APK DAY 5 Flashcards

(31 cards)

1
Q
  1. The following condition/s is/are considered LEAST damaging in nerve injuries.
    a. Crush or stretch injury
    b. Clean, simple laceration
    c. Mixing of fibers as in higher level lesions
    d. Avulsion lesions
A

C

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2
Q
  1. This outcome measure of intervention in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome was reported to be 4 times
    more responsive to clinical improvement than measures of neuromuscular impairment.
    a. 2-point discrimination
    b. Light touch with monofilaments
    c. Functional Status Scale
    d. Symptoms Severity Scale
    e. Manual muscle test
A

D

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3
Q
  1. In the adult, the subarachnoid space ends inferiorly at the level of
    a. Coccyx.
    b. lower border of L1.
    c. sacral promontory.
    d. S2-S3.
    e.S5
A

D

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4
Q
  1. The primary impairment in patients diagnosed with cerebellar cerebral vascular accident is:
    a. Impaired speech
    b. Visual field cuts
    c. Decreased balance and coordination
    d. Impaired comprehensive skills
A

C

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5
Q
  1. The following statements characterize the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, EXCEPT:
    a. There is no atrophy and no motor or reflex change
    b. Sensory and motor function is mediated by this nerve
    c. More apt to occur with metabolic disorders
    d. Some sensory loss to pain and touch is typical
A

B

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6
Q
  1. Drooping of contralateral lower face may indicate a lesion of the
    a. basal ganglia.
    b. cerebral cortex
    c. cerebellum.
    d. corticobulbar tract.
    e. corticospinal tract.
A

D

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6
Q

B6. Relatively rapid, irregularly recurrent, unpredictable, nonrhythmic, involuntary movements of
the trunk, face or extremities.
a. Myoclonus
b. Chorea
c. Hyperkinesia
d. Tremor
e. Athetosis

A
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7
Q
  1. What blood cells are activated by antigen only when associated with another host cell?
    a. Neutrophils
    b. Eosinophils
    c. T-lymphocytes
    d. B-lymphocytes
A

C

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7
Q
  1. The following are tie generalizations concerning the motor innervation of the hand, EXCEPT
    a. Median nerve for the thenar eminence while ulnar nerve for the hypothenar
    muscles.
    b. “Half-half” rule of nerve supply, i.e. median and ulnar, include the flexor
    digitorum superficialis and lumbricals.
    c. The median nerve supplies most of the flexors of the wrist and digits with
    proximal attachments on the forearm and in the region of the medial epicondyle.
    d. The radial nerve supplies all the extensors of wrist and digits with proximal
    attachments on the forearm and in the region of the lateral epicondyle.
    e. The ulnar nerve supplies most of the small muscles in the hand.
A

B

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7
Q
  1. Seizures at the onset of stroke are found in 10% of this/these type/s of stroke.
    I. Thrombotic
    II. Embolic
    III. Hemorrhagic
    a. II and III
    b. I and II
    c. I and II
    d. I, II, and III
    e. II
A

A

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7
Q
  1. Craniosacral therapy is an evaluation and treatment approach that assume the presence of
    craniosacral motion to be as follows EXCEPT it is ___________:
    a. A physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary
    b. Unstable and fluctuates in response to exercise, emotion and rest
    c. An inherent rhythmical motion in human and animals, different from any other
    rhythm in the body
    d. Claimed to change in response to trauma, autism or learning disability
A

A OR B

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true?
    I. Functionally, anatomic actions determine muscle participation in postures and
    movements
    II.Muscles also participate in posture and movements according to limb and a body
    position in relation to gravity, applied resistance, and velocity of motion
    a. I is false, II is true
    b. I is true, II is false
    c. I and II are true
    d. I and II are false
A

A

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9
Q
  1. Symptoms associated with bilateral vestibular hypofunction include the following, EXCEPT:
    a. Oscillopsia
    b. Postural instability
    c. Gait ataxia
    d. Difficulty reading
    e. Blurred vision
A

D

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10
Q
  1. The following characteristics describe an upper motor neuron disease EXCEPT: _______.
    I. There are lesions affecting nerves below the level of the brainstem
    II. Lesions may be found in descending motor tracts within the cerebral motor cortex
    III. Symptoms may include hypertonicity and hyperreflexia
    IV. Tracts in the lateral white column of the spinal cord are damaged
    V. The ventral gray column of the spinal cord may be affected.

a. I, II, and V
b. I, II and IV
c. III, IV and V
d. II, III and IV

A

A

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11
Q

15.From the following clinical signs, ataxic gait, hypotonia, dysmetria, dysdiadochokinesia, which
part of the brain has sustained injury?
a. Basal Ganglia
b. Parietal Lobe
c. Premotor Cortex
d. Cerebellum

