APK DAY 4

Question 1

1. What reflex results in the extension of the arm and leg on the face side and flexion of arm or leg on the skull side when the head is turned on one side?
   a. Positive support reaction
   b. Asymmetric tonic neck
   c. Neck righting
   d. Tonic labyrinthine

Answer 1

b. Asymmetric tonic neck

Question 2

2. Iron is best absorbed in the ___________:
   a. Ileum
   b. Colon
   c. Duodenum
   d. Jejunum

Answer 2

c. Duodenum

Question 3

4. An eleven-month-old child with cerebral palsy attempts to maintain a quadruped position. Which reflex would interfere with this activity if it did not integrate appropriately?
   a. Gallant reflex
   b. symmetrical tonic neck reflex
   c. positive support reflex
   d. plantar grasp reflex

Answer 3

b. symmetrical tonic neck reflex

Question 3

3. The following reflexes are at the brainstem level EXCEPT: _____________.
   a. Positive support reaction
   b. Labyrinthine righting
   c. Negative support reaction
   d. Asymmetric tonic neck

Answer 3

c?

Question 4

5. What reflex results in increased leg extensor tones when the client bounces on the sole of his feet several times?
   a. Moro
   b. Body Righting
   c. Negative Support Reaction
   d. Positive Support Reaction

Answer 4

D

Question 5

6. What condition is not likely to be seen in the perinatal period?

a. Slipped Cap Femoral Epiphysis.
b. Dislocated Hip.
c. Talipes Equinovarus.
d. Myelomeningocoele.

Answer 5

A

Question 6

7. The following statements apply to the surgical correction of hammer toe EXCEPT

a. it is most effective to fuse the PIP joint and balance soft tissues over the MTP joint in fixed deformities.
b. directed at reversing the MTP dorsiflexion and the PIP joint plantar flexion.
c. straighten both the proximal and the middle joints of the toe in flexible deformities.
d. in flexible deformities, it may be possible to adjust the tension on the flexor and extensor tendons.
e. it may be possible to shorten the proximal phalanx in flexible deformities.

Answer 6

D

Question 7

10. The modified-modified Schober technique is used in assessing lumbar range of motion.
    a. using a tape measure held directly over the spine between points 10 cm above the lumbosacral junction with the patient in the neutral standing position
    b. using an inclinometer located on the first lumbar vertebra
    c. using a double inclinometer wherein one is placed on the sacrum and the other on the first lumbar vertebra
    d. using two landmarks: a line interesting the line connecting the PSISs with the midline of the back and mark drawn 15 cm superiorly
    e. by marking a point 5 cm below and 10 cm superior to the lumbosacral junction

Answer 7

D

Question 8

8. The stability of the shoulder joint principally depends on the
   a. Capsule
   b. Muscles
   c. Tendons
   d. Bony configuration
   e. Ligaments

Answer 8

B

Question 9

9. The stability of the wrist joint principally depends on _________.
   a. Ligaments
   b. Intrinsic muscles of the hand
   c. Capsule
   d. Extrinsic muscles of the hand

Answer 9

A

Question 10

11. The MMS technique provides common landmarks uncommon with the Double Inclinometer methods. The use of the Posterior Superior Iliac Spines (PSISs) as the inferior landmark in the modified-modified Schober (MMS) technique in assessing the lumbar range of motion has the following advantages EXCEPT

a. that because no motion would be expected on the landmark, there is no need for an additional landmark 5 cm below.
b. that because the superior landmark is 15 cm above the inferior landmark of the line intersecting the line connecting the PSISs, this minimizes the error in identifying the first lumbar vertebra.
c. the landmark placed between midway between the PSISs is at the second sacral level.
d. the sacrum is an inflexible bone, making this landmark easily identifiable.
e. The MMS technique provides common landmarks uncommon with the Double Inclinometer methods

Answer 10

B

Question 11

12. This test will show if squeezing the calf muscle while the leg is extended ruptures the Achilles tendon.
    a. Thomas
    b. Lachman
    c. Thompson
    d. Apley
    e. Yergason

Answer 11

C

Question 12

13. This procedure tests for anteromedial band of anterior cruciate ligament, medial and lateral tibiomeniscal anterior portion of these capsular ligaments, anterior cruciate ligament, and posterior cruciate ligament.

a. External rotation/recurvatum test
b. Lachman’s test
c. Crossover test
d. Apley’s distraction test with internal rotation
e. Anterior drawer test

Answer 12

D

Question 13

14. Waddell’s nonorganic signs assess a patient’s pain behavior in response to certain maneuvers. Which of the following signs indicates a positive simulation test?

a. Marked improvement of straight leg raising on distraction as compared with formal testing
b. Disproportionate verbalization, facial expression muscle tension and tremor
c. Back pain is reported within the first 30 degrees when the pelvis and shoulders are passively rotated in the same plane as the patient stands.
d. Cogwheeling of many muscle groups that cannot be explained on a neurological basis.

