Pump Ops Short Flashcards
(333 cards)
1
Q
According to USFA 2010, how many firefighters were killed while responding or returning from incidents?
A
17 firefighters.
2
Q
What does NFPA 1002 establish?
A
Minimum qualifications for apparatus driver/operators.
3
Q
What training must be completed to meet NFPA 1002?
A
Firefighter I course or equivalent.
4
Q
Why is a full water tank safer than a partially filled one?
A
Provides better braking and stability due to consistent weight distribution.
5
Q
What is the definition of ‘Due Regard’ in emergency vehicle driving?
A
A legal obligation to drive with care and caution for public safety.
6
Q
What is brake fade?
A
Loss of braking function due to excessive use and heat buildup.
7
Q
What must be confirmed verbally before apparatus is in motion?
A
That all personnel are onboard and belted.
8
Q
How should hose loading be performed while the vehicle is in motion?
A
With at least one safety observer, driving slowly (max 5 mph), and no riders on the apparatus.
9
Q
How often should mirrors be adjusted?
A
At the start of each shift and whenever driving responsibility changes.
10
Q
What is the definition of angle of approach?
A
The angle from level ground to the lowest front projection from tire contact point.
11
Q
What does Roll Stability Control (RSC) do?
A
Reduces engine power or applies brakes when rollover risk is detected.
12
Q
What is the purpose of the regeneration inhibit switch?
A
To prevent DPF regeneration during unsafe conditions like parked on dry grass.
13
Q
What happens if the DEF tank is empty?
A
Engine speed is limited to 5 mph and may require dealer service.
14
Q
What are the four types of auxiliary braking systems?
A
Exhaust brake, Engine Compression Brake, Transmission Output Retarder, Electromagnetic Retarder.
15
Q
What are signs of a locked-wheel skid?
A
Vehicle skids despite steering; wheels are locked from hard braking.
16
Q
What type of retarder offers the highest braking torque?
A
Transmission output and electromagnetic retarders.
17
Q
What must you do before removing an inlet or discharge cap?
A
Open the drain or bleeder valve to relieve trapped pressure.
18
Q
What are the responsibilities of tiller operators?
A
Trailer placement, cornering, public and crew safety, and local regulation familiarity.
19
Q
What must be done when climbing on top of apparatus without railings?
A
Maintain three points of contact, use slip-resistant surfaces, and have a second person present.
20
Q
What should a driver/operator consider when positioning apparatus on a narrow street?
A
Ensure access for aerial apparatus and allow space for supply hose lays.
21
Q
What is the primary tactical priority in a rescue situation?
A
Life safety.
22
Q
Why should the pumper be pulled past the building during investigation mode?
A
To allow viewing of three sides of the structure.
23
Q
What action must a driver take if standard placement isn’t possible?
A
Notify incoming units of situation and any necessary changes.
24
Q
What zone must be maintained around a potentially collapsing structure?
A
1.5 times the height of the building.
25
Why are corners considered safe for aerial positioning during structural collapse risks?
They are generally more stable and safer if collapse occurs.
26
What distance should be maintained for potential falling glass from high-rises?
At least 200 feet.
27
Why should drivers avoid positioning apparatus directly under utility lines?
Fire or weather conditions could bring lines down onto the apparatus.
28
What is the 'Inside/Outside' method of positioning aerial and attack pumpers?
Buildings <5 floors: aerial outside pumper; buildings >5 floors: aerial inside closer to structure.
29
What is the best position for a pumper supporting an FDC?
As close to both the FDC and a water source as possible.
30
What should be avoided during drafting operations from natural sources?
Soft or unstable surfaces that may collapse or trap apparatus.
31
What must personnel working near water edges wear?
Personal flotation devices (PFDs).
32
What intake hose type should not be connected directly to a hydrant?
Hard intake hose not rated for positive pressure.
33
What is the recommended pumper placement for large diameter intake hose connections?
A few feet short of being in line with the hydrant, allowing a slight curve.
34
What is the wildland/urban interface?
Where structures meet undeveloped land, often requiring unique apparatus positioning.
35
Why should wildland apparatus back into position facing an exit route?
To allow for quick escape if fire conditions change.
36
What positioning precautions should be taken during wildland firefighting?
Avoid unburned fuels, position off road, close windows, use anchor points.
37
What is Level I Staging?
Initial staging for multi-company responses; units stop 1–2 blocks away and await orders.
38
What is Level II Staging?
