APMQ Study Guide Quizzes

Question 1

PESTLE analysis covers the following areas:
A Political, Economic, Sociological, Technical, Legal,
Environmental.
B Personnel, Economic, Safety, Technical, Legal,
Ecological.
C Political, Ecological, Strategy, Technical, Life cycle,
Environmental.
D Personnel, Ecological, Sociological, Training, Life
cycle, Ecological.

Answer 1

A Political, Economic, Sociological, Technical, Legal, Environmental.

Question 2

Which of the following best describes a project’s context?
A The environment in which the business operates.
B The geographic location in which the project is
undertaken.
C The external and internal business environments,
including stakeholder’s interests and influences.
D Industry and business sector practices.

Answer 2

C The external and internal business environments, including stakeholder’s interests and influences

Question 3

When managing the internal context, the project manager
should especially be aware of:
A organisational strategy, policies and frameworks.
B competitive positioning.
C new legislation.
D business continuity.

Answer 3

A organisational strategy, policies and frameworks.

Question 4

To be fully effective, the project manager:
A must take into consideration the internal and external
environments.
B need only deal with the internal environment since the
sponsor will deal with the external environment.
C should manage the external stakeholders and external
environment.
D must liaise with regulating bodies to ensure
requirements include the latest legislation.

Answer 4

A must take into consideration the internal and external environments.

Question 5

Which type of projects needs to consider environmental
constraints?
A Construction projects only.
B Construction and petrochemical projects only.
C All but IT projects.
D All projects.

Answer 5

D All projects.

Question 6

What is the main purpose of SWOT analysis?
A Evaluate the returns that each project may yield and
which option is most favourable.
B Provide an established framework for systematically
assessing project options.
C Consider which project can be completed in the
shortest duration.
D Provide an established framework to examine the
many different factors affecting an organisation and
the project.

Answer 6

B Provide an established framework for systematically assessing project options.

Question 7

A potential change in national government considered
using a PESTLE analysis would be an example of a:
A political factor.
B economic factor.
C sociological factor.
D potential change of government would not be
considered in such an analysis.

Answer 7

A political factor.

Question 8

What does the term VUCA relate to?
A Viability, uncertainty, complexity, acceptance.
B Validate, users, criticality, acceptance.
C Volatility, uncertainty, complexity, ambiguity.
D Variation, unique, consideration, analysis.

Answer 8

C Volatility, uncertainty, complexity, ambiguity.

Question 9

Why might planning need to be carried out under VUCA
conditions?
A The new capabilities resulting from a project or programme need to be evaluated in a comprehensive
way.
B The value the project is planning to deliver is very uncertain to cost and analyse.
C There needs to be evidence that the deliverable will meet the full needs of the intended user.
D There is inherent uncertainty that makes it difficult to predict and plan with great accuracy.

Answer 9

D There is inherent uncertainty that makes it difficult to predict and plan with great accuracy.

Question 10

When carrying out a VUCA analysis of project options,
which factors need to be considered to identify risks in
each option?
A Current knowledge, available data and level of
confidence in outcome.
B Expertise of current project team and amount of
available equipment.
C Amount of flexibility in the project budget and the
degree of estimating accuracy.
D VUCA analysis will not identify risks in project options.

Answer 10

A Current knowledge, available data and level of confidence in outcome.

Question 11

Which of the following is a characteristic of a project rather
than BAU?
A Sustain the organisation to achieve its business
purpose and goals.
B Repetitive, non-unique product service or result.
C Formal line authority over functional unit personnel.
D Achieve objectives then terminate.

Answer 11

D Achieve objectives then terminate.

Question 12

Which one of the following is a consideration of project
management?
A Making sure that operational management objectives
are maintained as projects are delivered.
B Planning and executing effective communications
within a project.
C Measuring business benefits of projects to ensure that
in retrospect they have been a worthwhile
consideration.
D Setting the organisation’s standards for excellence in
project delivery.

Answer 12

B Planning and executing effective communications within a project.

Question 13

Which of the following illustrates why project management
is the most efficient way of managing change?
A It provides recommendations for the organisation to
follow for employing a consultancy firm who specialise
in change management.
B It provides a profile of the skills required when
employing project managers.
C It ensures that the head of the organisation will always
be accountable for achieving the benefits of all
projects undertaken by that organisation.
D It utilises resources as and when required under the
direction of a manager with single-point responsibility.

Answer 13

D It utilises resources as and when required under the direction of a manager with single-point responsibility.

Question 14

Which of the following is not a characteristic of businessas-
usual?
A Recruitment of new project managers.
B Operating new production machinery.
C Training of operations staff to become more safety aware.
D Introducing change.

Answer 14

D Introducing change.

Question 15

When delivering a project, the project manager must
balance which of the following constraints?
A Configuration and delivery.
B Time, cost and quality.
C Cost, scope and change.
D Budget, cost and risk.

Answer 15

B Time, cost and quality.

Question 16

Programme management could be defined as:
A the line management of a team of programme
managers.
B the managing of a functional area of the business
serving several different projects.
C management of a programme of activities identified in
the project schedule.
D management of a group of projects with a common
business aim.

Answer 16

D management of a group of projects with a common business aim.

Question 17

One of the key benefits of programme management is that:
A it enables every project to be covered by one allembracing
plan.
B it reduces the need to assign priorities to individual
projects within the programme.
C dependencies and interfaces between projects can be
managed to greater business advantage.
D management time can be saved by grouping projects
together under a single distinct programme.

Answer 17

C dependencies and interfaces between projects can be managed to greater business advantage.

Question 18

Which of the following is a key part of programme
management?
A Benefits management.
B Network analysis.
C Work breakdown structures.
D Operations management.

Answer 18

A Benefits management.

Question 19

Portfolio management could be defined as:
A a group of projects brought together to form a strategic
programme.
B the development of expertise and competency
throughout the whole organisation.
C the strategic business plan that is developed to
achieve organisational goals.
D selection and management of an organisation’s
projects and programmes.

Answer 19

D selection and management of an organisation’s projects and programmes.

Question 20

Which of the following would best justify the
implementation of portfolio management?
A When more projects that the organisation delivers
need to be delivered on time and on budget.
B The organisation needs to have a stronger focus on
realising the benefits from the projects that it delivers.
C Where there is a need for the organisation’s projects
and programmes to be more aligned with its key
business objectives.
D When there is a significant one-off project that needs
to be delivered that is critical to the organisations
business continuity

Answer 20

C Where there is a need for the organisation’s projects and programmes to be more aligned with its key business objectives.

Question 21

What is the main reason why organisations may need to
consider a specific structure to deliver projects?
A Project management cuts across functional
boundaries.
B Project managers are unable to function within
traditional departments.
C There are not enough functional areas within most
organisations.
D The functional structure needs to be changed to a
project structure.

Answer 21

A Project management cuts across functional boundaries

Question 22

What is a major strength of the functional structure to
deliver a project?
A Once the project is completed people leave the
organisation and are then replaced.
B It ensures that the project is visible to the whole
organisation.
C People with technical skills are delivering projects
requiring those skills.
D It is very much focused on the project.

Answer 22

C People with technical skills are delivering projects requiring those skills.

Question 23

Which structure achieves greatest flexibility in the use of
human resources?
A Functional.
B Project.
C Matrix.
D Departmental.

Answer 23

B Project.

Question 24

In which structure would the project manager’s authority be
lesser than the functional manager’s?
A Functional.
B Departmental.
C Technical.
D Matrix.

Answer 24

A Functional.

Question 25

What is one of the most important risks an organisation
may face when using a product structure?
A When the project is completed there may not be
another project ready at that time to absorb the surplus
resources that now exist.
B When the project is completed that part of the
organisation may cease to exist and the people not
reintegrated into BAU.
C When the project is completed individuals may leave
the project en masse and the organisation will lose accumulated learning.
D When the project is completed individuals may return
to BAU and lose the chance to work together on another equally challenging project.C When the project is completed individuals may leave the project en masse and the organisation will lose accumulated learning.

Answer 25

C When the project is completed individuals may leave the project en masse and the organisation will lose accumulated learning.

Question 26

In a matrix structure who is ultimately responsible for delivering the project benefits?
A Line manager.
B Project manager.
C Project sponsor.
D Functional manager.