Answer 13

C

Question 14

15. A therapist positions a client in sidelying and performs a talar tilt test. A positive talar tilt test indicates

a. Deltoid ligament injury
b. Excessive tibial torsion
c. Ligamentous instability
d. Muscular instability
e. Calcaneofibular ligament injury

Answer 14

E

Question 14

16. A therapist assesses the ligamentous integrity of a client’s knee by completing a series of special tests. The most accurate way to determine if the client’s ligamentous integrity is compromised is to

a. instruct the referring physician to order radiographs.
b. compare the ligamentous laxity to his family without knee pathology
c. compare the ligamentous laxity to other clients in the clinic without knee pathology.
d. compare the ligamentous laxity in the involved knee to the uninvolved knee.
e. compare the millimeters of ligamentous laxity to established norms.

Answer 14

D

Question 14

17. A patient is unable to complete full range of hip flexion against gravity. The most appropriate position to observe hip flexion with gravity eliminated is ________.
    a. Supine
    b. Half sitting
    c. Sitting
    d. Sidelying

Answer 14

D

Question 15

18. The following statements are true of straight leg raising test, EXCEPT

a. At the point where the patient experiences pain, lower the leg slightly and then dorsiflex the foot-if there is no pain, the pain induced is probably due to the sciatic nerve
b. The foot is lifted upward supporting the calcaneus, and with the knee remaining straight, raise the leg to the point of discomfort or pain
c. Designed to reproduce back and leg pain
d. If there is a positive reaction to the straight leg raising test and the foot dorsiflexion maneuver, the pain may be either in the lumbar spine or along the course of the sciatic nerve
e. The normal angle between the table and the leg measures approximately 80 degrees

Answer 15

A

Question 16

19. A patient is seen walking on the ball of the foot with the heel off the ground on one of his lower limbs. One can conclude that he has ________.
    a. Poliomyelitis
    b. Pes valgus
    c. Pes equines
    d. Genu varum

Answer 16

C

Question 17

22. The following are congenital etiology of cerebral palsy, EXCEPT: __________.
    a. Oxoplasmosis
    b. Syphilis
    c. Meningitis
    d. Rubella

Answer 17

C

Question 17

20. In trochanteric bursitis, ______.
    I. Pain and tenderness may develop in the lateral thigh, groin, and the gluteal areas.
    II. Results from friction between the femoral nerve and the greater trochanter.
    III. There is marked tenderness to superficial palpation immediately above or posterior to the greater trochanter
    IV. Treatment usually consists of rest, immobilization, and local heat
    V. There is immediate relief of pain after peritrochanteric injection with corticosteroid and local anaesthetic.
    a. I, III and V
    b. II, III and IV
    c. I, II and III
    d. I, IV and V

Answer 17

D

Question 18

21. In the anterior approach in total hip replacement, the position of maximal instability is
    I. Abduction
    II. Adduction
    III. external rotation
    IV. internal rotation
    V. circumduction
    a. I and IV
    b. I and III
    c. II and III
    d. II and IV

Answer 18

C

Question 19

23. The following describe the modified Thomas test, EXCEPT:

a. The other leg is positioned to extend off the edge of a treatment table far enough to allow the knee to bend freely.
b. The pelvis is placed in approximately 10 degrees of posterior tilt by flexion of one hip and knee toward the chest while lying supine
c. Hip ROM is considered normal if the patient has 10 degrees of femoral extension relative to the pelvis.
d. Hip ROM is considered normal if the patient has 80 degrees of knee flexion.
e. It only tests the ROM and the length of the one-joint hip flexor muscles.

