SOG / Policy Flashcards
1
Q
How many gallons of water does CFR-80 carry?
A
Water - 3,000 gallons
2
Q
How many gallons of AFFF are on CFR-80?
A
AFFF - 420 gallons
3
Q
How many pounds of Halotron 1 are on CFR-80?
A
Halotron 1 - 460 pounds
4
Q
What extinguishing agents does CFR-81 carry?
A
Water - 3,000 gallons; AFFF - 420 gallons; PKP - 450 pounds
5
Q
What is the water capacity of CFR-82?
A
Water - 3,000 gallons
6
Q
What is the AFFF capacity of CFR-82?
A
AFFF - 400 gallons
7
Q
What is the Halotron 1 capacity of CFR-82?
A
Halotron 1 - 460 pounds
8
Q
What agents are carried by CFR-84?
A
Water - 3,000 gallons; AFFF - 400 gallons; Halotron 1 - 460 pounds
9
Q
What is the water tank size of CFR-86?
A
Water - 3,000 gallons
10
Q
What is the AFFF capacity of CFR-86?
A
AFFF - 400 gallons
11
Q
What are the extinguishing agents and amounts on E-88 (E-One)?
A
Water - 1,000 gallons; AFFF - 30 gallons
12
Q
What is the water and AFFF capacity of E-188 (Sutphen)?
A
Water - 750 gallons; AFFF - 50 gallons total (Tank A: 20 gal, Tank B: 30 gal)
13
Q
What are the water and AFFF amounts on T-88?
A
Water - 270 gallons; AFFF - 30 gallons
14
Q
What are the extinguishing agents on Chemical-1?
A
Water/AFFF Mix 3% - 100 gallons; PKP - 450 pounds
15
Q
What is the water and AFFF capacity of S-88?
A
Water - 230 gallons; AFFF - 20 gallons
16
Q
What is the high and low flow rate for all HRET Monitor Nozzles?
A
1000 GPM (High flow) / 500 GPM (Low flow)
17
Q
What is the flow rate of HRET Piercing Tips and Halotron 1?
A
250 GPM / 12 PPS (Halotron 1)
18
Q
What is the flow rate for all Purple-K (PKP) Roof Turrets?
A
16 PPS
19
Q
What is the flow rate for all PKP Dual-Agent Booster Handlines?
A
5-6 PPS
20
Q
What is the flow rate for Halotron 1 Booster Handlines?
A
5-6 PPS
21
Q
What aircraft length defines Index A?
A
<90 feet
22
Q
What aircraft length defines Index B?
A
90–126 feet
23
Q
What aircraft length defines Index C?
A
126–159 feet
24
Q
What aircraft length defines Index D?
A
159–200 feet
25
What aircraft length defines Index E?
≥200 feet
26
How many average daily departures are needed to qualify for an ARFF Index?
At least five daily departures.
27
What happens if there are fewer than five daily departures of the longest aircraft?
Use the next lower index.
28
Within how many minutes must ARFF vehicles arrive after aircraft movement notification?
Within 3 minutes.
29
How soon must at least 50% of required agent be discharged after arrival?
Within 1 minute.
30
How many vehicles are required for Index A?
One vehicle.
31
How many vehicles are required for Index B?
Two vehicles.
32
How many vehicles are required for Index C?
Three vehicles.
33
What water (foam) quantity is required for Index B second vehicle?
1,500 gallons.
34
What total water (foam) capacity is required for Index C?
3,000 gallons.
35
What total water (foam) capacity is required for Index D?
4,000 gallons.
36
What total water (foam) capacity is required for Index E?
6,000 gallons.
37
What extinguishing agent is required for Index A vehicle?
500 lbs dry chemical OR 450 lbs Halon 1211 OR 100 gallons water (foam).
38
What are the acceptable extinguishing agents for initial ARFF vehicle response?
500 lbs dry chemical, 450 lbs Halon 1211, or 100 gallons water (foam).
39
How many gallons of water (foam) must two vehicles combine to carry for Index C?
3,000 gallons.
40
How many gallons of water (foam) must two vehicles combine to carry for Index D?
4,000 gallons.
41
How many gallons of water (foam) must two vehicles combine to carry for Index E?
6,000 gallons.
42
How often must each firefighter participate in a live-fire drill?
At least once every 12 months.
43
How often must operational checks on ARFF vehicles occur?
During each shift.
44
How often must a monthly in-depth inspection of ARFF vehicles occur?
Once every month.
45
How long must ARFF training and performance records be maintained?