Answer 26

A Projects may have their own service functions apart from BAU.

Question 27

Which feature of a project structure may make it an
effective choice for project delivery?
A Projects may have their own service functions apart from BAU.
B Projects have very strong links and free access to BAU resources.
C Team members report to different managers for different aspects of their work.
D The head of a BAU functional area will take responsibility for work in that area.

Answer 27

A Projects may have their own service functions apart from BAU.

Question 28

One commonly cited disadvantage of the matrix structure
is:
A it makes the project visible to the whole organisation,
which impacts confidentiality and trust.
B individuals moving from project to project become the
norm and so reduce overall motivation and morale.
C once individuals complete their work on the project,
they are returned to BAU even though they wish to
continue working on the project.
D individuals can experience a conflict of reporting
between line management and project management.

Answer 28

D individuals can experience a conflict of reporting between line management and project management.

Question 29

For a very high-value, highly complex project, scheduled to
take a number of years to complete, the most likely
structure suitable to deliver such an initiative would be:
A project – because a project of this nature would need
lots of BAU support ensuring that resources switched
focus to this key initiative rather than day-to-day tasks.
B matrix – because due to its high complexity it would
need a pool of suitable resources and a mix of
technical specialists to become dedicated to this
initiative.
C project – because it would need clear project
management processes, roles and responsibilities so
that teams become technically proficient.
D functional – because this is the only way the project
could be passed from department to department,
utilising the skills and expertise already available.

Answer 29

C project – because it would need clear project management processes, roles and responsibilities so that teams become technically proficient.

Question 30

A structure where the project manager and the functional
managers share responsibility for assigning priorities and
for directing the work would be best described as a:
A strong functional structure.
B matrix structure.
C balanced project structure.
D functional BAU structure.

Answer 30

B matrix structure.

Question 31

Which of the following statements about the role of project
sponsor is false?
A A project sponsor is an advocate for the project and
the change it brings about.
B A project sponsor writes and owns the project
management plan.
C A project sponsor is able to work across functional
boundaries within an organisation.
D A project sponsor is prepared to commit sufficient time
and effort to support the project.

Answer 31

B A project sponsor writes and owns the project management plan.

Question 32

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the
project sponsor?
A Monitoring progress and use of the project resources.
B Analysing the project team’s productivity.
C Ensuring the benefits of the project are realised.
D Planning project evaluation reviews for lessons
learned.

Answer 32

C Ensuring the benefits of the project are realised.

Question 33

What is a key role of the project manager?
A Coordinating the development of the project
management plan.
B Conducting benefits realisation reviews.
C Reviewing progress against success criteria and
checking that the planned business benefits will be
achieved.
D Authorising any changes to the business case.

Answer 33

A Coordinating the development of the project management plan.

Question 34

The group whose remit is to set the strategic direction of a
project is commonly known as:
A the project management team.
B primary users.
C steering group.
D suppliers.

Answer 34

C steering group.

Question 35

Which stakeholders are likely to form the main part of a
project steering group/board?
A Project sponsor, project manager and quality manager.
B Corporate management, project sponsor, quality
manager, project office.
C Sponsor, supplier representative, user representative.
D Sponsor, project manager and senior project team
members.

Answer 35

C Sponsor, supplier representative, user representative.

Question 36

Who in the project is responsible for benefits realisation?
A The senior management of the organisation.
B The project manager.
C The sponsor.
D The end users.

Answer 36

C The sponsor.

Question 37

Which of the following roles is primarily responsible for
defining goals and creating vision for the operability of the
project’s outputs?
A Project sponsor.
B Product owner.
C User.
D Business case owner.

Answer 37

B Product owner.

Question 38

When the majority of PMO functions are delivered under
the control of the project/programme/portfolio manager, this
could be described as a:
A central PMO.
B embedded PMO.
C hub and spoke PMO.
D matrix PMO.

Answer 38

B embedded PMO.

Question 39

When effectively implemented, what is one of the key roles
of governance?
A Provide confidence that the business case is the best
option for the current circumstances and that there will
be no changes as the project is being delivered.
B Provide confidence that the plans that have been
developed will guarantee that the project will be
delivered on time and to budget.
C Provide confidence to all stakeholders that projects are
being well managed and the most appropriate financial
and technical controls are being exerted.
D Provide confidence to all project team members that
their jobs are secure at least from the period of the
project start to the handover.

Answer 39

C Provide confidence to all stakeholders that projects are being well managed and the most appropriate financial and technical controls are being exerted.

Question 40

Governance could best be defined as:
A the framework of authority and accountability that
defines and controls the outputs, outcomes and
benefits from projects, programmes and portfolios.
B the framework that structures a review of the project
and aids a decision to be made whether to continue
with the next phase or stage of the project.
C the framework that is used for selection, prioritisation
and control of an organisation’s projects and
programmes in line with its strategic objectives and
capacity to deliver.
D the framework used by the organisation and approved
by the project board at project initiation that allows the
definition of the terms of reference for the project.

Answer 40

A the framework of authority and accountability that defines and controls the outputs, outcomes and benefits from projects, programmes and portfolios.

Question 41

Which of the following best describes a project’s business
case?
A The definition of why the project is required and the
desired benefits.
B A statement of what the project will deliver in terms of
products/deliverables.
C The reason why the project sponsor wants the project
to proceed.
D A statement as to how the project fits into the long
term aims of the project sponsor.

Answer 41

A The definition of why the project is required and the desired benefits.

Question 42

What information would be expected as content for a
business case?
A A detailed schedule of the project.
B An outline of the project management team.
C An outline of the estimated costs of implementing the project.
D A detailed breakdown of the scope of the project.

Answer 42

C An outline of the estimated costs of implementing the project.

Question 43

Which of the following statements about the business case
is true?
A The business case should always be referred to
throughout the project.
B The business case once written will never change.
C The business case becomes the project manager’s
responsibility once the project is in the implementation
phase.
D The business case contains key information on how
the project will be performed.

Answer 43

A The business case should always be referred to throughout the project.

Question 44

The responsibility for development and production of the
business case rests primarily with:
A the project manager.
B jointly shared between the project manager and project sponsor.
C the project sponsor.
D the project steering group/committee.

Answer 44

C the project sponsor.

Question 45

Which of the following would not be considered as part of
the business case?
A Safety plan for the project.
B Implementation options.
C Stakeholder identification.
D Business benefits.

Answer 45

A Safety plan for the project.

Question 46

What is the importance of having a business case?
A It allows the sponsor to use the document as a baseline to calculate project slippage.
B It provides an overview of the project team performance at each stage of delivery.
C It shows how the project manager is performing in delivering the project.
D It allows the sponsor to decide on project continuity when used at gate reviews.

Answer 46

D It allows the sponsor to decide on project continuity when used at gate reviews.

Question 47

Which one of the following does not describe the prime
purpose of the business case?
A It defines the strategic direction for the project.
B It describes the operational impact of project delivery.
C It shows how the project tasks will be scheduled to
achieve the success criteria.
D It documents the benefits of the various options that
have been considered.

Answer 47

C It shows how the project tasks will be scheduled to achieve the success criteria.

Question 48

Which of the following is most true of the business case?
A It provides details of the overarching approach to be
taken to move from the current to a future desirable
state using a coordinated and structured approach.
B It evaluates the benefit, cost and risk of alternative
project options and provides a rationale for the
preferred solution.
C It demonstrates the relationship between the costs of
undertaking a project, initial and recurrent, and the
benefits likely to arise from the changed situation,
initially and recurrently.
D It describes each major element in the work
breakdown structure (WBS), describing the work
content, resources required, the time frame of the work
element and a cost estimate.

Answer 48

C It demonstrates the relationship between the costs of undertaking a project, initial and recurrent, and the benefits likely to arise from the changed situation, initially and recurrently.

Question 49

How does having a business case help an organisation?
A It provides a documented account of the decisions that
have been made and by whom in the planning of the
project’s finances, ensuring the projects compliance
with recognised governance standards.
B It provides an overview of how the project will deliver
the scheduled progress over the period agreed
between the project manager, sponsor and other key
stakeholders associated with the project.
C It provides a means by which the sponsor can monitor
the project manager’s performance in relation to the
plans documented in the business case and highlight
points at which a change of project manager may be
necessary.
D It provides a recognised framework by which project
spending proposals can be recorded, reviewed and
audited to learn lessons about how efficiently the
organisation is deploying funds to achieve its targeted
returns.

