APM PFQ Sample Exam

Question 1

Question 1
Which of the following is not a stage in an issue resolution process?
a. Share the issue with stakeholders.
b. Track the issue to closure.
c. Escalate to the sponsor.
d. Apply change control.

Answer 1

a. Share the issue with stakeholders.

Question 2

Question 2
Which of the following are challenges for a project manager developing and leading a project team?
1) Issues and incompatability amongst team members
2) Getting the right skills and attributes amongst team members
3) Co-location of team members in the same geographic area
4) Lack of accountability of team members
a. 1, 2 & 3
b. 1, 2 & 4
c. 1, 3 & 4
d. 2, 3 & 4

Answer 2

b. 1, 2 & 4

Question 3

Question 3
Which of the following is an activity in a typical change control process?
a. Recommendation.
b. Justification.
c. Planning.
d. Continuous improvement.

Answer 3

a. Recommendation.

Question 4

Question 4
The purpose of quality assurance is to:
a. provide confidence the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
b. determine a set of procedures and standards for project management.
c. inspect, measure and test deliverables and processes.
d. define the scope and specifics of a project’s deliverables.

Answer 4

a. provide confidence the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

Question 5

Question 5
A project manager might use a PESTLE analysis in order to:
a. mitigate all possible risks to the project.
b. identify and mitigate factors that may affect the project.
c. control technological change during the project.
d. consider team social roles in early stages of the project.

Answer 5

b. identify and mitigate factors that may affect the project.

Question 6

Question 6
Which of the following are phases in an iterative project life cycle?
1) Concept
2) Feasibility
3) Deployment
4) Development
a. 3 and 4 only
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 2, 3 and 4

Answer 6

d. 2, 3 and 4

Question 7

Question 7
Which of the following is the responsibility of a project manager?
a. Ensuring a project is aligned to the organisation’s strategy.
b. Focusing on project benefits and aligning priorities.
c. Achieving the project’s success criteria.
d. Improving process, tools and techniques used in a project.

Answer 7

c. Achieving the project’s success criteria.

Question 8

Question 8
To develop and establish a proper communication plan within a project, the project manager needs
to consider which type of analysis?
a. Budget.
b. Stakeholder.
c. Resource.
d. Schedule.

Answer 8

b. Stakeholder.

Question 9

Question 9
Which of the following is a responsibility of the project sponsor?
a. Creating a project cost breakdown structure.
b. Authoring the project management plan.
c. Creating a project work breakdown structure.
d. Owning the project business case.

Answer 9

d. Owning the project business case.

Question 10

Question 10
Portfolio management includes prioritising:
a. projects and/or programmes that contribute directly to the organisation’s strategic objectives.
b. projects with exceptionally high returns on investment.
c. projects and programmes over business as usual.
d. projects which maximise change over those which maximise investment.

Answer 10

a. projects and/or programmes that contribute directly to the organisation’s strategic objectives.

Question 11

Question 11
Which of the following actions would not help a team leader influence the performance of
their team?
a. Creating an exclusive environment.
b. Providing clear roles and responsibilities.
c. Promoting openness and honesty.
d. Developing a trusting relationship.

Answer 11

a. Creating an exclusive environment.

Question 12

Question 12
One difference between a project and business as usual is:
a. projects achieve specified benefits but business as usual has only vague benefits.
b. projects drive change whereas business as usual continues existing activities.
c. projects have tightly controlled budgets whereas business as usual does not.
d. projects have unclear deadlines but business as usual has multiple milestones.

Answer 12

b. projects drive change whereas business as usual continues existing activities.

Question 13

Question 13
The purpose of project progress reporting is to:
a. ensure a simpler critical path.
b. enable the tracking of project deliverables.
c. ensure stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.
d. provide an increased total float.

Answer 13

b. enable the tracking of project deliverables.

Question 14

Question 14
Which of the following is the purpose of an estimating funnel?
a. Keeping resource usage to a minimum to help reduce costs.
b. Supporting the production of comparative estimates.
c. Identifying where costs can be minimised when preparing a budget.
d. Representing increasing levels of estimating accuracy achieved through the life cycle.

Answer 14

d. Representing increasing levels of estimating accuracy achieved through the life cycle.

Question 15

Question 15
One advantage of virtual communications is:
a. that nonverbal signals can have an impact on discussions.
b. it’s easy to detect signs of conflict within the project team.
c. access to a wider resource pool for the project.
d. that the project team will always be co-located.