12 months.
46
What must the ARFF communications system allow direct contact with?
ATC and airport operations.
47
What agreements are required for supplemental ARFF response?
Mutual aid agreements.
48
What is the approximate piercing height for the lower cargo deck on large aircraft?
13' 6" (4.11 meters)
49
What is the approximate piercing height for the first level (main deck) of a large aircraft?
23' 0" (7.01 meters)
50
What is the approximate piercing height for the second level deck on a large aircraft?
31' 0" (9.44 meters)
51
What is the recommended standoff distance for an ARFF vehicle when using a HRET?
15 to 25 feet (4.57 to 7.62 meters) from the fuselage.
52
What clock positions are recommended for piercing cargo aircraft main deck fires?
10:00 O'Clock and 2:00 O'Clock positions.
53
What clock positions are recommended for piercing cargo aircraft belly bay fires?
4:00 O'Clock and 8:00 O'Clock positions.
54
How much does 250 gallons of water weigh when introduced into an aircraft?
Over 2,000 pounds (909 kilograms).
55
How often must an ARFF HRET operator be requalified?
At least every 12 consecutive calendar months.
56
Why is a FLIR camera essential during HRET operations?
It identifies heat blooms and helps determine optimum piercing locations.
57
What danger is associated with operating a HRET near overhead power lines?
Electricity can arc several feet and water or metal conducts electricity.
58
What is the minimum safe distance ARFF operators must maintain from overhead power lines when using a HRET?
At least 10 feet (3.048 meters).
59
What hazard can occur if a HRET contacts high-energy power lines?
Electricity can arc several feet to the HRET.
60
What attack mode is most effective when using an HRET on a pooled fuel fire?
Low attack sweeping mode under the wings and fuselage.
61
How should a vehicle be positioned when using a HRET for high-mounted engine fires?
Upwind and at a standoff distance that positions the boom optimally.
62
What primary tool is used to determine piercing locations during aircraft firefighting?
Forward-Looking Infrared (FLIR) camera.
63
What are signs visible on the FLIR camera indicating a serious internal fire?
Bright 'bloom' or hot spot on the fuselage.
64
What is the advantage of using complementary agents through a HRET?
Allows precision agent placement in difficult areas, increasing efficiency.
65
What is the recommended piercing location height above cabin windows on passenger aircraft?
10 to 12 inches above the cabin windows.
66
What effect can excessive use of straight stream turrets have during firefighting?
They can disrupt foam blankets and cause plunging.
67
What is the weight of one gallon of water?
8.34 pounds (3.79 kilograms).
68
How much water would be introduced into an aircraft fuselage in 2 minutes with a 250 GPM piercing nozzle?
Approximately 4,000 pounds (1,814 kilograms).
69
What kind of nozzle pattern is typically achieved by a HRET penetrating nozzle?
Approximately a 40-foot (12.19 meters) spray pattern.
70
When planning to drain accumulated water inside a fuselage, where should you pierce?
Just above the floor rivet line (longitudinal rivet lines).
71
Which deck has the greatest height for piercing on large-frame aircraft?
The second (upper) deck at approximately 31 feet (9.44 meters).
72
What is one safety advantage of using the HRET for engine fires?
Reduces firefighter exposure by applying agent remotely.
73
What is a typical space between fuselage wall and cargo containers on narrow-body aircraft?
About 12 inches (0.304 meters).
74
What is the typical space between fuselage wall and cargo containers on wide-body aircraft?
Between 30 to 46 inches (0.76 to 1.17 meters).
75
Where are FLIR cameras mounted if there is only one camera on a HRET vehicle?
Mounted to monitor piercing operations.
76
What is the critical reason for limiting straight stream use near personnel?
Straight streams can be dangerous due to their high pressure.
77
When piercing cargo aircraft, why might multiple penetrations be necessary?
To ensure agent reaches deep-seated fires hidden by containers.
78
What days are considered business days under the Allegations of Misconduct policy?
Monday through Friday, excluding holidays.
79
How long is the disciplinary retention period for employee files?
Retained in accordance with Aviation Authority policy.
80
How many occurrences of habitual tardiness are needed within 90 calendar days for ARFF employees to qualify as a minor offense?
3 occurrences within 90 calendar days.
81
What is considered an unauthorized absence under the policy?
Any absence not approved by a designated supervisor or higher authority.
82
After how many business days must a dismissed employee request a Post Termination Review?
Within 5 business days of receipt of Notice of Dismissal.