Answer 49

D It provides a recognised framework by which project spending proposals can be recorded, reviewed and audited to learn lessons about how efficiently the organisation is deploying funds to achieve its targeted returns.

Question 50

The monetary value used to judge the value of an
investment at a particular discount rate is termed:
A net present value.
B internal rate of return.
C cost benefit analysis.
D residual profit.

Answer 50

A net present value.

Question 51

Which of the following is true regarding differences
between linear and iterative life cycles?
A A linear life cycle is best for evolving projects, whereas
an iterative life cycle is better for more structured
projects.
B A linear life cycle is sequential, whereas an iterative
life cycle repeats one or more phases.
C A linear life cycle is always longer in duration, whereas
an iterative life cycle is always shorter in its duration.
D A linear life cycle is formally managed by a dedicated
project manager, whereas management responsibility
is shared in an iterative life cycle.

Answer 51

B A linear life cycle is sequential, whereas an iterative life cycle repeats one or more phases.

Question 52

A generic linear project life cycle might include the
sequence:
A definition, concept, design, implementation, transition.
B concept, definition, deployment, transition.
C planning, deployment, closing, learning, review.
D feasibility, planning, deployment, handover, review.

Answer 52

B concept, definition, deployment, transition.

Question 53

One of the main purposes of dividing a project into life
cycle phases is to:
A break the work into controllable blocks in terms of
effort and size.
B ensure the processes are properly maintained.
C ensure that the workforce is certain of their individual
roles.
D provide a means of producing overall project cost
estimates.

Answer 53

A break the work into controllable blocks in terms of effort and size.

Question 54

The primary purpose of a gate review is to:
A decide if the project is on schedule and within budget.
B decide if the project manager and team are performing
well.
C decide whether to continue with the project.
D decide if stakeholders are satisfied.

Answer 54

C decide whether to continue with the project.

Question 55

Which of the following might be a probable cause of early
project closure?
A The cost to complete the project is greater than the
value achieved so far.
B The project is on schedule but spent less than
expected.
C The project is expected to yield greater value than
stated in the business case.
D The project manager has resigned and an immediate
replacement is unavailable.

Answer 55

A The cost to complete the project is greater than the value achieved so far.

Question 56

Which one of the following statements about the project life
cycle is true?
A The phases in the project life cycle are always the
same size.
B The same processes are used in each of the project
life cycle phases.
C The project life cycle has a number of distinct phases.
D The project budget is divided equally between each
phase of the project life cycle.

Answer 56

B The same processes are used in each of the project life cycle phases

Question 57

What might be the most probable reason for a project to
close early?
A A formal gate review has just been performed.
B Stakeholders have asked for a post-project review
report.
C The project team must attend some formal project
management training.
D The project is no longer aligned to business strategy

Answer 57

D The project is no longer aligned to business strategy

Question 58

Which of the following best describes the sequence of an
iterative life cycle?
A Definition, concept, evolutionary development,
implementation, transition.
B Feasibility, foundations, evolutionary development,
deployment.
C Planning, deployment, closing, learning, review.
D Feasibility, planning, deployment, handover, review.

Answer 58

B Feasibility, foundations, evolutionary development, deployment.

Question 59

One benefit of a gate review process is:
A it allows learning from one phase of the project to be
passed on to the next phase.
B it stops projects that no longer meet the organisation’s
needs.
C it allows procurement to be planned into the project life
cycle.
D it allows the project team to plan delivery of the next
phase.

Answer 59

B it stops projects that no longer meet the organisation’s needs.

Question 60

Which one of the following would best describe a postproject
review?
A It is a personal appraisal for each team member on
completion of the project.
B It appraises the products of the project.
C It considers all aspects of the management of the
project.
D It involves only the project implementation team.

Answer 60

C It considers all aspects of the management of the project.

Question 61

A project stakeholder could best be described as:
A a member of the sponsoring organisation’s board of
directors.
B a key player who is seeking to maximise control over
the project outcome.
C a person or group who has an interest in or is
impacted by the project.
D a project team member who has the skills necessary
to deliver the project.

Answer 61

C a person or group who has an interest in or is impacted by the project.

Question 62

Stakeholder analysis considers three aspects for each
stakeholder, which are:
A their interest in the project, whether or not they can
influence the project and whether their attitude to the
project is for or against.
B their level of technical knowledge, whether or not they
are able to act as sponsor and if they are available.
C experience, position in the organisational hierarchy
and number of resources managed.
D their interest in the project, whether or not they are a
member of the steering group and if they are likely to
resist changes.

Answer 62

A their interest in the project, whether or not they can influence the project and whether their attitude to the project is for or against.

Question 63

An example of an external stakeholder group could be:
A users.
B a governmental regulatory body.
C functional managers within the sponsoring organisation.
D the project team members.

Answer 63

B a governmental regulatory body.

Question 64

One benefit of stakeholder analysis is that:
A the communication plan becomes unnecessary.
B the stakeholders who oppose the project the most can
be ‘cut off’ to reduce their negative influence.
C the communication requirements for each stakeholder
can be established.
D the stakeholders can be removed from any of the
decisions that are being planned.

Answer 64

C the communication requirements for each stakeholder can be established

Question 65

Understanding who stakeholders are and their needs is a
key duty of:
A the quality manager.
B the key users.
C the project manager.
D the business sponsor.

Answer 65

C the project manager.

Question 66

One of the main objectives of stakeholder engagement is
to establish stakeholder:
A interests.
B expectations.
C influence.
D involvement.

Answer 66

D involvement.

Question 67

What rule of thumb can be used for ensuring that key
stakeholders have been included in the process?
A Make use of widely available templates and predefined
structures to ensure a complete spectrum of
stakeholders are identified.
B Ask the most influential stakeholders to identify who
else they think should be involved in the project.
C Analyse other projects and who their stakeholders are
and include them by default.
D Question whose support or lack of it might significantly
influence the success of the project.

Answer 67

D Question whose support or lack of it might significantly influence the success of the project.

Question 68

What is the most likely reason a stakeholder may object to
the project?
A They have a lack of interest in what the project is
trying to achieve as they feel it doesn’t really affect
them.
B They haven’t been involved in choosing what they
believe to be a suitable project manager from the
candidates available.
C They have misunderstood what the project is trying to
achieve and have had very little communication from
the project.
D They are a stakeholder in another project and don’t
have the time currently, to perform the stakeholder
role.

Answer 68

C They have misunderstood what the project is trying to achieve and have had very little communication from the project.

Question 69

What is one of the most important aspects to establish
about a stakeholder’s interest in the project?
A If it is positive or negative.
B If it is regular or intermittent.
C If it is influenced by the project.
D If it is influenced by other stakeholders.

Answer 69

A If it is positive or negative.

Question 70

What is essential for ensuring the level of stakeholder
engagement is maintained throughout the delivery of the
project?
A Stakeholders communicate to each other.
B The project management plan is established.
C An effective communication plan is used.
D All stakeholders are treated equally.

Answer 70

C An effective communication plan is used.

Question 71

A project management plan could best be described as:
A an activity on arrow network.
B a Gantt chart.
C a plan for the programme.
D an overall plan for the project.

Answer 71

D an overall plan for the project.

Question 72

You have been asked to assist in the development of a
project management plan for the project. As a minimum
what should this plan include?
A A summary of the project acceptance criteria.
B CVs of all the team members.
C Details of previous similar projects.
D Resourcing details for quality reviews.

Answer 72

A A summary of the project acceptance criteria.

Question 73

During the consideration of when and how the
development of the project management plan should take
place, the objectives of carrying out such an exercise can
often appear to be uncertain. As a recommendation the
project management plan should be:
A assembled when all information is available.
B developed iteratively throughout the early stages of the project.
C completed in detail before the project is authorised.
D free from detailed schedule information.

Answer 73

B developed iteratively throughout the early stages of the project.