Answer 15

c. access to a wider resource pool for the project.

Question 16

Question 16
Which technique could be used by a project manager when resources are limited?
a. Resource aggregation.
b. Resource estimation.
c. Resource levelling.
d. Resource expansion.

Answer 16

c. Resource levelling.

Question 17

Question 17
The main aim of quality management is to:
a. prepare a high-quality management plan.
b. ensure that deliverables meet appropriate standards.
c. validate the use of consistent standards.
d. determine whether to accept change requests.

Answer 17

b. ensure that deliverables meet appropriate standards.

Question 18

Question 18
Which of the following is a purpose of issue management?
a. To stop issues occurring within the project.
b. To address and resolve the issues that occur.
c. To address and resolve uncertainty.
d. To reschedule activities to reduce costs.

Answer 18

b. To address and resolve the issues that occur.

Question 19

Question 19
Product breakdown structures illustrate the required scope of work by a hierarchical structure itemising the:
a. components of each product.
b. budget of each product.
c. benefits of each product.
d. risks of each product.

Answer 19

a. components of each product.

Question 20

Question 20
The definition of benefits management includes which key activities?
a. Planning, analysis and integration of project benefits.
b. Justification, validation and acceptance of project benefits.
c. Identification, tracking and realisation of project benefits.
d. Realisation, acceptance and integration of project benefits.

Answer 20

c. Identification, tracking and realisation of project benefits.

Question 21

Question 21
Which of the following statements about scheduling is false?
a. Defines the sequence of activities.
b. Considers work calendars and time contingency.
c. Provides a baseline for safety considerations.
d. Quantifies the required resources.

Answer 21

c. Provides a baseline for safety considerations.

Question 22

Question 22
Which of the following defines the term ‘deployment baseline’?
a. The starting point for creating a resource histogram.
b. The basis for creating an organisational breakdown structure.
c. The starting point for the monitoring of project risks.
d. The basis for progress monitoring.

Answer 22

d. The basis for progress monitoring.

Question 23

Question 23
Which of the following is an activity in a typical configuration management process?
a. Evaluation.
b. Identification.
c. Registration.
d. Justification.

Answer 23

b. Identification.

Question 24

Question 24
Stakeholder analysis supports effective stakeholder engagement by:
a. identifying stakeholders with high levels of power and interest.
b. ensuring stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.
c. justifying the preferred project option to stakeholders.
d. providing information to all stakeholders.

Answer 24

a. identifying stakeholders with high levels of power and interest.

Question 25

Question 25
Which of the following is a project?
a. Introducing a new information technology system.
b. Operating a national rail network.
c. Organising ongoing catering in the armed forces.
d. Managing day-to-day security for senior politicians.

Answer 25

a. Introducing a new information technology system.

Question 26

Question 26
One purpose of a typical project business case is to:
a. carry out earned value analysis.
b. allocate resources to the project.
c. analyse cost–benefit of the project.
d. plan project work packages.

Answer 26

c. analyse cost–benefit of the project.

Question 27

Question 27
One disadvantage of physical communication is:
a. its significant environmental impact when compared to other forms of communication.
b. that no audit trail is available for review at a later date by project team members.
c. it is reliant on technology being available to all relevant members of the project.
d. that your body language may not reflect what you’re saying when passing on information.

Answer 27

a. its significant environmental impact when compared to other forms of communication.

Question 28

Question 28
One of the benefits of developing communication plans in projects is that this ensures:
a. the power and influence of stakeholders is understood.
b. that all communication is delivered face to face.
c. your message is understood.
d. clear reporting lines for the project.

Answer 28

c. your message is understood.

Question 29

Question 29
A project life cycle which combines approaches from the linear and iterative life cycles is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ project life cycle.
a. a hybrid.
b. an extended.
c. a reduced.
d. a combined.

Answer 29

a. a hybrid.

Question 30

Question 30
The purpose of project management is to:
a. organise management plans.
b. keep all stakeholders happy.
c. control change initiatives.
d. effect beneficial change.

Answer 30

d. effect beneficial change.

Question 31

Question 31
Which of the following statements refers to how scope is managed in a linear project but not an iterative project?
a. Teams can act on new knowledge to change the scope.
b. Teams can re-prioritise requirements within the scope.
c. The scope of work is the starting point for the implementation of change control.
d. Scope definition is assumed to be fixed for the whole project.