Used in large incidents with multiple resources, assigned a specific staging area.
39
What is a 'Base' in incident management?
Central location for logistics, personnel coordination, and initial orders.
40
How should apparatus be used to protect firefighters on highways?
Position to shield from traffic; may block one additional lane for safety.
41
Why should firefighters avoid stepping beyond the tailboard in highway operations?
To reduce the risk of being struck by vehicles.
42
What is the best approach direction for hazmat incidents?
From uphill and upwind.
43
What is the purpose of control zones at hazmat scenes?
To regulate access and protect personnel based on hazard level.
44
How should hoses be laid across active railroad tracks?
Only if confirmed that rail traffic is stopped; otherwise use overhead or under-rail methods.
45
Where should apparatus be parked near railroads?
Same side as incident, no closer than 30 feet from tracks.
46
What positioning considerations exist for EMS incidents?
Ensure ambulance loading access, protect from traffic, avoid exhaust near patients.
47
What is the recommended intake connection distance for dry hydrants?
15 inches (375 mm).
48
What is the specific weight of water per cubic foot and per gallon?
62.4 lb/ft³ and 8.3 lb/gal.
49
What is the expansion ratio of steam at 212°F and at 500°F?
1700:1 at 212°F and approximately 2400:1 at 500°F.
50
What is water’s primary extinguishment method on Class A fires?
Cooling by heat absorption.
51
Why is water not suitable for fires involving sodium or combustible metals?
It reacts violently and can cause explosions or spread fire.
52
What does high surface tension in water affect?
Penetration into dense materials; wetting agents help reduce it.
53
What is the force exerted by a 1 ft high water column?
0.434 psi.
54
How much elevation is needed to generate 1 psi of water pressure?
2.304 feet.
55
What principle explains why pressure is the same in all directions in a confined fluid?
Pascal’s Law (3rd Principle of Fluid Pressure).
56
What principle states that fluid pressure is independent of vessel shape?
6th Principle of Fluid Pressure.
57
What is atmospheric pressure at sea level in psi and mmHg?
14.7 psi and 759 mmHg.
58
What is head pressure and how is it calculated?
The pressure due to elevation; ft ÷ 2.304 = psi.
59
What is the primary cause of friction loss in fire hose?
Contact of water molecules with hose surfaces and internal friction.
60
What effect does older hose have on friction loss?
Up to 50% more friction loss than new hose.
61
How does friction loss relate to hose length?
Directly proportional — doubling the length doubles the loss.
62
What is the relationship between hose diameter and friction loss?
Inversely proportional to the fifth power of the diameter.
63
What causes water hammer?
Sudden stop of water flow, creating a pressure surge.
64
How can water hammer be prevented?
Close valves and nozzles slowly in stages.
65
What are the three basic rates of water consumption used in system design?
Average Daily, Maximum Daily, and Peak Hourly Consumption.
66
What type of valve visually shows its open or closed position?
Indicating valve (e.g., PIV, OS&Y).
67
What is the purpose of backflow prevention in private water systems?
To prevent contamination of municipal water supplies.
68
What are the three methods of moving water in municipal systems?
Direct pumping, gravity, and combination systems.
69
What is the advantage of a combination water system?
Redundant pumping and elevated tanks maintain pressure and supply.
70
What are the three types of water mains in a grid system?
Primary feeders, secondary feeders, and distributors.
71
What hazard can sedimentation and encrustation cause in water mains?
Reduced effective diameter and increased friction loss.
72
What is critical velocity?
The point at which water flow becomes turbulent and reduces flow efficiency.
73
What are the four principles of friction loss?
1. Varies with length, 2. Increases with square of velocity, 3. Inversely with diameter⁵, 4. Unaffected by pressure.
74
What is the purpose of elevated storage tanks in water systems?
Provide emergency storage and maintain pressure during peak demand or failure.
75
What is a dead-end hydrant?
A hydrant fed from only one direction, prone to low pressure.
76
Why should hydrants be flushed periodically?
To remove sediment and maintain water quality and flow.
77
What are the three basic fire streams?
Solid, fog, and broken streams.
78
How is a solid fire stream created?
Using a smooth bore nozzle with a fixed orifice.
79
What nozzle pressure is typical for solid stream handlines?
50 psi (350 kPa).
80
What nozzle pressure is typical for solid stream master stream appliances?
80 psi (560 kPa).
81
What is the formula for calculating GPM from a solid stream nozzle (customary)?