Question 74

To effectively manage the project the range of
documentation may appear to be extensive. However, the
document that captures the why, what, where, when, how,
how much and who for the project is called:
A project schedule.
B project definition and delivery report.
C end of feasibility report.
D project management plan.

Answer 74

D project management plan.

Question 75

Which one of the following statements about the project
management plan (PMP) is considered to be the most
important condition of compliance to ensure an effective
plan is produced:
A the project team should not contribute to the writing of
the PMP.
B the PMP should be agreed and signed off by both the
sponsor and the project manager as a minimum.
C the sponsor should maintain ownership of the PMP.
D the PMP is necessary for effective stakeholder
engagement.

Answer 75

B the PMP should be agreed and signed off by both the sponsor and the project manager as a minimum.

Question 76

Which of the following would be considered as the main
purpose of a project management plan?
A To provide a documented account of the outcomes of
the planning process.
B To enable agreement between the project sponsor and
project manager with regard to project budget,
resource requirements and timescale.
C To provide a record of how the project was planned for
archiving in the organisation’s lessons learned.
D To identify and record the projects intended financial
spend over the period of project delivery.

Answer 76

B To enable agreement between the project sponsor and project manager with regard to project budget, resource requirements and timescale.

Question 77

What is the agreed reference point that is communicated to
stakeholders prior to any work being started?
A Verified work breakdown structure.
B Deployment baseline.
C Configuration record.
D Business case.

Answer 77

B Deployment baseline.

Question 78

Why is it important to produce a project management plan?
A It shows the benefits expected at the close of the
project and the specific stakeholders who are involved.
B It provides justification for undertaking the project and
provides a rationale for the preferred solution.
C It sets and clarifies the expectations of all stakeholders
who are involved in the project delivery.
D It identifies and establishes the most appropriate
means of procuring the component parts or services
for the project being delivered.

Answer 78

C It sets and clarifies the expectations of all stakeholders who are involved in the project delivery.

Question 79

When in the project life cycle should the deployment
baseline be formed?
A Deployment phase.
B Concept phase.
C Definition phase.
D Transition phase.

Answer 79

C Definition phase.

Question 80

What information would you not expect to see in a project
management plan?
A Quality management plan.
B Financial feasibility analysis.
C Risk management plan.
D Details of scope.

Answer 80

B Financial feasibility analysis.

Question 81

Three general categories for interpretation of
communication could be described as:
A email, paper, voice.
B tactile/visual, auditory, written.
C telephone, computer, microphone.
D reception, transmission, interruption.

Answer 81

B tactile/visual, auditory, written.

Question 82

To ensure communication is most likely to be effective in
the project, the project manager should:
A ensure that everyone is copied on all emails.
B insist on a lower level of paper documents.
C train project staff in the most up-to-date communication techniques.
D develop a communication plan.

Answer 82

D develop a communication plan.

Question 83

Successful project communications will most likely occur
when:
A the project sponsor takes responsibility for planning all
stakeholder communication from the outset.
B email is the primary method used in order to get
information to stakeholders in a speedy and efficient
manner.
C a standard project communication format for reports is
used to provide feedback to stakeholders.
D the different communication needs of each stakeholder
group are most fully understood.

Answer 83

D the different communication needs of each stakeholder group are most fully understood.

Question 84

What is likely to be a benefit to a project of having a
communication plan?
A The project is more likely to finish on time.
B There will be greater adherence to the organisation’s
governance and standards.
C The project will be less susceptible to uncontrolled
change.
D There will be more focus on what benefits the project
will be delivering.

Answer 84

C The project will be less susceptible to uncontrolled change.

Question 85

What action can lead to more consistent communication in
the project?
A Only transmitting information that stakeholders have
requested ensuring that any excess information is kept
to a minimum.
B Communication is carried out en masse ensuring that
all stakeholders get all information.
C Communication is planned in advance and all
messages delivered use the approved framework.
D Communicating information on a one-way basis
reducing the need for stakeholders to waste their time
providing feedback.

Answer 85

C Communication is planned in advance and all messages delivered use the approved framework.

Question 86

One way that communication could be improved in the
project is to:
A ensure that free-flowing feedback channels are
planned into the communication structure.
B ensure that communication is carried out as much as
possible, transmitting as much information as possible.
C target only those stakeholders who seem to show a
valid interest in the project.
D avoid planning communication too much so that
messages are not seen as rigid and complex.

Answer 86

A ensure that free-flowing feedback channels are planned into the communication structure.

Question 87

What is a factor that is important when communicating as
part of stakeholder engagement?
A Planned communication will help to establish the level
of interest and power a stakeholder is likely to
possess.
B Planned communication will increase the number of
stakeholders who are likely to have an interest in the
project.
C Planned communication will reduce the power of
stakeholders who are likely to have an interest in the
project.
D Planned communication is likely to reduce the number
of valid stakeholders who have an interest in the
project.

Answer 87

A Planned communication will help to establish the level of interest and power a stakeholder is likely to possess.

Question 88

What could be considered a significant barrier to
communication?
A Use of body language.
B Having formal meetings.
C Attitudes, emotions and prejudices.
D Use of informal communication channels.

Answer 88

C Attitudes, emotions and prejudices.

Question 89

If planning a meeting likely to be attended by stakeholders
with widely different knowledge and experience, what
practical proactive measure could the project manager take
to reduce the impact of communication barriers?
A Ensure that the meeting room was reserved for a
longer period than normal.
B Have a number of meetings where some would be
technical and some non-technical.
C Aim for a common level of discussion avoiding highly
technical discussions.
D Ensure that a glossary of technical terms was made
available in advance.

Answer 89

D Ensure that a glossary of technical terms was made available in advance.

Question 90

What might be considered a disadvantage of virtual
communication?
A Digital communication links never seem to work as required.
B Communication being misunderstood.
C There is no method for providing feedback.
D This method of communication tends to be time consuming.

Answer 90

B Communication being misunderstood.

Question 91

While providing support to the project and attending a risk
management workshop the following statements were
noted. Which one of these could be considered as a risk to
a project?
A We have never done a project of this kind before.
B We might not have sufficient people with the right
experience to undertake the project.
C We always find that design verification takes longer
than planned.
D We have never worked in that country before.

Answer 91

B We might not have sufficient people with the right experience to undertake the project.

Question 92

On examining a particular risk in the project there is some
uncertainty amongst the project team of how important this
risk is to the project. How would you advise the team on
how the significance of the risk is to be determined?
A By assessing its probability of occurrence.
B By assessing its impact on project objectives.
C By assessing both its probability of occurrence and its
impact on project objectives.
D By assessing its effect on the business case.

Answer 92

C By assessing both its probability of occurrence and its impact on project objectives.

Question 93

What is the main benefit of using a risk register in the
project?
A It records risks, their impact and the responses being
adopted.
B It records risk ownership and how issues are being
managed.
C It assesses the impact and probability of risks taking
place.
D It directs the team in how the management of risk in
the project should be conducted.

Answer 93

A It records risks, their impact and the responses being adopted.

Question 94

A member of your team has described being involved in a
risk event. Which one of the following would best describe
such an event?
A An action or set of actions to reduce the probability or
impact of a threat or to increase the probability or
impact of an opportunity.
B The plan of the response to risks.
C An uncertain event or set of circumstances that if
realised would influence project objectives.
D A risk identification workshop.

Answer 94

C An uncertain event or set of circumstances that if realised would influence project objectives.

Question 95

Which one of the following statements about project risk is
true?
A Risk is always beneficial to the project.
B Risk is neither beneficial nor detrimental to the project.
C Risk can be beneficial or detrimental to the project.
D Risk is always detrimental to the project.

Answer 95

C Risk can be beneficial or detrimental to the project.

Question 96

A typical risk management process would follow the steps:
A identification, assessment, planning, response.
B assessment, analysis, management, response.
C assessment, planning, managing, response.
D identification, planning, response, managing.

Answer 96

A identification, assessment, planning, response.

Question 97

Who would be typically described as the person or
organisation best placed to deal with a risk?
A Risk manager.
B Sponsor.
C Project sponsor.
D Risk owner.

Answer 97

D Risk owner.

Question 98

As part of the risk management process the capture of
threats and opportunities to the project objectives are
referred to as:
A risk assessment.
B risk avoidance.
C risk exposure.
D risk identification.