83
How soon should a Post Termination Review meeting be convened after the request?
Within 10 business days from receipt of the employee’s request, if possible.
84
What is the maximum suspension period without pay for a second minor offense?
Up to one week without pay.
85
What is the maximum period an employee can serve a suspension without pay over time to diminish financial impact?
Not to exceed 90 days.
86
How long must an employee be free of disciplinary action for minor offenses to typically not have prior discipline considered?
24 months.
87
What is the maximum suspension period for a major offense?
Up to two weeks.
88
Who must authorize administrative leave pending an investigation?
Senior Executive of the department or designee, with concurrence of Senior Director of Human Resources.
89
Within how many business days must notice of immediate dismissal be given after termination?
Within 10 business days.
90
What Florida Statute defines “Controlled Substance” for the purposes of this policy?
Florida Statutes Chapter 893.
91
What Florida Statute defines 'securely encased' for possession of firearms?
Florida Statutes Section 790.001(17).
92
What is the Aviation Authority's rule regarding firearm possession in personal vehicles?
Firearm must be securely encased.
93
What documentation form must employees sign to acknowledge the Allegations of Misconduct policy?
Form 204.02.1, Employee Acknowledgment.
94
What form is used for Notice of Disciplinary Action?
Form 204.02.2, Notice of Disciplinary Action.
95
What happens if an employee refuses to sign a Notice of Disciplinary Action?
The issuing supervisor notes the refusal, initials it, and dates it.
96
What is the employee’s status if a Post Termination Review is requested?
Suspension without pay until review is completed.
97
Who can be present at a Post Termination Review meeting?
Aviation Authority representatives, employee, employee’s legal counsel, Aviation Authority’s Legal Counsel, and witnesses.
98
What is an Emergency Situation under the Violence in the Workplace policy?
An injury has occurred or there is immediate threat of physical harm, injury, or property damage and/or use of a Weapon in the Workplace.
99
What is a Threatening Situation according to the policy?
Intimidating words or gestures induce fear but with no immediate danger.
100
Define 'Violence in the Workplace' according to the Aviation Authority.
Use of, or threat to use, force, abuse, or intimidation to harm a person or damage property at the Workplace.
101
What is considered a 'Weapon' under the policy?
Firearm, explosive device, club, metal object, knife, biological or chemical device, or any object that poses a reasonable risk of injury.
102
What locations are included in the definition of 'Workplace'?
Airport grounds, facilities, business trips, off-site meetings, and business-related social events.
103
Is verbal or email threat considered violence in the workplace?
Yes, it is considered Violence in the Workplace.
104
What should an employee do first during an Emergency Situation?
Call 911 as soon as safely possible.
105
If an employee cannot call 911, what should they do?
Instruct someone else to call 911.
106
What should an employee do in a Threatening Situation?
Remove themselves safely and report to department management and Human Resources.
107
Who must the Department Director report threatening situations to?
The Human Resources Department.
108
What does the Authority prohibit completely in relation to violence?
Any form of Violence in the Workplace.
109
What disciplinary actions may be taken for violation of the Violence in the Workplace policy?
Corrective action up to and including discharge.
110
Can employees face retaliation for reporting violence?
No, employees will not suffer adverse employment consequences or retaliation.
111
What should be minimized in revenue areas to reduce risk?
Minimize cash on hand.
112
What other policy is referenced regarding harassment and retaliation?
Policy 204.04.
113
What is the minimum increase percentage for an ARFF employee promoted to a higher rank?
6% increase or move to first step of new rank, whichever is greater.
114
How much is the EMT incentive pay for ARFF employees annually?
$3,276 annually.
115
How much is the Paramedic incentive pay for ARFF employees annually?
$9,022 annually.
116
How much is the day incentive for ARFF administrative Division Chief or Lieutenant?
$185 per pay period.
117
What hourly incentive is paid for ARFF firefighters assigned to an Advanced Life Support Rescue Unit?
$1.00 per hour.
118
What hourly incentive is paid for ARFF employees certified in VMR, Rope, and Confined Space Rescue?
$0.50 per hour.
119
What hourly incentive is paid for ARFF Combat employees assigned to an Aerial Unit?
$0.50 per hour.
120
After how many consecutive working days does a Regular Employee qualify for higher pay when working out of classification?
After 10 consecutive working days (80 hours).
121
How many hours must an ARFF employee work in a higher position to qualify for out-of-classification pay?
Minimum of 4 hours.
122
What is the working out-of-classification pay for an ARFF Engineer assignment?