GPM = 29.7 × d² × √NP
82
What is the metric formula for solid stream nozzle discharge?
L/min = 0.067 × d² × √NP
83
How are fog streams formed?
By deflecting water against an obstruction to create finely divided particles.
84
What nozzle type maintains constant GPM at all stream patterns?
Constant flow fog nozzle.
85
What is a selectable gallonage nozzle?
A nozzle with adjustable flow settings predetermined before use.
86
What is a high pressure fog nozzle used for?
Wildland fires, flowing 8–15 GPM at up to 800 psi.
87
What is the maximum flow rate for handline nozzles?
350 GPM (1,400 L/min).
88
What is the minimum flow rate for master stream nozzles?
Greater than 350 GPM (1,400 L/min).
89
What are the three types of master stream appliances?
Fixed, combination, and portable monitors.
90
What types of master stream appliances are found on aerial devices?
Elevated master streams.
91
What is the flow rate and pressure of a piercing nozzle?
125 GPM at 100 psi.
92
What is a chimney nozzle?
A solid brass or steel device producing a fine mist for chimney flues, flowing 1.5–3 GPM.
93
What is the nozzle reaction formula for a solid stream (customary)?
NR = 1.57 × d² × NP
94
What is the nozzle reaction formula for a fog stream (customary)?
NR = 0.0505 × Q × √NP
95
What is the 'rule of thumb' for estimating nozzle reaction (solid stream)?
NR ≈ Q / 3
96
What is the 'rule of thumb' for fog stream nozzle reaction?
NR ≈ Q / 2
97
Why is excessive nozzle reaction dangerous?
It can injure firefighters or hinder hoseline control.
98
What is the main function of a master stream device?
To apply large volumes of water from a fixed position.
99
What happens if driver/operator supplies incorrect pressure to a selectable gallonage nozzle?
It will not flow the selected gallonage correctly.
100
What allows automatic fog nozzles to adapt to variable flow?
A spring-activated device adjusts the baffle opening.
101
Why are cellar nozzles often used with inline shut-off valves?
For safety and ease of operation.
102
What types of monitors are considered combination monitors?
Monitors that can be apparatus-mounted or detached for remote use.
103
What are piercing nozzles used for?
Aircraft fires, car fires, or fires in inaccessible voids.
104
What are the components of Total Pressure Loss (TPL)?
Friction Loss, Elevation Pressure Loss, and Appliance Loss.
105
What is the formula for friction loss (customary)?
FL = C × Q² × L
106
What does each variable in the friction loss formula represent?
C = coefficient, Q = flow rate ÷ 100, L = hose length ÷ 100.
107
When is appliance pressure loss considered insignificant?
When flow is less than 350 GPM (1,400 L/min).
108
How much pressure loss is added for each appliance at ≥ 350 GPM?
10 psi (70 kPa).
109
How much pressure loss is added for master stream appliances?
25 psi (175 kPa).
110
What is the formula for elevation pressure loss (customary)?
EP = 0.5 × Height (ft).
111
What is the formula for elevation pressure loss in multistory buildings?
EP = 5 psi × (Stories – 1).
112
What is the pressure loss in 200 ft of 2½” hose at 200 GPM?
16 psi.
113
What is the pressure loss in 150 ft of 1¾” hose at 150 GPM?
52.3 psi.
114
What is the total pressure loss for 200 ft of 1¾” hose at 180 GPM with 10 ft elevation?
105.4 psi.
115
How is pump discharge pressure (PDP) calculated?
PDP = Nozzle Pressure + Total Pressure Loss (TPL).
116
What is the formula for Net Pump Discharge Pressure from a pressurized source?
NPDP = PDP – Intake Pressure.
117
How is PDP set when supplying multiple hoselines?
Based on the line with the highest pressure requirement.
118
What pressure is added for elevated waterways with master stream appliances?
25 psi.
119
What nozzle pressures are typical for fog nozzles?
100 psi (standard), 50 or 75 psi (low pressure).
120
What is the pump pressure loss for aerial piping bends in elevated waterways?
Approximately 25 psi, though varies by manufacturer.
121
What should a driver/operator do to determine pressure loss specific to apparatus?
Consult manufacturer or conduct field testing.
122
How is friction loss calculated in wyed hoselines of equal length?
Add FL from one attack line + FL from supply + appliance and elevation losses.
123
What must be done if wyed or manifold lines have unequal lengths?
Calculate each line’s FL separately; gate down lower-pressure lines.
