of these
Dysarthria

Answer 118

Dysarthria

Question 119

While there are eight nerves that exit the cervical spine, there are only seven cervical vertebrae. Where does the first thoracic nerve exit?

Above the second thoracic vertebra
Below the second thoracic vertebra
Below the first thoracic vertebra
Below the seventh cervical vertebra

Answer 119

Below the first thoracic vertebra

Question 120

Following are changes in the mechanical properties of muscle fibers occurring in patients with spasticity, EXCEPT:

a. Contraction times of hand muscles and gastrocnemius muscles are diminished
b. Increased muscle tone in the antigravity muscles
c. Structural changes such as the appearance of target fibers
d. Increased levels of muscle fiber atrophy
e. Predominance of type I fibers in the gastrocnemius muscle months after stroke, when spasticity of cerebral origin has been established

Answer 120

a. Contraction times of hand muscles and gastrocnemius muscles are diminished

Question 121

The following statements are true of the brachialis, EXCEPT:

a. It is an elbow flexor
b. It is innervated by musculocutaneous nerve
c. Its proximal attachment is halfway up the shaft of the humerus
d. When the forearm is supinated, the brachialis flexes the elbow with little participation from the biceps
e. Attached distally to the coronoid process of the ulna

Answer 121

d. When the forearm is supinated, the brachialis flexes the elbow with little participation from the biceps

Question 122

The following statements are true of the patella, EXCEPT:

a. Adapted through evaluation and with the development of bipedal gait to become an integral part of the knee extensor mechanism with all of the characteristics of a “true joint”
b. Forces transmitted from the patella to the femoral sulcus increase as knee flexion increases
c. The patellofemoral compressive forces are greater than body weight during walking and further increased to 2.5 times body weight during such activities as stair climbing
d. Normal function depends upon adequate stabilization which is provided by both active and passive elements of the extensor mechanism
e. Acting as a fulcrum, its primary function is to increase the extending moment of the quadriceps femoris muscle

Answer 122

c. The patellofemoral compressive forces are greater than body weight during walking and further increased to 2.5 times body weight during such activities as stair climbing

Question 123

This class of lever is found in most open-chain motion of the extremities, e.g. the deltoid acting on the glenohumeral joint:

Third
Second
Fourth
See-Saw
First

Answer 123

Third

Question 124

Characterized with hypertonicity associated with involuntary quick muscle contraction increased muscle tone and muscle stretch reflexes:

Chorea
Tremors
Spasticity
Athetosis
Dystonia

Answer 124

Spasticity

Question 125

The following conditions are all associated with spasticity, EXCEPT:

a. Reflex irradiation
b. Abnormal muscular co-contraction during voluntary movement
c. Normal patterns of muscular coordination
d. Reduction at the threshold angle at which the stretch reflex is elicited
e. Hypersensitivity to various sensory input in addition to muscle stretch

Answer 125

c. Normal patterns of muscular coordination

Question 126

The causes of short step length and of low speed in the hemiplegics are as follows, EXCEPT:

a. Below normal ipsilateral hip extensor activity during ipsilateral stance
b. Weak hip flexor at toe-off and early swing
c. Weak push-off prior to swing
d. Extensive deceleration of the leg in the late swing
e. Above normal contralateral hip extensor activity during contralateral stance

Answer 126

a. Below normal ipsilateral hip extensor activity during ipsilateral stance

Question 127

The following statements describe the anterior abdominal wall, EXCEPT:

a. In pregnancy, the spatial relationship between the superior and inferior muscle attachments are altered as maternal superior thoracic diameter is decreased
b. Consists primarily of four paired muscles, with fibers directed vertically, horizontally, and obliquely
c. The muscles have skeletal attachments on the thoracic cage and pelvis and via broad aponeurosis to both the thoracolumbar fascia and the rectus sheath
d. Alterations in the spatial relationship of muscle attachment and muscle angle of insertion also alters the muscle’s ability to produce torque
e. Rectus abdominis muscles may move laterally during pregnancy and may remain separated in the immediate post-birth period

Answer 127

a. In pregnancy, the spatial relationship between the superior and inferior muscle attachments are altered as maternal superior thoracic diameter is decreased

Question 128

The proximal carpal row consists of the following, EXCEPT:

Lunate
Scaphoid
Trapezium
Pisiform
Triquetrum

Answer 128

Trapezium

Question 129

Characterized by an inability to sustain a body part or parts in one position, often the distal limbs, and the movements are slow and fluid:

Dystonia
Chorea
Athetosis
Ballismus
Spasticity

Answer 129

Athetosis

Question 130

The Lateral Longitudinal Arch consist of the following, bones:

a. Calcaneum, Cuboid, Fourth and Fifth Metatarsal Bones
b Bases on the Metatarsal Bones and the Cuboid and the Three Cuneiform Bones
c. Calcaneum, Talus, Navicular Bone, Three Cuneiform Bones and the first Three Metatarsal Bone
d. None of these

Answer 130

a. Calcaneum, Cuboid, Fourth and Fifth Metatarsal Bones

Question 131

During the phase of mitosis, 46 pairs of chromatids are separated, forming 46 daughter chromosomes:

Anaphase
Prophase
Metaphase
Telophase

Answer 131

Anaphase

Question 132

This structure tends to prevent the radius from being pulled down out of its socket, and completes a collar in which the radial head revolves:

Cord
Annular ligament
Radial notch of the ulna
Ulnar collateral ligament

Answer 132

Annular ligament

Question 133

Continuous discomfort may accompany many orthopedic conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis:

Acute Pain
Phantom Pain
Superficial Pain
Referred Pain
Chronic Pain

Answer 133

Chronic Pain

Question 134

The middle trunk is made up only of one nerve root, which is:

C7
C6
T1
C8
C5

Answer 134

C7

Question 134

The following statements are true of the shoulder joint, EXCEPT:

a. The movement primarily involves the clavicle and scapula
b. The movement occurs between the scapula and the humerus
c. The joint is a poor “fit” and a lax capsule
d. It is multiaxial ball-and-socket joint with a remarkable degree of freedom of movement
e. Its extreme mobility is achieved at the expense of stability and security

Answer 134

a. The movement primarily involves the clavicle and scapula

Question 135

In Erb-Duchenne Palsy, which of the following movements are not affected:

Elbow flexion
Wrist extension
Forearm supination
Shoulder flexion

Answer 135

Shoulder flexion

Question 136

The following is true in a malunion fracture complication, EXCEPT:

a. There was inadequate fracture reduction
b. The fracture has healed incorrectly, leaving the bone deformed, weak, and possibly causing pain
c. If malunion is detected before healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to align the bone fragments
d. If malunion is detected after healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to obtain a more normal position for healing
e. If the malunion is slight, it may not have to be corrected because the correction procedure could cause delayed union or nonunion

Answer 136

c. If malunion is detected before healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to align the bone fragments

Question 137

Artery which supplies the skin on the posterior side of the leg and muscles of the thigh and leg:

Popliteal
Dorsalis pedis
Femoral
Tibial
Common peroneal

Answer 137

Femoral

Question 138

In this class of lever, the force is applied at a site intermediate between the fulcrum and the weight to be moved:

Third class level
None of these
Second class lever
First class lever

Answer 138

Third class level

Question 139

If there is tibial torsion in tibial torsion test, to what direction will the malleolar line face in relation to the parallel line?

If there is (external/internal) tibial torsion, the malleolar line may face directly (anteriorly/posteriorly), close to the (parallel/perpendicular) line

Answer 139

If there is INTERNAL tibial torsion, the malleolar line may face directly ANTERIORLY, close to the PERPENDICULAR line

Question 140

An individual with rheumatoid arthritis that has a functional capacity adequate to perform only a few or none of the duties of occupation or self-care classified as Class:

III
IV
V
II
I

Answer 140

III

Question 141

The following statements are true of the condylar type of total knee prosthesis, EXCEPT:

a. Indicated for deteriorated, but not completely destroyed knee joint
b. Indicated for patients that have no functioning ligaments in the knee
c. Allows some adduction, abduction and rotation
d. Patient must have normal knee ligaments
e. Consists of metal rollers fixed onto the femoral condyles and high-density polyethylene cups located on the tibia

Answer 141

b. Indicated for patients that have no functioning ligaments in the knee

Question 142

The following statement describe the radius, EXCEPT:

a. The radial shaft’s crossing over the ulna is further aided by the shaft of the radius that is bowed a little lateral wards
b. The head of the radius articulates with the capitulum of the humerus
c. The important functions of the radius lie at the elbow
d. The radial shaft crosses in front of the ulna while the radial head revolves to perform the movement of pronation
e. The radius lies on a plane anterior to the ulna

Answer 142

c. The important functions of the radius lie at the elbow

Question 143

The relationship of vertebral levels to cord segments end to spinal roots are as follows:

a. In infancy, the tip of the spinal cord is at about the L4-L5 level but it ascends to the L2-L3 level in maturity
b. There are eight cervical cord segments and root pairs but only 7 vertebrae
c. The C8 roots exits below the C7 vertebra, and from there down numbered roots leave below the correspondingly numbered vertebrae
d. In the cervical region, the cord segments approximate the corresponding numbered vertebrae. And the roots leave the cord at nearly a right angle
e. The C1 root has no sensory component