Answer 98

D risk identification.

Question 99

Which one of the following would be expected to form the
main part of a risk assessment?
A Deciding on the approach to project risk management.
B Evaluating the risk in terms of severity and relative
importance.
C Deciding on how to respond to the risk and who should
implement the response.
D Deciding if the risk is a threat or opportunity.

Answer 99

B Evaluating the risk in terms of severity and relative importance.

Question 100

The implementation of risk management on a project
requires a cost allocation from the project budget. Which
statement describes the most representative return from
such an investment?
A A benefit to the project if potential opportunities are
realised.
B The cost of dealing with a risk should it occur is usually
greater than the cost of managing that risk.
C Risk management in the project facilitates team
building.
D It allows the organisation to assure stakeholders of
project compliance with regard to risk management.

Answer 100

B The cost of dealing with a risk should it occur is usually greater than the cost of managing that risk.

Question 101

How is ‘quality’ best defined?
A The process of evaluating overall project performance
on a regular basis to provide confidence that the
project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.
B The fitness for purpose or the degree of conformance
of the outputs of a process or the process itself to
requirements.
C A discipline for ensuring the outputs, benefits and the
processes by which they are delivered, meet
stakeholder requirements and are fit for purpose.
D The satisfaction of stakeholder needs measured by the
success criteria as identified and agreed at the start of
the project.

Answer 101

B The fitness for purpose or the degree of conformance of the outputs of a process or the process itself to requirements

Question 102

While carrying out quality management for the project you
have been assigned the task of determining the quality
standards that are applicable and how they should apply.
Which part of quality management would best describe this
activity?
A Quality planning.
B Quality assurance.
C Total quality.
D Quality control.

Answer 102

A Quality planning.

Question 103

To be considered effective, how should quality
management be used in the project?
A To ensure compliance.
B To ensure quality standards are met.
C To ensure the required process needs of stakeholders
are met.
D To ensure both the project outputs and the processes
meet the required needs of stakeholders.

Answer 103

D To ensure both the project outputs and the processes meet the required needs of stakeholders.

Question 104

During project deployment which process will provide
confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality
standards?
A Quality assurance for the project.
B Strategic Business Planning for Quality (SBPQ).
C Total quality planning.
D Total quality management (TQM).

Answer 104

A Quality assurance for the project.

Question 105

What is the most likely result of providing effective quality
management in the project?
A The project outputs will have been delivered.
B Conformance to the outputs and processes will result
in a fit-for-purpose product.
C The project management plan will have been followed.
D Customer expectations will have been exceeded with
both outputs and processes.

Answer 105

B Conformance to the outputs and processes will result in a fit-for-purpose product.

Question 106

You have been asked to review the project’s quality
management plan and in particular the elements of the
plan most relevant to quality control. Which one of the
following will be your primary focus for consideration?
A The development of a strategy for the management of
quality in the project.
B Supplying the client with evidence of control to ISO
9000:2000.
C A review of whether underlying processes and ways of
working are leading towards product deliverables of
the right quality.
D The agreed methods of inspection, measurement and
testing to verify that the project outputs meet
acceptance criteria defined during quality planning.

Answer 106

D The agreed methods of inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria defined during quality planning.

Question 107

What would be the most direct symptom of poor quality in
the project?
A The project not using compliant management
processes.
B The customer refusing to take delivery of the finished
product.
C The failure of a quality assurance audit.
D The project finishing over budget.

Answer 107

B The customer refusing to take delivery of the finished product.

Question 108

The characteristics of a product that determine whether it
meets certain requirements are known as the:
A product criteria.
B acceptance criteria.
C quality criteria.
D success criteria.

Answer 108

C quality criteria.

Question 109

The question “Is the project actually following the
processes and procedures as set out in the quality plan”
would be answered by?
A Quality alignment.
B Quality control.
C Quality assurance.
D Quality improvement.

Answer 109

C Quality assurance.

Question 110

Which of the following provides the project manager with a
formal overview of project quality?
A Design reviews.
B Project definition reports.
C Quality audits.
D Historical experience.

Answer 110

C Quality audits.

Question 111

Procurement could best be described as:
A an outline of the deliverables required by the project.
B a process by which the resources required by the
project are acquired.
C an outline of the resources required for the project.
D a definition of who should be the best supplier of
goods to the project.

Answer 111

B a process by which the resources required by the project are acquired.

Question 112

Preparation of contracts, selection and acquisition of
suppliers and management of the contracts would be items
recorded in the:
A responsibility matrix.
B work breakdown structure.
C business case.
D procurement strategy.

Answer 112

D procurement strategy.

Question 113

One key principle a project manager should follow when
carrying out procurement is to:
A ensure the same suppliers are used in each project to
maintain consistency.
B always use the supplier who will offer the lowest price.
C always bring in specialist help for support.
D always use an objective process when selecting
suppliers.

Answer 113

D always use an objective process when selecting suppliers.

Question 114

Which of the following would best describe a contract?
A An agreement made between two or more parties that
creates legally binding obligations between them.
B An invitation for a supplier to tender at the lowest
price.
C A stage or work package carried out by a chosen
supplier.
D An accepted completed work package.

Answer 114

A An agreement made between two or more parties that creates legally binding obligations between them.

Question 115

Consideration of the organisation’s internal capacity in
terms of skills, functions and capabilities would be most
relevant in what situation?
A To identify the most suitable supplier from a tender list.
B To verify a suitable warranty is supplied with goods.
C Considering a make or buy decision.
D Considering the operational use of goods or services.

Answer 115

C Considering a make or buy decision.

Question 116

What are the implications of deciding on a single supplier
route?
A Only one supplier has bid for the work in response to
an ITT.
B One supplier will be chosen to supply all the
requirements for a particular commodity to the project.
C A supplier will not sub-contract any of the work to
others.
D The project will be guaranteed to deliver on time and
on budget.

Answer 116

B One supplier will be chosen to supply all the requirements for a particular commodity to the project.

Question 117

A situation where a member of the supplier organisation is
sitting in the project team alongside those who are actually
delivering the project must mean that:
A there is a particularly competitive marketplace for that
supplier.
B a contract is not yet agreed and signed; when this
happens the supplier will return to their own site.
C there is a distinct lack of trust between customer and
supplier in the project.
D an integrated supply route has been chosen as part of
the procurement strategy.

Answer 117

D an integrated supply route has been chosen as part of the procurement strategy.

Question 118

What is the best way of avoiding supply disruption?
A Choose a multiple supply route rather than single.
B Build up very large stocks of inventory.
C Get written guarantees from suppliers.
D Pay more for the commodity upfront to gain more
favour when goods are in short supply

Answer 118

A Choose a multiple supply route rather than single.

Question 119

Which of the following is true with regard to a time and
materials contract?
A The customer experiences high level of price/cost control risk.
B The customer experiences low level of price/cost control risk.
C The customer experiences high level of technical and schedule performance risk.
D The customer experiences both high level of price/cost control risk and technical, schedule performance risk.

Answer 119

A The customer experiences high level of price/cost control risk.

Question 120

What are the missing steps? A supplier selection process
could be: research, ___, tender, ___, manage, close.
A review, contract.
B purchase, select.
C pre-qualification, award.
D agree, deliver.

Answer 120

A review, contract.

Question 121

What aspect is important to clarify when conducting scope
definition?
A The number of products contained in the PBS.
B The boundaries and interfaces with adjacent projects.
C Who is going to perform the work.
D When the work is going to be performed.

Answer 121

B The boundaries and interfaces with adjacent projects.

Question 122

How are outputs best described?
A The changed circumstances or behaviour that results
from their use.
B The work packages developed in the WBS for the
project.
C The realisation of benefits at the end of the project.
D The tangible or intangible products typically delivered
by a project.

Answer 122

D The tangible or intangible products typically delivered by a project.

Question 123

The combination of which two structures creates the
responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)?
A OBS and CBS.
B OBS and WBS.
C PBS and CBS.
D WBS and CBS.

Answer 123

D WBS and CBS.

