APK DAY 3 Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q
  1. Proper positioning of the upper extremity in supine would best be described as shoulder _______.

a. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended.
b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
c. In neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
d. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degrees

A

b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.

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2
Q

The annular ligament at the elbow facilitates which of the following motions?

a. Extension of the elbow
b. Pronation of the forearm and flexion of the elbow
c. Supination of the forearm and flexion of the elbow
d. Pronation and supination of the forearm

A

d. Pronation and supination of the forearm

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3
Q
  1. The following statements describe the acromioclavicular joint EXCEPT

a. no loss of scapular rotation was apparent with acromioclavicular joint fixation.
b. range of motion of the scapula is equal to the sum of sternoclavicular and
acromioclavicular ranges of motion.
c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom. It contributes 20 degrees of scapular elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation.
d. the glenoid fossa is aligned with the humeral head during shoulder flexion or abduction
through small anterior and posterior movements of the acromion

A

c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom. It contributes 20 degrees of scapular elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation.

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4
Q
  1. The following statements describe the triquetrium EXCEPT:

a. Lies just distal to the ulnar styloid process, in the proximal row
b. It lies under the pisiform
c. Palpated by radially deviating the hand
d. Third highest of all the carpal bones in incidence of fracture
e. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon

A

e. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon - PISIFORM

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5
Q
  1. The following applies to radio-ulnar articulation, EXCEPT the:

a. proximal joint lies within the capsule of the elbow joint.
b. axis of motion is represented proximally by a line through the center of head of the ulna and distally through the center of the head of the radius.
c. radius rotate in relation to the ulna due to the connection between them.
d. one degree of freedom allows pronation and supination only.

A

b. axis of motion is represented proximally by a line through the center of head of the ulna and distally through the center of the head of the radius.

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following statements correctly describe abduction of the arm at the shoulder?

I. The rotator cuff muscles depress the head of the humerus during shoulder
abduction to prevent impingement of the humerus on the acromion
II. Internal rotation of the humerus accompanies complete
III. Abduction is produced by means of the deltoid and supraspinatus muscles
working together.
IV. External rotation of the humerus accompanies complete abduction.
V. Abduction is more powerful in the position of external rotation than in the position of internal rotation

b. I, II, III and IV
c. I, II, and IV
d. I, III, IV, and V
e. I, IV, and V

A

d. I, III, IV, and V

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7
Q
  1. What is the function of the acromioclavicular joint?

I. Vital joint to force transmission in the upper extremity
II. Permits the scapula to glide forward and backward on the clavicle in
congruence with the direction of the humeral head
III. Allow scapula to move sideways on the chest when the arm is raised

b. I
c. I and II
d. I and III
e. II

A

c. I and II

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8
Q
  1. What long muscles flex the second to fifth digits of the IP joints?

I. Flexor digitorum superficialis
II. Palmaris longus
III. Lumbricals and interossei
IV. Flexor digitorum profundus
V. Flexor pollicis longus

b. I and IV
c. III, IV, and V
d. II and III
e. I, II, and IV

A

b. I and IV

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9
Q
  1. Which progressive resistive exercise functions to strengthen the infraspinatus and teres minor?

a. extension of the shoulder with dumbbell weights
b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
c. internal rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
d. flexion of the shoulder with dumbbell weights

A

b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is a beneficial effect of Cryotherapy?

a. Decrease muscle spasticity
b. Increase collagenase activity in synovium
c. Analgesia
d. Produce sedation

A

c. Analgesia

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11
Q
  1. Which muscle does NOT flex the hand at the wrist joint?

a. Flexor carpi ulnaris
b. Pronator teres
c. Palmaris longus
d. Flexor carpi radialis

A

b. Pronator teres

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12
Q
  1. A therapist checks the water temperature of the hot pack machine after several clients report the
    heat being very strong. Which of the following temperatures is acceptable?

a. 190 degrees Fahrenheit
b. 130 degrees Fahrenheit
c. 88 degrees Celsius
d. 71 degrees Celsius

A

d. 71 degrees Celsius

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13
Q
  1. During wrist flexion at what joint(s) does the motion occur?

a. Midcarpal joint only
b. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint
c. Majority at the midcarpal joint with some motion at the radiocarpal joint
d. Radiocarpal joint only

A

b. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following statements do NOT apply to elbow flexion range of motion?

a. It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm.
b. The contact of the muscles between the forearm and arm can stop the motion
c. The subjects with little soft-tissue have a hard end-feel
d. The normal variation is between 120 to 160 degrees

A

a. It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm.