Answer 143

a. In infancy, the tip of the spinal cord is at about the L4-L5 level but it ascends to the L2-L3 level in maturity

Question 144

The awareness referred to as Kinesthesia is described as follows, EXCEPT:

a. Impulses are transmitted predominantly over group II afferent fibers
b. Awareness of joint motion
c. Awareness of static motion
d. Impulses are sent to the spinal cord, cerebellum and sensory nuclei
e. Kinesthetic signals are generated in response to movements and tension within the tendons

Answer 144

c. Awareness of static motion

Question 145

Lesions in the primary motor region result in the following statements, EXCEPT

a. A few weeks after the immediate body response, enhanced muscle stretch reflexes and Babinski’s sign is observe
b. Immediate paresis of the ipsilateral musculature with increased resistance to passive manipulation
c. Immediate paresis of the contralateral musculature with hypotonia and diminished muscle stretch reflexes
d. A few weeks after the immediate body response, partial recovery of muscle strength and development of spasticity of the affected musculature appears

Answer 145

b. Immediate paresis of the ipsilateral musculature with increased resistance to passive manipulation

Question 145

In MMT, when there is visible palpable or muscle contraction but no joint motion is produced, the muscle is graded as:

3
4
0
1
2

Answer 145

1

Question 146

The motion that the scapulothoracic joint provides result in the following statements, EXCEPT:

a. Allow the deltoid to function above 90 degrees of arm elevation
b. Increase the range of arm motion
c. Provides glenohumeral stability for work in overhead position
d. Does not allow elevation of the body, i.e. in sitting push-ups

Answer 146

d. Does not allow elevation of the body, i.e. in sitting push-ups

Question 147

This test requires the patient to lie supine and raise his uninvolved leg if there is back and sciatic pain on the involved side, there may be evidence of space occupying lesion in the lumbar area:

Milgram test
Well Leg Straight Leg Raising Test
Kernig Test
Straight Leg Raising Test
Hoover Rest

Answer 147

Well Leg Straight Leg Raising Test

Question 148

The following statements describe congestive heart failure, EXCEPT:

a. Some type of injury to the myocardium of ten initiates a progressive decline in myocardial function
b. Characterized by decrease in cardiac pumping ability that leads to inadequate tissue perfusion and accumulation of fluid in the lungs and other organs
c. Prognosis for patients with heart failure is often poor, with 5 year mortality rates
d. Compensatory neurohumoral mechanism changes may actually exacerbate myocardial dysfunction by increasing cardiac workload
e. Decreased sympathetic nervous system activation and increased activation of the renin angiotensin system occurs as the heart fails

Answer 148

e. Decreased sympathetic nervous system activation and increased activation of the renin angiotensin system occurs as the heart fails

Question 149

An individual with rheumatoid arthritis that is largely or wholly incapacitated, bedridden or using a wheelchair, permitting little or no self-care is classified as Class

V
IV
I
III
II

Answer 149

IV

Question 150

This hip-repair surgical procedure severs hip muscles and tendons around the joint to decrease pressure and pain within the joint. The success rate is low and return to full weight status is a lengthy process:

Displacement Osteotomy
Arthrodesis
Double-cup Arthroplasty
Femoral Prosthesis
Muscle Release

Answer 150

Muscle Release

Question 151

Inhibits synthesis of angiotensin II in the bloodstream and various tissues, and decreases angiotensin II mediated vasoconstriction and vascular structural changes:

Alpha-adrenergic blockers
Angiotensin-converting (ACE) enzyme inhibitors
Diuretics
Calcium channel blockers
Beta-adrenergic blockers

Answer 151

Angiotensin-converting (ACE) enzyme inhibitors

Question 152

Periarticular connective tissues are designed to withstand tensile stress. If these tissues are deprived of tensile stress by being immobilized in a shortened position, the following changes will occur, EXCEPT:

Remodeling is halted
An increase in the amount of deductible crosslink
There is a decrease in its functional length
Becomes shorter, weaker, and more stiff
Exhibit decreased amounts of collagen, glycosaminoglycans and water