A

D

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12
Q
  1. A deep sulcus that outlines and sweeps backward above the temporal pole, and then continues,
    on the superolateral surface, almost horizontally backwards marking the line along which the
    hemisphere became folded. The speech and hearing area are both closely associated with it.
    a. Medial
    b. Lateral
    c. Collateral
    d. Central
    e. Calcarine
13
Q
  1. What explains pain control in acupuncture?
    a. Decrease of activity of neurons upstream in the system
    b. Stimulation of unmyelinated nerve fibers
    c. Release of opiates
    d. Heat and vibration counterirritant applied to the needle structure
14
Q
  1. At the anterior clinoid process, the internal carotid artery gives off this tiny, but vitally
    important arterial branch.
    a. Superior thyroid
    b. Anterior cerebral
    c. Lenticulostriate
    d. Ophthalmic
    e. Middle cerebral
15
Q
  1. In contrast to a nerve action potential, a muscle action potential has a ________.
    a. Slower conduction velocity
    b. Lower overshoot
    c. More negative resting membrane potential
    d. Shorter duration
15
Q
  1. What part of the central system gathers information about the environment as well as the
    magnitude of the response of its effects and transmits it to the center?
    a. Central processor
    b. Integrating center
    c. Sensor
    d. Effector
16
Q
  1. Discrete muscle movements relating to swallowing, chewing and facial movement are elicited
    more readily from stimulation of which part of the primary motor area?
    a. Lateral
    b. Inferior
    c. Superior
    d. Medial
16
Q
  1. The cardiac output among the elderly at rest and during light exercise is nearly the same as in
    the young persons because ______.
    I. Aged hearts have a faster intrinsic rhythm
    II. This is partly due to cardiac hypertrophy with its resultant bigger end-diastolic volume
    III. Of the stiffer arteries among the elderly, end-systolic volume is also greater, increasing
    the tendency for pulmonary congestion
    a. I and III
    b. I only
    c. I and II
    d. II and II
16
Q
  1. In Romberg’s sign, the ___________________.
    I. Client stands with feet together and eyes open
    II. Sign is negative if the client sways and falls when the eyes closed
    III. Sign is positive if the client sways when the eyes are closed
    IV. Client stands with feet together and eyes closed
    V. Sign is positive if the client falls when the eyes are closed
    a. I and II
    b. II and IV
    c. III, IV, and V
    d. I, III, and IV
17
Q
  1. Bilateral vestibular deficits results in the following, EXCEPT:
    I. Postural instability
    II. Disequilibrium
    III. Oscillation
    IV. Skew deviation
    a. IV
    b. I
    c. II
    d. III
18
25. The following statements apply to Percussion and Vibration EXCEPT: a. Alterations in airway diameter and airflow may increase the viscosity of mucus, making percussion more effective in mobilizing secretions that are adherent to the bronchial walls. b. The exact mechanism of action of chest percussion is unknown, but there is some evidence that physical stimulation alters airflow and is associated with the release of pulmonary chemical mediators c. Recommended for the patient who is intubated and mechanically ventilated d. Recommended for patients with impaired cognition or poor coughing ability e. Used to enhance mucociliary clearance from both central and peripheral airways
A
19
27. Which of the following statements is true concerning vital capacity of client with restrictive lung disease? a. Above normal due to destruction of alveolar septa b. Above normal due to greater radial traction exerted on airway walls c. Below normal due to increased airway resistance d. Below normal due to reduced lung compliance
D
20
26. To facilitate scapular protraction, Bobath advocates positioning the hand I. Hands clasped II. Affected thumb is above the unaffected thumb III. Fingers interlaced IV. Fingers not interlaced V. Unaffected thumb is above the affected thumb a. IV and V only b. I and III only c. I, II, and III d. I, IV and V e. II, III and V
C
21
28. The oral cavity is normally heavily populated by microorganisms that can potentially harm the lungs. Which of the following effectively prevents translocation of these organisms to the lung substance? a. Stiffness of the lung substance b. Mucociliary excalator c. Swallowing reflex d. Esophageal peristalsis
BB
22
29.The height of a specific vertebrae may be used to determine landmarks. Which of the following are true? I. C2-level with hyoid bone II. C4-C5-level with thyroid cartilage III. T4-height of the manubrium and body of sternum IV. T12 body- tip of the xiphoid process V. L4 spinous process- level with the highest portion of the crest of the ilium VI. S2- height of posterior superior iliac spine a. I, II, III and IV b. II, IV, V and VI c. I, II, III and VI d. III, IV, V and VI e. II, III, V and VI
E
23
30. Reflex contraction of the agonist muscles results in patterns of inhibition of their antagonist muscles through what reflex? a.Stretch reflex b.Rebound phenomenon c.Crossed extensor reflex d.Lengthening reaction e.Reciprocal inhibition
E
24
31. Secretion removal techniques are an integral component of a pulmonary rehabilitation program. What is the simplest method to clear secretions from the upper airways? a. Positioning b. Vibration c. Percussion d. Cough
D