124
What are the four types of hose layouts?
Single, Multiple Equal, Wyed, and Siamesed.
125
What is the advantage of siamesed hoselines?
Reduced friction loss—approximately 25% less than a single line.
126
How much pressure is added for a Siamese appliance at flows > 350 GPM?
10 psi.
127
What’s the friction loss for 300 ft of 4-inch hose at 400 GPM?
9.6 psi.
128
How can drivers avoid overpressuring lower-pressure lines in multi-line setups?
Use gated discharges or valves to reduce pressure.
129
What PPE should driver/operators wear when operating pump panels?
Full PPE to reduce injury risk during mechanical failures.
130
Why is wheel chocking recommended even when the parking brake is set?
For added safety in case of brake failure or unintentional movement.
131
What is the first step after exiting the cab to operate the pump from tank water?
Chock the wheels.
132
What should be used to cool the pump if no water is flowing?
Tank fill line or circulator valve to prevent overheating.
133
What is the minimum residual pressure to maintain from a pressurized source?
20 psi (140 kPa).
134
Why must the bleeder valve on the intake be opened when transitioning to an external source?
To release air and prevent disruption of attack lines.
135
What is a four-way hydrant valve used for?
Allows uninterrupted supply transition from hydrant pressure to pump pressure.
136
Why might forward lay be insufficient in long hose stretches?
Available hydrant pressure may be inadequate; second pumper needed.
137
When is reverse lay typically used?
When the first pumper arrives at the fire and must stay at scene while a second pumper lays hose to a water source.
138
What is the key function of a transfer valve in a two-stage pump?
To switch between pressure (series) and volume (parallel) modes.
139
Why should throttle not be increased below 20 psi intake pressure?
Risk of pump cavitation.
140
How do you estimate additional water available from a hydrant?
Using the Percentage, First-Digit, or Squaring-the-Lines Method.
141
What causes pump cavitation?
Water discharges faster than it enters the pump, forming air bubbles.
142
What is the ideal lift height for drafting to retain full pump capacity?
10 feet (3 meters).
143
What is the minimum water depth required over and around a strainer during drafting?
24 inches (600 mm).
144
What is a floating strainer used for?
Shallow water drafting; reduces whirlpool and debris risk.
145
What does high vacuum reading near 22 inches Hg indicate?
Pump is near maximum capacity; risk of cavitation increases.
146
What are symptoms of cavitation?
Popping sounds, pressure fluctuation, gravel noise, no gauge change with throttle.
147
What type of water requires flushing the pump system afterward?
Nonpotable water with salt, sediment, or chemicals.
148
What pressure does atmospheric pressure drop to at 5,000 ft elevation?
Approximately 12.2 psi (85 kPa).
149
How can you compensate for increased lift during drafting?
Use larger diameter or additional intake hose.
150
What is the purpose of a jet siphon?
Uses Venturi effect to create water movement for water transfer.
151
What is the maximum rated lift for NFPA/UL fire pumps?
25 feet, though only 60% capacity remains at 20 feet.
152
Why is it better to lay 100 ft of supply hose to a better drafting site?
To improve water quality and reduce friction loss.
153
What causes loss of prime during operation?
Air leaks, suction hose defects, sudden discharge opening, or whirlpools.
154
What action is recommended when booster tank is empty and tank-to-pump valve does not seal?
Prime cannot be achieved; refill tank or repair valve.
155
How does salt water affect pump operation?
Causes corrosion; requires fresh water flushing afterward.
156
How should strainers be supported in sloped terrain?
Use rope, ladders, or metal objects to elevate and stabilize strainer.
157
What causes suction hose inner liner to collapse?
Vacuum stress during high lift or defective hose.
158
What is the general pump discharge pressure for sprinkler/standpipe FDCs if unknown?
150 psi (1,050 kPa).
159
What are the three elements needed to create foam?
Foam concentrate, water, and air.
160
What is eduction in foam systems?
Using the Venturi effect to mix foam concentrate with water in a nozzle or proportioner.
161
Why is mixing different foam concentrates during incidents problematic?
It can clog eductors and reduce foam quality due to incompatibility.
162
What are the two main categories of Class B fuels?
Hydrocarbon fuels and polar solvents.
163
What foam type is needed for polar solvents?
Alcohol-resistant foam.
164
What does 'miscible' mean in reference to polar solvents?
They mix with water in all proportions.
165
What are the four methods of foam proportioning?
Induction, injection, batch mixing, and premixing.