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15
Q
  1. A patient has difficulty maintaining balance while walking. Upon observation of his gait, it showed to
    be ataxic. Cerebellar dysfunction was ruled out. To diagnose the condition, this cervical nerve must
    be tested to diagnose the condition?

a. 10
b. 6
c. 12
d. 8

A

d. 8

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following structures provide stability of the acromioclavicular joint?

I. Shape of the joint
II. Acromioclavicular ligament
III. Strong joint capsule
IV. Conoid and trapezoid
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. IV only
e. II and IV

17
Q
  1. Which progressive resistive exercise functions to strengthen the infraspinatus and teres minor?

a. extension of the shoulder with dumbbell weights
b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
c. internal rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
d. flexion of the shoulder with dumbbell weights

A

b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing

18
Q
  1. Which of the following statements does NOT describe the Median Nerve?

a. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles, and all lumbrical
b. It gives off branch only until it reaches the elbow region
c. As it passes the cubital fossa, it gives off a deep branch, the Anterior Interosseous Nerve
d. It is formed from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus

A

a. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles, and all lumbrical

19
Q
  1. The following statements are true of the shoulder joint EXCEPT

a. the ligaments are few and only provide stability in limited joint ranges of motion
b. an implication of the shoulder’s structural modification to increase mobility is that it relies on muscles to provide adequate stability.
c. the articular surfaces of the humeral head and the glenoid fossa of the scapula lack congruity.
d. the scapula, which forms the mobile base of the shoulder joint, has minimal passive suspension from the skeleton via the acromioclavicular joint and coracoclavicular ligament.
e. the joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing up to 5 cm of traction between articular surfaces.

A

e. the joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing up to 5 cm (CORRECT: 2-3 cm) of traction between articular surfaces.

20
Q
  1. C5, C6 and the lateral cord receive contributions from the

a. middle trunk.
b. upper trunk.
c. medial cord.
d. lower trunk.
e. anterior cord.

A

a. middle trunk.

21
Q
  1. Plantar-flexion contractures can interfere with the performance of functional tasks through

I. increases in plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions
II. increased peak hip extension in late stance phase
III. increased ankle dorsiflexion during the swing phase
IV. knee hyperextension during the stance phase
V. soft tissues passively limiting dorsiflexion to the muscle moment developed about the ankle during the stance phase
a. I, II and III
b. I, III and IV
c. I, IV and V
d. I and III only
e. II, IV and V

A

c. I, IV and V

22
Q
  1. The feet slap the ground in this high stepping ataxic gait pattern.

a. Tabetic
b. Antalgic
c. Double step
d. Steppage
e. Spastic

23
Q
  1. The Median Nerve innervates the following structures, EXCEPT:

a. The skin of the palm
b. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
c. Flexor Carpi Radialis
d. All interossei, Opponens Pollicis

A

d. All interossei, Opponens Pollicis

24
Q
  1. A therapist is measuring shoulder external rotation. Proper positioning of the upper extremity in supine would best be described as shoulder _______.

a. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended.
b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
c. In neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
d. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degrees.

A

b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.