Answer 31

d. Scope definition is assumed to be fixed for the whole project.

Question 32

Question 32
One difference between an issue and a risk is an issue:
a. must be recorded but a risk does not.
b. is an uncertain event but a risk is not.
c. is a certain event but a risk is not.
d. always affects scope but a risk does not.

Answer 32

c. is a certain event but a risk is not.

Question 33

Question 33
Communication includes:
1) exchanging information
2) managing stakeholders
3) confirming there is a shared understanding
4) building relationships within your team
a. 2 and 3 only
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 4 only

Answer 33

c. 1 and 3 only

Question 34

Question 34
A project manager requires a team member to focus on the team’s objectives and draw out other
team members. Which of the Belbin’s team roles is most appropriate?
a. Shaper.
b. Monitor evaluator.
c. Specialist.
d. Co-ordinator.

Answer 34

d. Co-ordinator.

Question 35

Question 35
An extended project life cycle can be defined as:
a. an approach that adds operational and termination phases to a linear life cycle.
b. an approach that adds adoption and benefits realisation phases to a linear life cycle.
c. a framework for conducting a cost–benefit analysis once a project has closed.
d. a framework for ensuring the re-deployment of assets post project.

Answer 35

b. an approach that adds adoption and benefits realisation phases to a linear life cycle.

Question 36

Question 36
One aspect of quality planning is to:
a. plan the audit of a project to provide assurance to the project board.
b. provide confidence that a project will achieve its objectives in the required time frame.
c. specify the acceptance criteria used to validate the outputs are fit for purpose.
d. confirm routes for reporting to ensure effective communication.

Answer 36

c. specify the acceptance criteria used to validate the outputs are fit for purpose.

Question 37

Question 37
Which of the following is not a key element of project scope management?
a. Define outputs.
b. Identify outputs.
c. Share outputs.
d. Control outputs.

Answer 37

c. Share outputs.

Question 38

Question 38
Which of the following is a difference between deployment baselines in linear life cycles and
iterative life cycles?
a. Linear project life cycles set the deployment baseline for the whole project.
b. In an iterative project life cycle the scope and quality are fixed in the deployment baseline.
c. Only deployment baselines in iterative life cycles have an integrated baseline review.
d. Only deployment baselines in linear life cycles have an integrated baseline review.

Answer 38

a. Linear project life cycles set the deployment baseline for the whole project.

Question 39

Question 39
Which of the following defines the term ‘risk’?
a. The potential of a situation or event to impact on the achievement of specific objectives.
b. A problem that is now or is about to breach delegated tolerances for work on a project or programme.
c. Scope creep within an uncontrolled project.
d. The use of estimation to determine costs, resources and activities.

Answer 39

a. The potential of a situation or event to impact on the achievement of specific objectives.

Question 40

Question 40
Suppliers are stakeholders of a project management plan because they:
a. contribute to the project’s procurement strategy.
b. help satisfy the project’s resource requirements.
c. provide acceptance certificates based on quality of resources supplied.
d. determine the quality requirements of goods supplied.

Answer 40

b. help satisfy the project’s resource requirements.

Question 41

Question 41
Which of the following defines the term ‘issue’?
a. A problem which is now or is about to breach delegated tolerances for work on a project or programme.
b. A problem which occurs on a day-to-day basis which could have an immediate impact on a project.
c. A problem which has the potential to impact on the achievement of specific project objectives.
d. A problem which can only be resolved by a project manager and within the project team.

Answer 41

a. A problem which is now or is about to breach delegated tolerances for work on a project or programme.

Question 42

Question 42
Which of the following define leadership?
1) Ability to establish vision and direction
2) Developing team skills that enhance project performance
3) Empowering and inspiring people to achieve success
4) Ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose
a. 1, 2 & 4
b. 1, 2 & 3
c. 2, 3 & 4
d. 1, 3 & 4

Answer 42

d. 1, 3 & 4

Question 43

Question 43
Which of the following are typical estimating methods?
1) Analytical
2) Budgeting
3) Analogous
4) Parametric
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4

Answer 43

c. 1, 3 and 4

Question 44

Question 44
Procurement strategy can be defined as the high-level approach for securing:
a. stakeholder engagement.
b. funding for the project.
c. buy in from the project sponsor.
d. goods and services required for the project.

Answer 44

d. goods and services required for the project.