Question 124

The purpose of using the MoSCoW technique in
requirements management is to:
A ensure that must have requirements are given the top
priority for delivery.
B identify the scope of the project at a deeper level.
C ensure that all stakeholders get what they want from
the project.
D highlight when areas of the project will be delivered.

Answer 124

A ensure that must have requirements are given the top priority for delivery.

Question 125

If using an Agile methodology what actions might be
necessary for ‘could have’ and ‘should have’ requirements?
A They need to be given a special priority to ensure that
they are definitely delivered.
B They should have the best resources allocated to
ensure they are most efficiently delivered.
C The project could be extended if the delivery of these
requirements were proving more difficult than
expected.
D They would be sacrificed if at any time the project was
predicted to go over budget or be late.

Answer 125

D They would be sacrificed if at any time the project was predicted to go over budget or be late.

Question 126

How is it determined if a deliverable conforms to its
requirements and configuration information?
A A configuration management plan is produced.
B A configuration identification reference is allocated to
the deliverable.
C A configuration verification audit is performed.
D A status accounting report is produced.

Answer 126

C A configuration verification audit is performed.

Question 127

A key output of a well-controlled configuration management
process is:
A documented traceability between versions of each
configuration item.
B that the project is most likely to meet its success
criteria.
C documented evidence of all project changes:
proposed, authorised, rejected or deferred.
D an agreed point after which no further changes to
scope will be considered.

Answer 127

A documented traceability between versions of each configuration item.

Question 128

Configuration management could best be described as:
A the process through which all requests to change the
approved baseline of a project are captured, evaluated
and then approved, rejected or deferred.
B the system to ensure that all changes to configuration
items are controlled and the interrelationships between
items is identified.
C the technical and administrative activities concerned
with the creation, maintenance, controlled change and
quality control of the scope of work.
D a report of the current status and history of all changes
to the configuration, together with a complete record of
what has happened to the configuration to date.

Answer 128

C the technical and administrative activities concerned with the creation, maintenance, controlled change and quality control of the scope of work.

Question 129

What is the main reason for an initial high-level review of a
change request?
A To consider if the change is feasible to evaluate at this
stage.
B To establish who might be the best stakeholders to be
involved in the change.
C To ensure that the change request is considered as
soon as possible.
D To implement the necessary actions to ensure the
change has a smooth implementation.

Answer 129

A To consider if the change is feasible to evaluate at this stage.

Question 130

Managing change requests in a controlled way enables
stakeholders to:
A understand the implications of variations on the forecasted outcomes of the work.
B reduce the amount of individual change requests that are received from stakeholders.
C increase the speed at which the decisions to change are made and then implemented into the project.
D allow stakeholders to quickly decide on which change requests to control less and fast track.

Answer 130

A understand the implications of variations on the forecasted outcomes of the work.

Question 131

Which one of the following statements is true about work
that is delegated by the project manager to key team
members?
A The project manager would no longer control the work.
B The work must be approved by senior line
management.
C It does not reduce the project manager’s accountability
for that work.
D It can be carried out without recourse to other on-going
project work.

Answer 131

C It does not reduce the project manager’s accountability for that work.

Question 132

In order to build an effective team, the project manager
should:
A organise ‘off-site’ team building events.
B focus on team selection techniques.
C ensure that the team are situated at the same site.
D clearly define roles and responsibilities.

Answer 132

D clearly define roles and responsibilities.

Question 133

Which one of the following characteristics would best
describe an effective team?
A A group of specialist individuals working on key tasks
within the project.
B A number of people working on both business-asusual
activities and project work.
C A number of people working collaboratively towards
the same goal.
D A group of people working on a number of different
projects within the organisation.

Answer 133

C A number of people working collaboratively towards the same goal.

Question 134

Which one of the following aspects would be most
important for the project manager to consider in their
approach to building and maintaining a team?
A Let new team members find their own level within the
team.
B Provide focus by cutting links with departments during
the project.
C Ensure the effective induction of new members to the
team.
D Try to ensure that all team members have a similar
personality.

Answer 134

C Ensure the effective induction of new members to the team.

Question 135

A leader who ensures that requirements are agreed and
that the rewards and penalties for achievement, or lack of
it, are understood, could be described as a:
A transformational leader.
B hierarchical leader.
C situational leader.
D transactional leader.

Answer 135

D transactional leader.

Question 136

Which one of the following would best describe the most
effective leadership ability?
A The ability to provide inspiration and empowerment to team members.
B The ability to have a thorough technical expertise of aspects of the project.
C The ability to communicate clear objectives to team members.
D The ability to be flexible and sensitive to each individual team member’s needs.

Answer 136

A The ability to provide inspiration and empowerment to team members.

Question 137

What is the key purpose of leadership?
A Provide ongoing support and personal development to
individual team members.
B Develop the technical strategy to achieving business
objectives.
C Establish vision and direction, to influence and align
others towards a common purpose.
D Establish and maintain control over how the project
team performs tasks.

Answer 137

C Establish vision and direction, to influence and align others towards a common purpose.

Question 138

What aspect can cause a team to move from ‘Performing’
to ‘Forming’ (i.e. backwards)?
A Change.
B Risk.
C Delegation.
D Monitoring and control.

Answer 138

A Change.

Question 139

According to McGregor if a person was assumed to be not
motivated and disliked working, they would be referred to
as a:
A theory Y.
B theory X.
C hygiene factor.
D safety risk.

Answer 139

B theory X.

Question 140

What can be a challenge when leading virtual teams?
A Each team member is usually in a different time zone
and so cannot have simultaneous discussions with
other team members.
B Individual skills are more difficult to assess in a virtual
environment.
C It is more difficult to build deep relationships and trust
virtually than in person.
D It is difficult to identify how much attention each team
member is paying to the task being discussed.

Answer 140

C It is more difficult to build deep relationships and trust virtually than in person

Question 141

What aspect of the project will have greatest influence on
the estimating method being used?
A The point in the life cycle where the estimate is being
carried out.
B The overall budgeted value of the project being
estimated.
C Whether the project is likely to proceed or not.
D The amount of acceptable estimating tolerance that
exists.

Answer 141

A The point in the life cycle where the estimate is being carried out.

Question 142

What is the prime advantage of using a parametric
estimating method?
A Accuracy.
B Ability to deal with detailed information.
C Independence from historic data.
D Speed.

Answer 142

A Accuracy.

Question 143

Which of the following statements about estimating is true?
A Post-project reviews are a prime source of estimating
data.
B An estimated cost for a project must be within +/− 10
per cent to be of any use.
C If you cannot estimate task durations within 20 per
cent there is no point in developing a schedule.
D The project manager should always add 10 per cent to
other people’s duration estimates to allow for natural
optimism.

Answer 143

A Post-project reviews are a prime source of estimating data.

Question 144

The project you are working on has chosen to produce an
estimate by use of a detailed work breakdown structure
(WBS). What estimating method is this approach
commonly known as?
A Comparative estimating.
B Bottom-up/analytical estimating.
C Strategic estimating.
D Parametric estimating.

Answer 144

B Bottom-up/analytical estimating

Question 145

The concept that describes how estimating accuracy
changes through the project life cycle is termed:
A estimating risk.
B estimating funnel.
C normal values.
D parametric estimating.

Answer 145

B estimating funnel.

Question 146

What is the estimating method that uses data of a similar
project as the basis for the estimate?
A Evaluative estimating.
B Risk-based estimating.
C Analogous estimating.
D Analytical estimating.

Answer 146

C Analogous estimating.

Question 147

When the project progresses through the life cycle, which
one of the following aspects would be expected to occur?
A Accuracy of the estimate reduces and the level of
contingency requirement increases.
B Accuracy of the estimate increases and the level of
contingency requirement reduces.
C The accuracy and level of contingency requirement
both increase.
D The accuracy and level of contingency requirement
both reduce.

Answer 147

B Accuracy of the estimate increases and the level of contingency requirement reduces.

Question 148

What is one of the main characteristics of the Delphi
method of estimating?
A The individual group members use a statistical
relationship between historic data and other variables
to calculate an estimate.
B The task of producing the estimates will be delegated
to those who are actually going to deliver the individual
pieces of work or work packages.
C The individual group members, who are tasked with
providing the estimates, do this in isolation from each
other.
D The individual group members identify the optimistic,
likely and pessimistic values and then calculate a
mean value.