Answer 19

E

Question 20

24. There is avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis in Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. The position/attitude of the hip joint in the different designs of orthoses indicated for this case include:
    a. Full extension
    b. Flexion
    c. Internal rotation
    d. Hyperabduction
    e. External rotation

Answer 20

C

Question 21

25. Abnormality in which chromosome causes majority of Down Syndrome cases? a. 21 b. 17 c. 23 d. 19

Answer 21

A

Question 22

27. A twelve-month-old child with cerebral palsy demonstrates an abnormal persistence of the positive support reflex. During therapy this would most mainly interfere with ______ activities. a. Standing b. Prone on elbows c. Supine d. Sitting

Answer 22

A

Question 22

26. These primitive reflexes are present at birth EXCEPT: a. Symmetric Tonic Neck Reflex b. Rooting c. Asymmetric Tonic Neck Reflex d. Moro

Answer 22

A

Question 23

31. The following statements apply to skeletal traction EXCEPT a. Lifting the weights releases traction causing violent muscle contractions and must be avoided b. Pin or wire used in used skeletal traction connects to a U-Shaped bow or caliper c. Direct pull on the bone stabilizes bone fragments in correct alignment increasing muscle spasms and the chance of secondary injuries at the fracture site d. Usually applied for extended periods, and using pins, wires or tongs, force is exerted directly on one or more bones e. Skull tongs are used for long-term thoracic fracture or for critical dislocation

Answer 23

C

Question 23

28. The avascular stage is the _______ stage of Legg Calves Perthes. a. Fourth b. Second c. First d. Third

Answer 23

C

Question 24

29. The following statements describe Down syndrome EXCEPT: a. In children 1-6 years of age, postural responses to loss of balance were slow and therefore inefficient for maintaining stability. b. Attainment of early motor milestones is thought to be delayed because of problems with ligamentous laxity in some joints, decreased strength, and hypotonia. c. The presence of monosynaptic reflex during platform perturbations suggested that balance problem do not result from hypotonia but from defects within higher-level postural control mechanisms. d. In 7-11 years of age group, those with Down syndrome scored equally in running speed, balance, strength and visual motor controls the group without. e. Deficits in eye-hand coordination, laterality, and visual control were present in older children.

Answer 24

D

Question 25

30. A therapist begins gait training on a patient three days status post cemented total hip replacement. What weight-bearing status would be the most appropriate for the patient? a. Non weight bearing b. weight bearing as tolerated c. partial weight bearing d. weight bearing with a 10 kg weight e. full weight bearing

Answer 25

C

Question 26

32. Hip and knee replacement clients are referred to rehabilitation on ______________. a. Second week b. Third and fifth day c. Third week d. Immediately after surgery

Answer 26

D

Question 27

33. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Osteochondritis Dissecans? a. More common among males b. Manifest with momentary locking in the joint due to the calcification of the soft tissues c. More common among females d. Usually occurs following a trauma

Answer 27

A

Question 28

34. Which of the following findings suggest a congenital hip dislocation in a newborn child? I. (+) Trendelenberg II. (+) barlow’s III. Adductor tightness IV. Limping gait a. III and IV b. I and II c. II, III, and IV d. II and III

Answer 28

D

Question 29

35. Malalignment syndrome of the knee is caused by __________. I. Hypermobility of the patella II. External tibial torsion III. Femoral anteversion IV. Oversupination a. II and IV b. I, II and III c. II, III and IV d. II only

Answer 29

B

Question 30

36. A therapist attempts to schedule a client for an additional therapy session after completing the initial examination. The physician referral indicates the client is to be seen two times a week. The therapist suggests several possible times to the client, but the client insists she can only come in on Wednesday at 4:30 pm. The therapist would like to accommodate the client, but already has two clients scheduled at that time. The most appropriate action is to: ___________. a. Inform the referring physician the client only will be seen once this week in therapy b. Schedule the client with another therapist on Wednesday at 4:30 pm. c. Attempt to move one of the client’s scheduled on Wednesday at 4:30 pm to a different time d. Schedule the client on Wednesday at 4:30 pm.

Answer 30

B

Question 31

37. Which is the point of reference for the Q angle? a. Anterior superior iliac spine b. Center of the patella c. Posterior inferior iliac spine d. Tibial tuberosity

Answer 31

B

Question 32

38. From the frontal plane, the neck of the femur has an anterior angle of 13-15 degrees. An increase in this angle, a factor in in-toeing, is called _______________. a. Retroversion b. Coxa vara c. Coxa valga d. Anteversion

Answer 32

D