$48.00 per shift or $2.00 per hour.
123
What is the working out-of-classification pay for an ARFF Lieutenant assignment?
$60.00 per shift or $2.50 per hour.
124
What is the working out-of-classification pay for an ARFF District Chief assignment?
$78.00 per shift or $3.25 per hour.
125
At how many years of continuous service does an employee first become eligible for a longevity payment?
5 years.
126
How much is the longevity payment for 5-9 years of service?
425
127
How much is the longevity payment for 10-14 years of service?
825
128
How much is the longevity payment for 15-18 years of service?
1200
129
How much is the longevity payment for 19 years or more of service?
1600
130
How are longevity payments made?
Lump sum each year in the pay period following anniversary date.
131
What is the normal minimum salary increase percentage for a Promotion?
0.06
132
What determines starting pay for external hires above the midpoint of the range?
Candidate’s qualifications, relevant work experience, and market salary data with CEO approval.
133
How often is the promotion process normally administered for Engineers and Lieutenants?
Every two (2) years.
134
How often is the promotion process normally administered for District Chiefs?
Every four (4) years.
135
How many calendar days before the written exam must eligibility requirements be met?
30 calendar days prior.
136
What minimum years are required as ARFF Firefighter to test for Engineer?
Three (3) years including one (1) year probation.
137
What course must a Firefighter complete to promote to Engineer?
80 hours Pump Operator course from an accredited institution.
138
What qualification must a Firefighter have regarding apparatus to promote to Engineer?
Qualified as relief driver on all apparatus under ARFF SOG 900.11.
139
What minimum years are required as Engineer to test for Lieutenant?
Two (2) years including one (1) year probation.
140
What certification is required to promote to Lieutenant?
Florida Fire Officer I certification.
141
What minimum years are required as Lieutenant to test for District Chief?
Three (3) years including one (1) year probation.
142
What certification or degree is needed to promote to District Chief?
Florida Fire Officer II or Associate Degree or higher in Fire Science.
143
How many calendar days prior to the written exam must employees notify their intent to test?
30 calendar days prior.
144
How many calendar days prior to the exam must the promotion notice be posted?
60 calendar days prior.
145
What minimum score must be achieved on the written exam to proceed?
70% or higher.
146
What minimum score must be achieved on the practical skills assessment?
70% or higher.
147
How many business days prior must candidates receive notice of their practical skills assessment date?
5 business days.
148
How many points is a Bachelor's, Master's, or Ph.D. degree worth for promotion scoring?
2 points.
149
How many points is an Associate Degree worth for promotion scoring?
1 point.
150
How soon must official written exam results be posted after testing?
Within 10 business days.
151
How long is the promotion eligibility list active for Engineer and Lieutenant?
Two (2) years or until list exhausted.
152
How long is the promotion eligibility list active for District Chief?
Four (4) years or until list exhausted.
153
Where do Authority vehicles have jurisdiction as emergency vehicles?
Only within Orlando International Airport and Orlando Executive Airport.
154
What is the exception to Authority vehicle jurisdiction rules?
Operations and Public Safety vehicles.
155
Where are Authority vehicles with flashing/rotating lights legal for use?
Only on Authority premises unless under extreme circumstances.
156
Name a situation when flashing/rotating lights can be used on a public road.
When directed by a police officer at the scene of an accident.
157
Can Authority vehicles use flashing lights when responding to a declared aircraft emergency?
Yes.
158
Can flashing lights be used if Authority vehicles arrive at an accident before police?
Yes.
159
Must Authority vehicles obey traffic laws even during emergency responses?
Yes, at all times.
160
What is the city legal reference for Authority vehicle operations?
Code of the City of Orlando, Chapter 16.
161
Who approved the latest update of the Emergency Use of Authority Vehicles policy?
Executive Director on July 28, 2003.
162
What happens if flashing lights are used improperly on public roads?
It is considered illegal use.
163
What governs airport security at Orlando International Airport?
The Airport Security Program (ASP).
164
Who is responsible for development and maintenance of the Airport Security Program?
The Director of Security.
165
Is the Airport Security Program (ASP) considered public information?
No, it is Sensitive Security Information (SSI) and not subject to public disclosure.
166
Compliance with the ASP is mandatory for whom?
All individuals and entities located on, operating at, or visiting Orlando International Airport.
167
What must all personnel who regularly work on airport property have?
An Aviation Authority-issued badge (access control identification media).
168
Are badged personnel subject to background checks?
Yes, prior to issuance and while holding badge authorization.