Answer 148

C The individual group members, who are tasked with providing the estimates, do this in isolation from each other

Question 149

What is a likely benefit of re-estimating throughout the
project life cycle?
A The project will be much more economically viable.
B The business case is justified to a greater degree.
C Overall project duration is reduced.
D Reduction in contingency reserves are achieved.

Answer 149

D Reduction in contingency reserves are achieved.

Question 150

What estimating method is most commonly used in the
definition phase of the project life cycle?
A Analogous.
B Analytical.
C Parametric.
D Delphi.

Answer 150

B Analytical.

Question 151

The critical path on a project network is:
A the shortest path in duration through the network.
B the path with the most float.
C the path with the most activities on it.
D the longest path in duration through the network.

Answer 151

D the longest path in duration through the network.

Question 152

SKIP CANT ADD PICTURE
The critical path in the network diagram shown below is:
A A C E F
B A B D F
C A C D F
D A B E F

Answer 152

B A B D F

Question 153

SKIP CANT ADD PICTURE
In the above network diagram, which of the activities have
total float?
A C and E.
B B and D.
C A only.
D E only.

Answer 153

A C and E.

Question 154

SKIP CANT ADD PICTURE
The diagram below shows the relationship between task A
and task B. According to this diagram the dependency
shown is an example of:
A Finish to start.
B Finish to finish.
C Start to finish.
D Start to start.

Answer 154

B Finish to finish.

Question 155

Which of the following best describes the concept of total
float?
A The value of the earliest finish of an activity subtracted
from the latest finish of the previous activity.
B The value of the latest finish of an activity subtracted
from the earliest start of the same activity.
C The amount an activity can slip without affecting the
overall duration of the project.
D The amount an activity can slip without affecting the
start of the next activity.

Answer 155

C The amount an activity can slip without affecting the overall duration of the project.

Question 156

In a situation where time becomes more important than
cost the project manager should first attempt to:
A remove resources from critical tasks.
B perform time-limited scheduling (smoothing).
C redefine the critical path.
D perform resource-limited smoothing (levelling).

Answer 156

B perform time-limited scheduling (smoothing).

Question 157

To maintain the scheduled duration when resources are
limited, resource levelling should firstly attempt to:
A never exceed pre-determined end date.
B schedule activities within the limits of their float.
C extend the activity duration.
D minimise the use of overtime.

Answer 157

B schedule activities within the limits of their float.

Question 158

SKIP CANT ADD PICTURE

Question 159

SKIP CANT ADD PICTURE

Question 160

SKIP CANT ADD PICTURE
Which of the possible actions would be considered the best
application of resource smoothing?
A Double the amount of resources applied to activity B,
reducing its duration to 1 day.
B Delay activity F to start on day 5 and finish on day 7,
reducing to 1 resource per day.
C Extend the overall schedule duration by 3 days and
start the project on day 3.
D Double the amount of resources applied to activity E,
reducing its duration to 1 day.

Answer 160

B Delay activity F to start on day 5 and finish on day 7, reducing to 1 resource per day.

Question 161

If the total number of resources available is limited to 6 per
day, what would be the most efficient way to deal with this
constraint?
A Increase the project budget to acquire additional
resources.
B Extend the overall project duration by 3 days.
C Move activity B and F to the extent of their float.
D Move activity F only to day 5.

Answer 161

D Move activity F only to day 5.

Question 162

If resource levelling was being considered to be applied to
the schedule, which activities would be initially considered
for this technique?
A All activities would be considered.
B Activities B and F would be initially considered.
C Activities A, C, D, E and G would be initially
considered.
D There is not enough information provided to make
such a decision.

Answer 162

B Activities B and F would be initially considered.

Question 163

In general terms what is the most likely reason for conflict
to arise in the project?
A Projects mostly employ contractor project managers
and so there is constant change of leadership in the
project.
B There are lots of tasks to be completed and members
of the project team must be forced to meet critical
deadlines even though they are thought to be
unrealistic.
C Everyone in the project is jostling for position and it is
only the strongest that survive.
D There are differing opinions and/or opposing interests
between stakeholders that matter to the people
involved and are not easily reconciled.

Answer 163

D There are differing opinions and/or opposing interests between stakeholders that matter to the people involved and are not easily reconciled.

Question 164

A common model for helping to manage conflict considers
what two dimensions?
A The desire to achieve your own objectives; the desire
for others to achieve their objectives.
B The amount of knowledge you have; the amount of
knowledge others have.
C The time available in your own situation; time available
in others’ situations.
D The amount of power you have; the amount of power
they have.

Answer 164

A The desire to achieve your own objectives; the desire for others to achieve their objectives.

Question 165

Which of the following is likely to be most effective in a
conflict situation?
A Bypassing the source of conflict.
B Use of structural power.
C Exploring differences.
D Offering a financial incentive.

Answer 165

C Exploring differences.

Question 166

Which of the following is true about conflict management?
A An effective project manager should seek to eliminate
conflict.
B All conflict should be avoided and so lessen impact on
the team’s performance.
C Levels of conflict can vary throughout the project life
cycle.
D Levels of conflict are the same throughout the project
life cycle.

Answer 166

C Levels of conflict can vary throughout the project life cycle.

Question 167

When might competing be an appropriate approach to
resolve conflict?
A When quick decisive action is vital.
B When it is important to reach an integrative solution.
C When an issue is trivial.
D When a better position should be allowed to be heard.

Answer 167

A When quick decisive action is vital.

Question 168

‘Splitting the difference’ is an example of which conflict
management approach?
A Accommodating.
B Collaborating.
C Competing.
D Compromising.

Answer 168

D Compromising.

Question 169

In which circumstances is conflict most likely to occur?
A When work starts on the deployment phase.
B When parties work together for the first time.
C When the business case is being approved.
D When the project management plan is being created.

Answer 169

B When parties work together for the first time.

Question 170

When should the project manager start implementing a
conflict management approach?
A Once all suggestions have been presented by the team.
B When one or more team members lose credibility with others.
C Once the project manager’s power base has been established.
D As soon as conflict appears evident.

Answer 170

D As soon as conflict appears evident.

Question 171

Why is conflict likely in a project environment?
A Team members know that the project will end at some
point and so are naturally anxious about their future
careers.
B Team members lack any familiarity with what the
project is actually delivering and so are fearful of
discussing any aspect of the project with others.
C Team members have varying degrees of influence and
they may not be in agreement with each other.
D Team members lack trust in the project manager and
so challenge every decision that is made.

Answer 171

C Team members have varying degrees of influence and they may not be in agreement with each other.

Question 172

What skill is important for the project manager to have if
they are to manage conflict successfully?
A Listening.
B Controlling.
C Empowering.
D Managing.

Answer 172

A Listening.

Question 173

Which of the following is true with regard to planning for a
negotiation?
A It is very difficult to plan for a negotiation until the
negotiation has started and the parties get to know
each other’s wants and needs.
B If too much time is spent on planning the negotiation,
the time for the negotiation to take place will be
markedly reduced.
C The more time and effort devoted to the planning of a
negotiation, the higher the likelihood of a desirable
outcome.
D The most effective planning technique is to plan while
actually doing the negotiation in order to be most
flexible to the situation.

Answer 173

C The more time and effort devoted to the planning of a negotiation, the higher the likelihood of a desirable outcome.

Question 174

What is the significance of BATNA for the parties
negotiating?
A It shows which party has most control.
B It signals the end of the negotiation.
C It defines the zone of possible agreement (ZOPA).
D It means that there is unlikely to be a deal.

Answer 174

C It defines the zone of possible agreement (ZOPA).

Question 175

Which area of the project is most likely to require formal
negotiations to be necessary?
A Scheduling project activities.
B Acquisition of goods and services for the project.
C Monitoring and controlling project activity.
D Implementing configuration management.Which area of the project is most likely to require formal negotiations to be necessary?

Answer 175

B Acquisition of goods and services for the project.

Question 176

Which essential task should be carried out at the end of a
negotiation?
A Taking note of the names of the participants.
B Arranging follow-up meetings.
C Recording all agreements and commitments made so far.
D Reviewing the capacity of the project to accommodate the terms agreed.