Answer 152

Becomes shorter, weaker, and more stiff

Question 153

The greater frequency of tears of the medial semilunar cartilage, a common athletic injury, is due to:

a. The anterior cruciate ligament where the “screw-home” movement takes place and prohibits any father movement of either extension or rotation
b. The posterior cruciate ligament which is attached to the tibia so far back as to allow some of its fibers to arise from the back of the bone below the upper surface
c. The tightness of the medial coronary ligament of the knee that prevents back-and-forth movements of the medial cartilage
d. The aponeurotic insertion of the large extensor muscle of the knee that largely provides the fibrous capsule for the front and sides of the joint
e. The medial meniscus which is fixed to the tibia front and back by its two horns as well as around its periphery

Answer 153

c. The tightness of the medial coronary ligament of the knee that prevents back-and-forth movements of the medial cartilage

Question 154

This is a form of indirect inhibition of a nerve cell:

After hyperpolarization
Renshaw inhibition
IPSP due to interneuron
Presynaptic inhibition
Refractory period

Answer 154

Presynaptic inhibition

Question 155

The following statements characterize Tensor Fasciae Latae, EXCEPT:

a. Its nerve supply is by the superior gluteal nerve, a branch of the sacral plexus
b. It is inserted into the iliotibial tract of the fascia latae with Gluteus Medius
c. It can help abduct, medially rotate and flex the hip joint
d. Arises from the outer surface of the ilium just behind the anterior superior spine and runs vertically downwards
e. Its important use is to brace the knee so that in walking, the joint can take the weight without “buckling” while the other foot is off the ground and the body is swinging forwards

Answer 155

b. It is inserted into the iliotibial tract of the fascia latae with Gluteus Medius

Question 156

A patient using an end-range splinting device in four sessions per day for 30 minutes each session for five days has a “total end-range time” of:

150
600
120
20
75

Answer 156

600

Question 157

This gait determinant reduces the vertical drop of the center of gravity during double-stance phase and by forward movement of the hip joint, increases the length of the step:

Pelvic rotation
Pelvic list
Lateral displacement of the pelvis
Hip/knee flexion/extension mechanism
Knee flexion in stance

Answer 157

Pelvic rotation

Question 158

Stimulation of thermoreceptors in the anterior hypothalamus results in:

Vasodilatation
Both of these
Sweating
None of these

Answer 158

Both of these

Question 159

The following statements characterize idiopathic Parkinson’s Disease, EXCEPT:

a. There is progressive, accumulation of dopaminergic neurons in the brainstem nuclei
b. As disease advances, motor fluctuations frequently emerge
c. A chronic neurological condition
d. There is reduction in dopamine receptor sites in the striatum
e. Swings in motor performance associated with changing levels of dopamine uptake can result in akinesia, hypokinesia, rigidity, dyskinesia and dystonia

Answer 159

a. There is progressive, accumulation of dopaminergic neurons in the brainstem nuclei

Question 161

Ligaments function as follows, EXCEPT:

a. Protect or hold in position some more important structure, usually a nerve
b. When movements in a normal plane is gradually brought to a halt, the ligaments concerned at once become tensed as the movements proceeds
c. Prohibits movement in undesired plane
d. When abnormal movements are altogether prohibited the ligaments responsible at once are tensed and often violently
e. Limit the range or extent of normal movement

Answer 161

b. When movements in a normal plane is gradually brought to a halt, the ligaments concerned at once become tensed as the movements proceeds

Question 162

Entry of calcium into the cardiac muscle during the cardiac action potential is an example of:

a. Secondary active transport mechanism
b. Opening of ligand-gated channels
c. None of these
d. Primary active transport mechanism
e. Opening of voltage-gated channels

Answer 162

e. Opening of voltage-gated channels

Question 163

The mitochondria synthesizes this neurotransmitter at the end-plate of the motor neuron:

Acetylcholine
Troponin
Adenosine
Myosin
Actin

Answer 163

Acetylcholine

Question 164

In the neuropathic extremity, a poor indicator of inflammation is:

Edema or loss of function
Heat and redness
Pain and disturbance of function
Redness and edema
Edema or pain

Answer 164

Pain and disturbance of function

Question 165

These neural difference provide part of the basis for the differences in motor behavior that are observed following perinatal brain damage as compared with those found after adult-onset brain damage, EXCEPT:

a. Myelination is not yet complete
b. There is an abundance of neurons projecting from the cerebral cortex to the brainstem and spinal cord
c. Neurons within the brain has not completely differentiated
d. Some corticofugal projections project to inappropriate targets
e. There is an overabundance of neurons in certain areas such as the spinal cord

Answer 165

b. There is an abundance of neurons projecting from the cerebral cortex to the brainstem and spinal cord