169
Who must approve filming, videotaping, or photographing secure/sterile areas?
Aviation Authority Public Affairs Department and Security Department.
170
Are contractors performing security access control allowed to perform other services in secure areas?
No, unless express written approval is granted by the Aviation Authority.
171
Who has authority to enter into security agreements and pilot programs?
The Executive Director.
172
Where is the restriction about SSI disclosure also referenced?
Policy 140.031, Inspection and Copying of Authority Public Records.
173
What does SIDA stand for?
Security Identification Display Area.
174
What does AOA stand for?
Air Operations Area.
175
What defines the Sterile Area?
Area beyond TSA screening up to but not including jetway doors.
176
What defines the Secured Area?
Area where passenger aircraft enplane/deplane or where baggage is loaded.
177
What must a person have to be in the SIDA, Sterile Area, or AOA?
Access authorization or be under escort.
178
What must all persons complete to gain SIDA/Sterile/AOA access?
Applicable SIDA/Sterile/Driver training course(s).
179
What badge reflects SIDA/Sterile/AOA access?
MCO Badge.
180
What does entry into SIDA/Sterile/AOA areas imply consent to?
Search of body, property, and vehicle.
181
Who can pre-approve possession of deadly or dangerous articles in secured areas?
Director of Security.
182
Who must approve exemptions from security screening?
Chief Executive Officer, based on recommendation of Director of Security.
183
What form is used to request screening exemption?
Form 730.01.1, Request for Employee Screening Exemption.
184
What is the penalty for a 1st security violation?
Minimum 5-day badge confiscation and suspension, retraining required.
185
What is the penalty for a 2nd security violation?
Minimum 10-day badge confiscation and suspension, retraining required.
186
What is the penalty for a 3rd security violation?
Permanent revocation of MCO badge and SIDA/Sterile/AOA access.
187
How long is a 1st security violation penalty active?
Five (5) calendar days.
188
How long is a 2nd security violation penalty active?
Ten (10) calendar days.
189
Who must approve any deviation from the standard security violation penalties?
Director of Security, Chief of Operations, and Chief Executive Officer.
190
Are individuals subject to random screening even if exempted?
Yes.
191
Can the Director of Security recommend permanent badge revocation after any violation?
Yes, with CEO approval.
192
What three types of screening exemptions exist on Form 730.01.1?
Red (continuous), Yellow (emergency only), Green (baggage makeup only).
193
What must employees provide upon hire if driving privileges are required?
A photocopy of valid Florida driver's license.
194
How many days does a Florida resident have to provide a Florida driver's license after employment?
30 days.
195
What form must be completed if an employee does not require driving privileges?
Form 1120.00.01.
196
What must an employee report to their supervisor regarding their license status?
Suspension, revocation, cancellation, confiscation, or expiration.
197
When must an employee report changes in their driving record?
As soon as possible, no later than the first workday after the change.
198
Are Aviation Authority drivers required to wear seat belts?
Yes, at all times while operating a vehicle.
199
Who must employees immediately notify after a vehicle accident or damage?
Supervisor or manager, Airport Operations, and Orlando Police Airport Division (if applicable).
200
When is pre-use and post-use vehicle inspection required?
Before and after each vehicle use.
201
Are employees allowed to operate Aviation Authority vehicles under the influence of alcohol or drugs?
No.
202
Where should Aviation Authority vehicles be parked?
In designated parking spaces appropriate for the size of the vehicle.
203
Who is responsible for vehicle-related accident investigations?
The employee’s department, with review by Risk Management.
204
What is the penalty for a minor offense vehicle incident?
Written reprimand and mandatory driver training.
205
How many incidents in an 18-month period can escalate to a major offense?
Second or third incidents within 18 months.
206
What is the penalty for a major offense?
Written reprimand up to 2-week suspension and driver training.
207
What qualifies as a critical/dismissal offense?
Bodily injury, significant property damage, or evidence of drug/alcohol use while operating.
208
Can personal insurance be primary for personal vehicle use during Aviation Authority business?
Yes, personal insurance is typically primary.
209
Who must be contacted when employee driving privileges must be removed?
Human Resources and Department Management.
210
What must happen if an employee drives with a suspended license?
Immediate suspension of driving privileges and notification to management.
211
Who determines final disciplinary action for vehicle incidents?
Department Director with concurrence of Senior Director of Human Resources.
212
What policy governs appeals of disciplinary actions?
Policy 204.03 for grievances or 204.02 for dismissal actions.