Answer 176

C Recording all agreements and commitments made so far.

Question 177

The foundation of a win-win outcome for a negotiation is:
A the amount of power that one party has gained over another regardless of the final outcome that has been agreed.
B the time it takes for each party to recover any losses as a result of the negotiation terms and agreement reached.
C the relative value that one party has achieved in relation to the terms that have been achieved as a result.
D how each party feels about how the relationship has developed and the resulting levels of trust that have been created.

Answer 177

D how each party feels about how the relationship has developed and the resulting levels of trust that have been created.

Question 178

What is most important for a negotiator to understand
about their concessions?
A The cost to give the concession and the value to the other party.
B What concessions are likely to be offered by the other party.
C How the other party will hide their concessions.
D The number of concessions that might need to be offered.

Answer 178

A The cost to give the concession and the value to the other party.

Question 179

The first concessions traded should be:
A low cost, high value.
B high cost, low value.
C low cost, low value.
D high cost, high value.

Answer 179

C low cost, low value.

Question 180

BATNA is:
A best agreement and no agreement.
B best alternative to a negotiated agreement.
C broad arrangements for terms in agreement.
D build, achieve, trade, negotiate, analyse.

Answer 180

B best alternative to a negotiated agreement.

Question 181

What is essential for the project manager to be aware of
when negotiating?
A They must recognise the limits of their authority and
experience in contractual situations and should seek
support from their procurement or legal specialists.
B They must ensure that a negotiated agreement occurs
even though the terms may not be the most
favourable.
C They should focus the negotiation on not giving any
concessions at all costs, otherwise it will be
considered a failed negotiation.
D They need to always ensure that the negotiation
occurs in a neutral environment, otherwise they will
feel disadvantaged from the start.

Answer 181

A They must recognise the limits of their authority and experience in contractual situations and should seek support from their procurement or legal specialists.

Question 182

Which of the following could be the best example of a
concession?
A Buy one get one free.
B A large discount offered early on.
C Storage of goods on the supplier’s site until needed.
D Making sure that the supplier pays for lunch.

Answer 182

C Storage of goods on the supplier’s site until needed.

Question 183

The prime role of a project information management
system is to:
A provide information to the sponsor as and when
required.
B make decisions about control and coordination of the
project.
C report on all detailed aspects of the project.
D support the decision-making process.

Answer 183

D support the decision-making process.

Question 184

Project reporting is for the benefit of:
A the project manager.
B the project sponsor.
C the project management team.
D the project support office.

Answer 184

C the project management team.

Question 185

The project manager will be expected to produce reports
containing which of the following information:
A progress against schedule, expenditure against budget
and performance against quality plan.
B feasibility of the project options currently being
delivered.
C business case progress and the risks that will have an
impact on its achievement.
D how benefits are going to be realised once the project
has been delivered.

Answer 185

A progress against schedule, expenditure against budget and performance against quality plan.

Question 186

The main purpose of project reporting is to ensure that:
A the same information is sent to all stakeholders.
B the project uses the methods of communication
required by the sponsor.
C the project communicates to stakeholders in the most
effective way possible.
D the project complies with the organisation’s information
management policies.

Answer 186

C the project communicates to stakeholders in the most effective way possible.

Question 187

What is the primary function of knowledge management?
A To develop processes to audit the project to assess
the level of knowledge required by the project delivery
team.
B To ensure that everyone working in the project is
assessed to establish their current knowledge levels.
C To ensure that everyone in the project is trained to the
maximum knowledge levels possible.
D To develop processes, tools and techniques to build
existing knowledge as organisational assets.

Answer 187

D To develop processes, tools and techniques to build existing knowledge as organisational assets

Question 188

When in the project would it be most likely for archiving of
project documentation to take place?
A After a baseline plan has been created.
B During project closeout.
C When the scope has been verified by the users.
D After completion of each phase of the project.

Answer 188

B During project closeout

Question 189

In a typical information management system what part of
the process follows storage?
A Dissemination.
B Destruction.
C Curation.
D Archiving.

Answer 189

C Curation.

Question 190

In a typical information management system what part of
the process makes decisions about the management of the
data?
A Dissemination.
B Destruction.
C Curation.
D Archiving.

Answer 190

C Curation.

Question 191

How should the project manager avoid the ‘send to all’
syndrome?
A Only send information to those stakeholders who have
specifically asked for it.
B Avoid sending information to most stakeholders.
C Reduce the amount of information to a bare minimum.
D Ensure that there is sufficient interaction between
information management and communication
planning.

Answer 191

D Ensure that there is sufficient interaction between information management and communication planning.

Question 192

What must the project manager consider most when
planning the destruction of information?
A That information should be destroyed but a master
copy must always be kept on file.
B That destruction occurs in line with legislative
compliance.
C There is no need to destroy information after a fiveyear
period.
D That information stored on digital media doesn’t need
to be destroyed.

Answer 192

B That destruction occurs in line with legislative compliance.

Question 193

What is one of the main reasons that a project manager
would use earned value?
A It is the optimal way of ensuring that activities are
scheduled efficiently to deliver the project
requirements.
B It shows where requirements have not yet been
identified and so areas of the project that could be
susceptible to high levels of change.
C It is the optimal way of tracking actual work achieved,
compared to how much it has cost to deliver that work.
D It identifies where quality deficits are likely to occur
throughout the delivery of the project.

Answer 193

C It is the optimal way of tracking actual work achieved, compared to how much it has cost to deliver that work.

Question 194

How is earned value represented in the project?
A The actual cost of the work that has been completed at
the point in time that is being measured.
B The actual budgeted value of the work that has been
completed at the point in time that is being measured.
C The budgeted value of the work that has been
scheduled to be completed at the point in time that is
being measured.
D The number of days of work that has been expended
at the point in time that is being measured.

Answer 194

B The actual budgeted value of the work that has been completed at the point in time that is being measured

Question 195

How is cost performance measured in earned value terms?
A The actual number of tasks that are at least 50 per
cent behind schedule.
B The actual work achieved compared to how much it
has cost to achieve that work.
C The actual cost compared to the planned budget.
D The actual work achieved compared to how long it has
taken to achieve that work.

Answer 195

B The actual work achieved compared to how much it has cost to achieve that work

Question 196

The schedule performance index is defined as:
A the ratio of work accomplished versus work planned,
for a specified time period.
B the difference between the budgeted cost of work
performed and the actual cost of work scheduled.
C the difference between the budgeted cost of work
performed and the budgeted cost of work scheduled.
D the percentage of calculations that resulted in an
activity being placed on the critical path.

Answer 196

A the ratio of work accomplished versus work planned, for a specified time period.

Question 197

A cost comparison between what has been earned and
what has been spent is termed:
A cost benefit analysis.
B cost performance index.
C cost variance.
D cost of capital.

Answer 197

C cost variance.

Question 198

The ratio of earned value over actual cost is termed:
A cost variance.
B schedule performance index.
C schedule variance.
D cost performance index.

Answer 198

D cost performance index.

Question 199

If a project had a CPI of 1.09 what would this indicate
about the project’s current status?
A It was nine per cent ahead of schedule.
B It was currently overspent.
C It was nine per cent underspent.
D It was over budget.

Answer 199

C It was nine per cent underspent

Question 200

If a project’s current SPI was 0.84 and this performance
was planned to continue until the project finished, what
could be deduced from this information?
A The project is likely to finish on time.
B The project is likely to finish early.
C The project is likely to finish late.
D The project is likely to finish underspent.

Answer 200

C The project is likely to finish late.

Question 201

SKIP AS CANT ADD PICTURE
In the diagram shown above what could be concluded
about the current schedule performance of the project?
A The project is behind schedule and overspent.
B The project is behind schedule and under budget.
C The project is ahead of schedule and overspent.
D More information about the actual work completed is
needed before the schedule performance can be
analysed.

Answer 201

A The project is behind schedule and overspent.

Question 202

SKIP AS CANT ADD PICTURE
In the diagram shown above and if the current performance
were to continue to the end of the project, what would be
the most likely outcome?
A The project will finish late and be underspent.
B The project will finish early and be underspent.
C The project will finish early and be overspent.
D The project will finish late and be overspent.

Answer 202

D The project will finish late and be overspent.