166
What is the primary method of foam discharge in CAFS?
Compressed air injected into foam solution before discharge.
167
What does the Jet Ratio Controller (JRC) do?
Supplies foam concentrate to a self-educting master stream from distances up to 3,000 feet.
168
What is the proportioning range for Class A foam?
0.1% to 1.0%.
169
What are the recommended Class A foam percentages for fire attack with standard fog nozzles?
0.2% to 0.5%.
170
What is the expansion ratio for medium-expansion foam?
20:1 to 200:1.
171
What is the formula to calculate application rate for Class B foam?
Application Rate = Nozzle Flow Rate ÷ Fire Area.
172
What is the foam type that forms an air/vapor excluding film?
Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF).
173
What is burnback resistance?
The foam's ability to resist flame re-ignition after initial extinguishment.
174
What is the main hazard of discharging foam into natural water bodies?
It reduces oxygen levels and can be harmful to aquatic life.
175
What are durable agents made of?
Water-absorbent polymers used for fire blocking and structure pretreatment.
176
What is the correct nozzle/eductor back pressure limit for in-line foam eductors?
70% of the inlet pressure.
177
Why should foam tanks be airtight?
To prevent the formation of surface film on the foam concentrate.
178
What is batch mixing primarily used for?
Class A and regular AFFF foams when no other system is available.
179
What are the three main foam application methods for Class B fuels?
Roll-on, bank-down, and rain-down.
180
How should AR-AFFF be applied to polar solvents?
Gently, to allow membrane formation; use aspirating nozzles for best results.
181
What is the typical shelf life of properly stored synthetic Class B foam?
20–25 years.
182
What are compressed air foam systems (CAFS) best known for?
Creating high-quality, clingy foam with long drainage time.
183
What is the advantage of foam nozzle eductors?
Nozzle and eductor are matched for proper flow and pressure.
184
What is the biggest drawback of batch mixing?
The entire tank must be emptied before changing foam percentage or type.
185
What can happen if you exceed the rated GPM of an in-line eductor?
Foam quality may decrease or stop entirely.
186
What device allows foam and water to be delivered from different outlets at the same time?
Bypass-type balanced pressure proportioners.
187
What type of foam has the highest expansion ratio?
High-expansion foam (200:1 to 1000:1).
188
What method uses foam solution sprayed into the air to fall gently onto a fuel surface?
Rain-down method.
189
What is the primary purpose of aerial fire apparatus?
To place personnel and/or water streams in elevated positions.
190
What are the three NFPA® 1901 categories of aerial devices?
Aerial ladders, elevating platforms, and water towers.
191
What structural advantage do truss ladders provide?
They are lighter than solid beams with equal strength due to triangular stress distribution.
192
What is the typical pressure in hydraulic aerial systems?
May exceed 3,500 psi (24,500 kPa).
193
What is the function of the selector valve in hydraulic systems?
Directs fluid to stabilizers or aerial device; must be preset during inspection.
194
What are the types of hydraulic pumps used in aerial systems?
Load sensing piston, rotary vane, and rotary gear positive-displacement pumps.
195
What function do counterbalance valves serve?
Prevent aerial motion if hydraulic lines fail.
196
What is a trunnion?
The pivoting end of a piston rod in a hydraulic hoisting cylinder.
197
How much can modern elevating platforms typically flow?
Up to 2,000 GPM (8,000 L/min).
198
What are the three types of elevating platforms?
Aerial ladder platforms, telescoping platforms, and articulating platforms.
199
What is the minimum floor space of an elevating platform per NFPA®?
14 square feet (1.3 m²).
200
What is the maximum uncharged load capacity of a platform?
750 lbs (375 kg); 500 lbs (250 kg) when charged.
201
What does the fog curtain nozzle under platforms do?
Creates a protective fog shield and must flow at least 75 GPM (300 L/min).
202
What are the primary uses of articulating aerial platforms?
Rescue, ventilation, elevated master streams, and access to upper floors.
203
What is the purpose of a pinnable waterway?
Allows monitor positioning at base or tip depending on operation (rescue or fire suppression).
204
What does NFPA® 1901 require for communication on aerials?
A two-way system with hands-free capability at the tip/platform.
205
What does a tiller operator interlock do?
Prevents the vehicle from starting unless the tiller operator is seated or engages override.
206
What is the purpose of a deadman foot switch?
Ensures intentional activation of aerial movement.
207
What happens if a waterway monitor isn’t anchored properly before charging?