Question 166

Galvanic current has gained attention in wound healing due to its predictable electric fields that form around the electrodes, attracting specific types of ions near the different poles. The following takes place under the anode, EXCEPT:

a. Fibroblast migration
b. Increased migration of epidermal cells, macrophages and leukocytes
c. Protein synthesis
d. Enhanced ion transport
e. vascular congestion

Answer 166

b. Increased migration of epidermal cells, macrophages and leukocytes

Question 167

Both peripheral and central nerve fibers have myelin sheath, but only peripheral nerve fibers additionally have:

Synaptic transmitter
Electrogenesis
None of Ranvier
Schwann cell
Neurolemma

Answer 167

Neurolemma

Question 168

Soft tissue palpation of the lumbar spine may present the following observation, EXCEPT:

a. Activity flexing the hip when there is psoas abscess results in increased pain in the inguinal area indicating hip joint pathology
b. The sacral triangle is a common area of pain due to low backs trains or the avulsion of a tendon from the anterior iliac spines
c. Fibro fatty nodules that may be lodged under the lip of the iliac crest’s posterior portion may be tender to palpation and cause localized low back pain
d. With the hip flexed, the sciatic nerve may be palpated midpoint between the ischial tuberosity and the greater tubercle and can be tender to palpation when a herniated disc is present
e. If either the supraspinous or interspinous ligaments are ruptured, the area maybe tender and a defeat may be palpable between the spinous processes

Answer 168

b. The sacral triangle is a common area of pain due to low backs trains or the avulsion of a tendon from the anterior iliac spines

Question 168

The angle formed by the tendons of the quadriceps and ligamentum patella with the center of the patella:

Patellar angle
Q angle
Genu valgum
Genu recurvatum
Genu Varum

Answer 168

Q angle

Question 169

The two mode theory of vision asserts that:

a. The degradation of perceptual and sensory systems are linked to potential postural problems
b. The visual system acts not only via the clarity with which it “sees” but also via the information that is generated by the individual’s motion through the environment
c. Spatially distributed information comes via the ambient mode, responsible for orientation and locomotion, and the focal mode, responsible for object recognition and identification
d. The somatosensory and visual systems are primarily sensitive to low frequency stimulation
e. Visual perception is anchored to the optic array and emphasizes the important of optical information retrieved from various sectors of the optic array

Answer 169

c. Spatially distributed information comes via the ambient mode, responsible for orientation and locomotion, and the focal mode, responsible for object recognition and identification

Question 170

The only muscle arising on the dorsum of the foot and has not counterpart in the hand:

Extensor Digitorum Brevis
Peroneus Brevis
Extensor Hallucis Longus
Extensor Hallucis Brevis

Answer 170

Extensor Digitorum Brevis

Question 171

The following statements describe cumulative trauma disorders, EXCEPT:

a. May be related to a single episode incident
b. The posture maintained by the worker-including the length of time sustained must be addressed in conjunction with the repetitious motion
c. A relatively minor stress, one which has been imposed and successfully sustained numerous times in the past, can result in a significant breakdown of the system
d. A combination or series of stresses applied over a period of time from which adequate recovery does not occur

Answer 171

a. May be related to a single episode incident

Question 172

The injury causes paralysis of the Pronator teres and Quadratus, disabling movement such as holding a glass:

Radial nerve injury above the elbow
Median nerve injury above the elbow
Ulnar nerve injury at wrist level
Ulnar nerve injury above the elbow

Answer 172

Median nerve injury above the elbow

Question 173

External fixation is used to stabilize fractures that are difficult or impossible to immobilize with casts, traction pins, or plates. It is indicated in the following conditions EXCEPT:

a. An acutely infected open fracture
b. A massive open fracture, with extensive soft tissue injury
c. Intra-articular fracture
d. Arthrodesis
e. A comminuted fracture

Answer 173

Intra-articular fracture

Question 174

Sexual dysfunction in spinal cord injury may occur due to the following, EXCEPT:

a. Failure of sympathetic input
b. A combination of these factors
c. Failure of somatic afferent and efferent neurotransmission
d. Failure of sympathetic outflows
e. Psychological distress stemming from changes in body image and feelings of inadequacy

Answer 174

a. Failure of sympathetic input

Question 175

This is an example of the nicotine acetylcholine receptor on the muscle end plate:

Anionic current gated mechanism
Active transport mechanism
Voltage gated ionic channel
Passive transport mechanism
Ligand-gated ionic channel

Answer 175

Ligand-gated ionic channel

Question 176

A muscle’s optimum angle of pull:

Obtuse angle
Acute Angle
45 degrees
Right angle
180 degrees

Answer 176

Right angle