25
25. Throughout its course, the median nerve accompanies what artery as it enters the upper arm on the medial side of the humerus? a. Median b. Brachial c. Ulnar d. Radial
b. Brachial
26
26. The ability to hold the arms extended above the head is impaired in weakness of the shoulder girdle from any cause. The following statements are true when testing for shoulder and arm strength EXCEPT: ______________. a. A painful atrophic shoulder joint will limit movement and seriously interfere in the diagnosis of a neurologic lesion. b. When weakness of the deltoid interferes with scapular winging testing, another method is to push against the wall with outstretched arms, first one side and then the other. c. Impairment in function of the trapezius, serratus anticus or other muscles stabilizing the shoulder girdle may compromise the ability of the deltoid to hold the arms abducted at 90 degrees against the examiner’s downward pressure. d. When the serratus anticus is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medialward and up.
d. When the serratus anticus is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medialward and up.
27
27. Which of the following statements describe the Flexor Digitorum Superficialis? I. It flexes the distal interphalangeal joint II. The chief joint that it flexes is the proximal interphalangeal joint III. Both the Superficialis and Profundus act to clench the fist IV. Either the Superficialis or Profundus can act to clench the fist V. It is supplied by the median nerve b. I, III and IV c. I, IV and V d. II, III, and V e. I, II and II
d. II, III, and V
28
28. Gluteus medius is MOST active during gait at ___________. a. Swing phase b. Toe off c. Heel strike d. Midstance
d. Midstance
29
29. The following muscles are innervated by the posterior cord, EXCEPT: a. Infraspinatus b. Deltoids c. Pectoralis major d. Triceps
a. Infraspinatus
30
30. Which of the following statements describe the supraspinatus? It ____________. I. Stabilized the head of the humerus by pulling over the top of the head while the Deltoid pulls upward on the midshaft of the humerus and Teres, along with Teres Major. II. Is essential to the normal adduction of the humerus III. Is important at the end of abduction when the deltoid is pulling directly upward along the length of the humerus IV. Also helps produce smooth abduction at the shoulder joint by pulling downward and stabilizing the head of the humerus V. Stabilizes the head of the humerus by pulling over the side of the head while the Deltoid pulls inward on the midshaft of the humerus b. I and IV c. III and V d. II and IV e. I and III
b. I and IV
31
31. Which of the functional differences between the hand and foot joints are true? I. MCP permit 90 degrees of flexion, while MTP hyperextension is 45 degrees II. MCP permit 90 degrees of flexion, while MTP hyperextension is 90 degrees III. MCP allow 0-30 degrees of hyperextension, while MTP flexion allow 30-45 degrees IV. MCP allow 15-30 degrees of hyperextension, while MTP flexion allow 30-45 degrees V. Toe abduction/adduction have less range of motion than the hand b. I, III and V c. V only d. II, IV and V e. III, IV and V f. II, III and V
f. II, III and V
32
32. What movement is important for a complete upward rotation of scapular shoulder flexion and abduction? a. Protraction b. Transverse rotation of the clavicle c. Retraction d. Hyperextension
b. Transverse rotation of the clavicle
33
33. In this gait pattern, the client abducts the paralyzed limb, swings it around, and brings it forward to place the foot on the ground in front. a. Scissor b. Trendelenburg c. Hemiplegic d. Vaulting e. Spastic
c. Hemiplegic
34
34. What muscle/s extend the distal interphalangeal joint? I. Extensor digitalis communis II. Lumbricals III. Palmar interossei a. I b. I and II only c. I, II and III d. III e. I, III only
c. I, II and III
35
35. The roots of the brachial plexus are the following: a. C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1 b. C6, C7, C8, T1 and T2 c. C3, C4, C5, C6 and C7 d. C4, C5, C6, C7 and C8
a. C5, C6, C7, C8 and T1
36
36. Laterally rotates the shoulder joint. I. Deltoid II. Teres minor III. Teres major IV. Infraspinatus V. Subscapularis b. V only c. I, II, and III d. I, II, and IV e. III and IV only
d. I, II, and IV
37
37. The following statements describe the sternoclavicular joint EXCEPT: a. An articular disk is present between the end of the clavicle and the articular notch of the sternum. b. The only joint that connects the upper extremity directly with the thorax c. Motions that occur are elevation and depression, protraction and retraction, and transverse rotation d. A sellar joint with two degrees of freedom
d. A sellar joint with two degrees of freedom