It can launch from pressure and cause damage or injury.
208
What is the maximum nozzle movement range for detachable ladder pipes?
15° to either side of center.
209
What is the flow range of water towers?
1,000 to 5,000 GPM (4,000 to 20,000 L/min).
210
What are key safety features of hoisting cylinders?
Safety valves that lock oil in place during leaks to prevent collapse.
211
What kind of lighting is recommended near the tip of the aerial device?
Floodlighting, though not required by NFPA® 1901.
212
What are the four standard aerial apparatus control levers (right to left)?
Elevation, rotation, extension, and platform controls.
213
What are the key power generation options on aerials?
Inverters, portable generators, and vehicle-mounted generators.
214
What NFPA® standard governs breathing air systems if installed?
NFPA® 1989.
215
What is the danger of exceeding air system pressure in aerial breathing systems?
It can damage moisture filters and cause pressure loss.
216
What is the most common hydraulic tool power source on aerials?
Hydraulic pump powered by PTO, electric motor, gas engine, or compressed air.
217
What size ladder is required for fourth or fifth story access?
Pole ladders (≥ 40 ft or 12 m).
218
What is required testing frequency for aerial apparatus according to NFPA® 1911?
Annually for service tests, every 5 years for nondestructive testing.
219
What is the most important factor when initially placing an aerial apparatus?
Getting it right the first time due to fixed reach and limited repositioning options.
220
What building height affects SOP placement of engines and aerials?
5 stories (≈60 ft); aerials outside engines for <5 stories, inside for >5.
221
What is the 'collapse zone'?
Area beneath a wall that would be impacted if it collapsed.
222
Why is a low angle with long extension discouraged?
It increases stress and reduces load capacity of the aerial device.
223
What term describes loads involving motion, such as wind or vibration?
Dynamic load.
224
How should aerials be positioned in windy conditions?
Parallel to wind, minimize extension, operate over front or rear.
225
What clearance should be maintained from power lines energized from 600–50,000 volts?
10 feet (3 m).
226
What should you do if a vehicle becomes energized by a power line?
Stay in or on the vehicle until it's de-energized and grounded by professionals.
227
What is the best practice for jackknifing a tillered aerial?
60° from in-line with aerial extended away for maximum stability.
228
When should aerial devices avoid supported positioning?
When a structure is weakened or shows collapse signs.
229
What direction should you approach incidents from when possible?
Uphill and upwind.
230
What should be done in dead-end access situations?
Back apparatus in to allow a quick escape.
231
What surface warning sign appears during hot weather?
Shiny/glassy 'bleeding' asphalt.
232
What should never be done with warning lights on highways at night?
Never shut off all warning lights.
233
What is the minimum clearance from railroad tracks?
25 feet (7.5 m).
234
What must be confirmed before raising an aerial over railroad tracks?
Train traffic is halted and device is 25 ft above rails.
235
Where should apparatus be positioned on bridges?
On separate spans or lanes; not all units on same area.
236
What is the recommended angle of aerial operation for best stability?
Inline with the vehicle’s longitudinal axis (front or rear).
237
What are key hazards to avoid during structural incidents?
Collapse zones, falling debris, roof signs, parapet walls.
238
What is the priority for aerial placement during medical incidents?
Shielding personnel and providing ambulance access.
239
What causes excessive stress on aerial devices?
Low angles, long extensions, sudden movements, heat, wind, torsion.
240
What should driver/operators avoid at hazmat incidents?
Parking over manholes/storm drains or approaching from downwind/downhill.
241
Why must aerials avoid blocking aircraft slides?
Slides are primary evacuation paths and deploy automatically from doors or wings.
242
Where should aerials park at petroleum storage sites?
Outside the dike walls unless a roadway is built atop the dike.
243
What does OSHA recommend for power line clearance during construction operations?
20 ft for <350 kV lines, 50 ft for >350 kV.
244
What should you do if someone is trapped in an energized vehicle?
Do NOT touch them—wait for power company; instruct them to stay inside unless fire threatens.
245
What must be considered when operating aerials near bridges?
Load capacity, wind, movement, superstructures, and safe staggered parking.
246
Why avoid placing apparatus on vaulted surfaces?
They may collapse due to being above underground voids like basements or culverts.
247
What does 'Look Up and Live' refer to?
Checking for power lines before and during aerial operation.
248
What is the function of stabilizer pads?
Distribute aerial weight more evenly on ground surfaces to prevent sinking or tilting.
