ARFF Chapter 4 Flashcards

(60 cards)

1
Q

What determines the level of acceptable risk for ARFF operations?

A

A risk/benefit matrix included in SOPs/SOGs.

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2
Q

What standard provides health and safety guidance for firefighters?

A

NFPA® 1500, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.

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3
Q

What is the ‘two-in/two-out’ rule requirement for IDLH environments?

A

At least four fully equipped firefighters must be on scene before two can enter; one standby may be the driver/operator or IC.

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4
Q

What should ARFF personnel do before entering a confined space?

A

Wear full PPE with SCBA and have an air monitor.

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5
Q

What device alerts rescuers when a firefighter becomes motionless?

A

PASS device (Personal Alert Safety System).

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6
Q

What defines the hot zone at an ARFF incident?

A

The area where ARFF tasks occur and an IDLH environment exists.

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7
Q

What are symptoms of PTSD that ARFF supervisors should watch for?

A

Substance abuse, trouble sleeping, irritability, lack of concentration, disconnection.

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8
Q

How far must ARFF personnel stay from a jet engine intake?

A

At least 30 feet (10 meters).

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9
Q

What is the blast danger area at takeoff thrust for a jumbo jet?

A

1,600 feet (488 meters).

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10
Q

What should firefighters never do when approaching helicopters?

A

Approach from the rear due to the tail rotor hazard.

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11
Q

What is the fragmentation zone distance for aircraft wheel assemblies?

A

A minimum of 289 feet (85 meters) at a 45-degree angle from the wheel sides.

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12
Q

How are undeclared dangerous goods identified?

A

Improper packaging, missing documentation, or normal cargo labels.

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13
Q

What is hydrazine and why is it dangerous?

A

A toxic, hypergolic fuel used in EPUs that can spontaneously ignite and cause systemic effects.

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14
Q

What standard governs use of SCBA?

A

OSHA 1910.134 and NFPA® 1500.

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15
Q

What is the purpose of Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)?

A

It provides information to respond safely to hazardous materials and must be carried on all ARFF vehicles.

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16
Q

What must ARFF drivers balance during response to emergencies?

A

Speed with caution based on situation, location, weather, and vehicle/driver capability.

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17
Q

Who must be familiar with and understand SOPs/SOGs in the fire department?

A

Each member of the department.

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18
Q

What is the minimum noise level required for a PASS device?

A

95 dB at 9.9 feet (3 meters).

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19
Q

Why is station/work uniform material important for ARFF personnel?

A

It must be flame-resistant and meet NFPA® 1975 standards.

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20
Q

What can happen if structural turnout gear absorbs fuel?

A

Wicking can occur, transferring fuel like a lamp wick, increasing risk of ignition.

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21
Q

What is the purpose of proximity firefighting protective clothing?

A

To protect firefighters from conductive, convective, and radiant heat.

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22
Q

What protection does aluminized proximity gear provide?

A

Reflects ~90% of radiant heat, protects against ambient temps up to 200°F and radiant heat up to 2,000°F.

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23
Q

When should decontamination be performed at aircraft accident sites?

A

Always, due to presence of hazardous materials and biohazards.

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24
Q

What standard governs training for SCBA use?

A

NFPA® 1404, Standard for Fire Service Respiratory Protection Training.

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25
What composite materials used in aircraft can resemble asbestos?
Carbon/graphite fibers.
26
What defines a confined space?
An enclosed area not intended for continuous occupation, with limited openings, poor ventilation, and toxic/oxygen-deficient potential.
27
What is flashback in fire situations?
Reignition of fuel when foam blanket breaks down or is disturbed.
28
How far should personnel stay from aircraft propellers?
At least 15 feet (4.5 meters).
29
What are hazards of undeployed airbags in aircraft crashes?
May deploy accidentally during rescue, injuring responders or passengers.
30
What must be established on scene to track firefighters?
A standardized personnel accountability system.
31
What are three zones in an ARFF incident?
Hot (restricted), Warm (limited access), and Cold (support) zones.
32
What are signs of a possible terrorist CBRNE/WMD incident?
Unusual aerosols, unexplained odors, mass casualties without trauma, and panic in high-profile areas.
33
What standard requires RIT at categorized airports 6–10?
NFPA® 403.
34
What class of dangerous goods includes flammable liquids?
Class 3.
35
What documentation indicates hazardous cargo?
Shipping papers with red striped border or marked 'Cargo Aircraft Only'.
36
What is the function of a ballistic recovery system (BRS)?
Deploys a parachute to slow descent of an aircraft in emergencies.
37
What precautions are needed around jet engine exhaust?
Establish safety zone; exhaust may ignite spilled fuel for up to 20 minutes post-shutdown.
38
What are symptoms of exposure to nerve agents?
Pinpoint pupils, chest tightness, runny nose, coughing, seizures.
39
What causes spontaneous ignition in hypergolic fuels?
Contact with oxidizers or organic material like cotton.
40
What angle should responders avoid when approaching military aircraft?
Directly in front or behind weapon ports; stay at ~45-degree angle.
41
What types of propellant actuating devices are used in ejection systems?
Canopy removers, initiators, rotary actuators, thrusters, explosive squibs, seat catapults.
42
Why is water preferred over foam for cooling gravity bombs?
Foam insulates the weapon, restricting heat dissipation.
43
What defines heat stress?
Combination of environmental and physical work factors imposing heat load on the body.
44
What hazard does composite material smoke create?
Respiratory hazard and potential radio signal interference.
45
How should tools be carried near helicopters?
Horizontally, below the waist, and never upright or over the shoulder.
46
What determines the level of acceptable risk for ARFF operations?
A risk/benefit matrix included in SOPs/SOGs.
47
What standard provides health and safety guidance for firefighters?
NFPA® 1500, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.
48
What is the 'two-in/two-out' rule requirement for IDLH environments?
At least four fully equipped firefighters must be on scene before two can enter; one standby may be the driver/operator or IC.
49
What should ARFF personnel do before entering a confined space?
Wear full PPE with SCBA and have an air monitor.
50
What device alerts rescuers when a firefighter becomes motionless?
PASS device (Personal Alert Safety System).
51
What defines the hot zone at an ARFF incident?
The area where ARFF tasks occur and an IDLH environment exists.
52
What are symptoms of PTSD that ARFF supervisors should watch for?
Substance abuse, trouble sleeping, irritability, lack of concentration, disconnection.
53
How far must ARFF personnel stay from a jet engine intake?
At least 30 feet (10 meters).
54
What is the blast danger area at takeoff thrust for a jumbo jet?
1,600 feet (488 meters).
55
What should firefighters never do when approaching helicopters?
Approach from the rear due to the tail rotor hazard.
56
What is the fragmentation zone distance for aircraft wheel assemblies?
A minimum of 289 feet (85 meters) at a 45-degree angle from the wheel sides.
57
How are undeclared dangerous goods identified?
Improper packaging, missing documentation, or normal cargo labels.
58
What is hydrazine and why is it dangerous?
A toxic, hypergolic fuel used in EPUs that can spontaneously ignite and cause systemic effects.
59
What standard governs use of SCBA?
OSHA 1910.134 and NFPA® 1500.
60
What is the purpose of Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)?
It provides information to respond safely to hazardous materials and must be carried on all ARFF vehicles.