Question 45

Question 45
Which of the following is not an output of a critical path analysis?
a. Total and free float.
b. Earliest start time and latest finish time of activities.
c. Project completion time.
d. Cost–benefit analysis.

Answer 45

d. Cost–benefit analysis.

Question 46

Question 46
A project manager would use a cost breakdown structure to produce:
a. the cost of a do-nothing option.
b. an analytical estimate.
c. high-level project costs.
d. a comparative estimate.

Answer 46

b. an analytical estimate.

Question 47

Question 47
Which of the following is the correct sequence for the stages of a linear project life cycle?
a. Deployment, Concept, Definition, Transition.
b. Concept, Transition, Definition, Deployment.
c. Concept, Definition, Deployment, Transition.
d. Transition, Definition, Deployment, Concept.

Answer 47

c. Concept, Definition, Deployment, Transition.

Question 48

Question 48
At which stage, in the Tuckman team development model, are team members clear and comfortable
with their roles and responsibilities, and the project manager starts to see signs of the team
working together?
a. Storming.
b. Forming.
c. Norming.
d. Performing.

Answer 48

c. Norming.

Question 49

Question 49
Which of the following is a definition of project management?
a. A complex process of supervising and managing the delivery of any time-bound deliverable.
b. Any change in management techniques in a company that achieves strategic objectives.
c. The application of processes, methods, knowledge, skills and experience to achieve specific objectives for change.
d. The coordination of several projects alongside business as usual.

Answer 49

c. The application of processes, methods, knowledge, skills and experience to achieve specific objectives for change.

Question 50

Question 50
Which of the following defines quality?
a. The fitness for purpose of outputs and processes.
b. The value for money of a product.
c. The satisfaction of the stakeholders.
d. The thoroughness of the management plan.

Answer 50

a. The fitness for purpose of outputs and processes.

Question 51

Question 51
Quality control verifies that:
a. the project follows appropriate processes.
b. project outputs are delivered on time.
c. the project follows appropriate governance.
d. project outputs meet acceptance criteria.

Answer 51

d. project outputs meet acceptance criteria.

Question 52

Question 52
The purpose of a decision gate is to decide whether:
a. the response to a risk is valid.
b. a project is viable in line with the business case.
c. the project delivered against the success criteria.
d. lessons were effectively learned during the project.

Answer 52

b. a project is viable in line with the business case.

Question 53

Question 53
Establishing success criteria is important at the start of the project, as they:
a. indicate how the stakeholder needs will be met.
b. ensure adequate resource allocation.
c. indicate what is important in supplier selection.
d. ensure comprehensive risk analysis.

Answer 53

a. indicate how the stakeholder needs will be met.

Question 54

Question 54
One purpose of risk management is to:
a. adapt the plan to resolve problems.
b. minimise threats and maximise opportunities.
c. continually improve the project teams’ efficiency.
d. manage variations in a controlled way.

Answer 54

b. minimise threats and maximise opportunities.

Question 55

Question 55
Which of the following is an activity in a typical risk management process?
a. Verification.
b. Request.
c. Closure.
d. Justification.

Answer 55

c. Closure.

Question 56

Question 56
When an item goes through change control, which of the following must happen as part of a robust
configuration management process?
a. Costs associated with the change are evaluated and documented.
b. Risks associated with the change are monitored to avoid delays to the project.
c. The item is approved or declined in line with stakeholder expectations.
d. Documents are updated to include any approved changes.

Answer 56

d. Documents are updated to include any approved changes.

Question 57

Question 57
The purpose of a risk register is to provide a:
a. structured process for risk identification.
b. record of the ownership of risk and issue management actions.
c. means of assessing the likelihood and impact of all of the risks.
d. record of risks, their impact and the actions taken to manage them.

Answer 57

d. record of risks, their impact and the actions taken to manage them.

Question 58

Question 58
Which of the following is a part of change control?
a. Requests for change are realised.
b. Requests for change are mitigated.
c. Requests for change are evaluated.
d. Requests for change are resolved.

Answer 58

c. Requests for change are evaluated.

Question 59

Question 59
The primary purpose of a milestone in a project is to show:
a. significant events.
b. resource constraints.
c. task dependencies.
d. critical path highlights.

Answer 59

a. significant events.

Question 60

Question 60
Which of the following can be adjusted during a time box?
1) Scope
2) Resource
3) Time
4) Quality
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 2 and 4 only

Answer 60

b. 1 and 4 only