249
What causes most aerial tip-overs during stabilization?
Operator error and improper jack placement on unfamiliar apparatus.
250
What does short-jacking mean?
Deploying stabilizers to unequal lengths, often due to space restrictions.
251
What risk does short-jacking introduce?
Gravity circle may extend beyond base of stability, risking overturning.
252
What are the three types of stabilizers?
Post-type, box (H-style), and fulcrum-type (A-frame, X-style).
253
What is the gravity circle?
The lateral shift of the center of gravity when the aerial rotates or extends.
254
When does the gravity circle become dangerous?
When it extends beyond the base of stability.
255
What action can broaden the base of stability?
Full extension and deployment of stabilizers.
256
Why should PTO only be engaged when properly positioned?
To prevent drivetrain or pump system damage.
257
What must be done before stabilizer deployment?
Activate PTO, chock wheels, and check terrain for stability.
258
What tool is commonly used to estimate stabilizer travel?
Short pike pole or firefighter’s arm span.
259
What is a stabilizer shoe?
Flat metal pad at the bottom of the stabilizer to distribute load.
260
Why avoid placing stabilizers over manholes, curbs, or water covers?
These may collapse or provide unstable footing.
261
What is cribbing used for?
To supplement stabilizer support on unstable or uneven surfaces.
262
What slope is acceptable for lateral grade correction?
Up to 5% or approximately 3°.
263
How should stabilizers be deployed on lateral grade?
Lower uphill side first, then downhill side to level apparatus.
264
What direction is safest for aerial operation on slopes?
Over the uphill side of the apparatus.
265
What happens when operating on longitudinal grade?
Ladder rungs no longer remain level, introducing lateral stresses.
266
Why are icy or snowy conditions dangerous for stabilization?
Melting causes voids under pads; surfaces become slippery.
267
How can stability be enhanced on icy ground?
Use sand or friction material—never salt, which reduces traction.
268
How do stabilizer interlocks work?
Prevent aerial operation unless stabilizers are deployed and locked.
269
What provides mechanical locking of jacks?
Steel pins inserted through post holes below the jack housing.
270
What must be checked before retracting stabilizers?
Ensure personnel and equipment are clear; remove safety pins.
271
What is the correct order to retract stabilizers?
Reverse the order they were deployed to avoid chassis stress.
272
What must be done after raising stabilizers?
Disengage PTO and return stabilizer pads to storage.
273
How do manual stabilizers differ from hydraulic ones?
They require manual arm extension and screw jack adjustment.
274
What angle provides maximum stability in tillered aerials?
60° between tractor and trailer with ladder operated outward.
275
What should be avoided when jackknifing tiller apparatus?
Angles >90° due to poor stability and possible damage.
276
What should be done after setting tiller angle?
Set all brakes, including trailer axle brake, and deploy stabilizers.
277
What does Skill Sheet 18-1 cover?
Steps to deploy, lock, and stow hydraulic stabilizers.
278
What does Skill Sheet 18-2 cover?
Steps to stabilize a tractor-trailer aerial apparatus.
279
What must a pedestal operator be ready to do during tower ladder operation?
Override unsafe basket movements and warn of danger.
280
What is the first priority before climbing or descending an aerial ladder?
Ensure the device is in position and stable.
281
When must personnel be tethered while on aerial devices?
Any time not actively climbing, descending, entering, or exiting.
282
Where should safety tethers be anchored?
To structural features only, never to cables, wires, or non-structural elements.
283
Why must ladder belts and tethers meet NFPA® 1983?
To ensure fall protection equipment meets life safety standards.
284
What is a fall hazard during aerial operation?
Operating with unsecured personnel on a moving device.
285
What is the danger of extending/retracting aerials with people on them?
Pinch and crush hazards from moving rungs and sections.
286
What is required before rotating or elevating aerials with personnel aboard?
All personnel must be tethered and communication maintained.
287
Why is using wire rope near pulleys a hazard?
It creates pinch points and tension-related injury risks.
288
What should be avoided when giving rotation commands?
Ambiguous terms like 'left/right' without clarifying viewpoint.
289
What is the primary control position on an aerial apparatus?
Lower control station, typically on the turntable.
290
When can secondary controls be used?
Only with a trained operator present at the primary controls.
291
What must secondary control operators be aware of?
Tip movement, ladder personnel, water flow, and electrical hazards.
292
What is the purpose of the load chart?
To determine safe operating limits based on extension, elevation, and conditions.
293
What are electronic load systems used for?
Monitoring aerial stability, but not replacing operator judgment.
294
What sequence should be followed when raising a telescoping aerial device?
Elevate, rotate, extend, and then lower to objective.
295
What is feathering in aerial control?
Slow, smooth movements to avoid dynamic stress or hydraulic spikes.
296
What does Skill Sheet 19-1 cover?
Raising and lowering a telescoping aerial without a platform.
297
How does the operation of articulating aerials differ?
Includes concern for knuckle movement and requires additional spatial awareness.
298
What are pinnable waterways?
Fixed nozzles that can be mounted at the tip or one section lower.
299
Why is video monitoring helpful on aerial platforms?
It enhances safety by allowing operators to see tip hazards remotely.
300
What is the 75-80-80 guideline?
75° elevation, 80% extension, 80 psi nozzle pressure for safe ops.
301
What are key dangers of detachable waterways?
No tip control, exposure risk, and hose/nozzle failure risk.
302
How does cold weather affect aerial operation?
Increases oil viscosity, forms ice, and adds weight to aerial device.
303
What is ice shrugging?
Slowly extending/retracting aerial device to remove ice buildup.
304
What are signs of heat damage to an aerial?
Discoloration, deformed welds, warped metal, improper function.
305
When must a damaged aerial be removed from service?
Immediately, until EVT repairs and NFPA® 1911 retesting is complete.
306
What signs indicate aerial mechanical/power failure?
Unusual noise, fluid leaks, gauge abnormalities, or aerial drift.
307
What action is taken if aerial failure occurs?
Stop operation, remove personnel, bed device, and take unit out of service.
308
When can below-grade operations be performed?
Only if the manufacturer approves and within rated limits.
309
What are the four fireground strategies for aerial devices?
Rescue, Ventilation, Elevated Fire Attack, Exposure Protection.
310
What should be announced before aerial master stream operations?
Interior attack crews must be notified and clear.
311
What is the safest rescue approach with an aerial device?
Upwind, level grade, no obstructions, with the turntable upwind of the target.
312
Why should you avoid contacting a building with an aerial ladder during victim boarding?
It can cause twisting and potential failure if the opposite beam bends.
313
What is the 'knee-sit method'?
Rescue method where victim sits on firefighter's knee while descending the aerial ladder.
314
What angle should the blitz attack stream enter a window?
Approximately 30 degrees upward toward the ceiling.
315
What is the first priority during rescue operations?
Victims most severely threatened.
316
What does 'platform placement' depend on?
Rescue method: either lifting over rail or entering through access gate.
317
What is required for rope rescue using aerials?
NFPA® 1983 compliant equipment and personnel trained to NFPA® 1670.
318
When should a Stokes basket be used with an aerial?
When victims are unconscious or unable to climb down.
319
Why are aerial devices not ideal for water rescues?
They are not designed for lateral forces and may become unstable or damaged.
320
How should aerials be used for ventilation?
From the unburned side, with 6 ft of ladder extending past roof edge.
321
Why should you avoid breaking windows during exposure protection?
May worsen fire spread and increase water damage.
322
How should fog streams be positioned for cross ventilation?
Slightly above window and to the upwind side.
323
What is the role of elevated standpipes?
Provide hoselines to upper levels when interior standpipe systems are inoperable.
324
What stream should be used to avoid pushing fire into unburned areas?
Solid or straight stream aimed from the unburned side.
325
What is a significant risk of foam use in elevated master streams?
Wind can break up the foam due to its high air content.
326
How should apparatus be placed for exposure protection?
With a clear escape route and ability to swing stream between fire and exposure.
327
What happens if rope is anchored to the ground while using an aerial device?
Device bears double the load, increasing collapse risk.
328
What does Skill Sheet 20-1 cover?
Steps for deploying elevated master stream operations.
329
What is the main advantage of articulating aerial devices for parapets?
Ability to reach over parapet and set platform directly on roof level.
330
Why must extension locks be engaged before aerial rescues?
To reduce twisting and increase structural rigidity of the aerial device.
331
What are indicators for switching to a defensive attack?
Unsafe conditions for handlines, IC decision, or high water needs (e.g., attic fires).
332
What hazard may result from elevated stream use on structure fires?
Structural collapse due to water weight (2,000 lb per 250 gpm).
333
How can aerial devices aid in aircraft rescue?
Providing elevated access to aircraft or assisting with ventilation and thermal imaging.
