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ARFF Eng. Promotion Test > complete ARFF and Pump BOOK > Flashcards

complete ARFF and Pump BOOK Flashcards

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1
Q

What NFPA standard outlines qualifications for Airport Firefighters?

A

NFPA 1003 - Standard for Airport Firefighter Professional Qualifications

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2
Q

What does NFPA 403 cover?

A

Standard for Aircraft Rescue Firefighting at Airports

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3
Q

What federal regulation governs ARFF requirements at airports?

A

DOT Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) Title 14 Part 139 (14 CFR Part 139)

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4
Q

What are the three primary ARFF mission goals?

A

Life Safety, Property Conservation, Environmental Protection

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5
Q

What event led to the formation of the FAA in 1958?

A

Safety concerns over a series of midair collisions

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6
Q

What is ICAO and what does it do?

A

International Civil Aviation Organization; sets rules for the United Nations and publishes standards for required vehicles, agent quantities, and response times

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7
Q

Where are airport flight data recorders typically located?

A

Cargo compartment or tail section

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8
Q

What foam is most commonly used by ARFF and what is its shelf life?

A

AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam), with a shelf life of 20 years

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9
Q

What defines a ‘Controlled Airport’?

A

An airport having an Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)

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10
Q

What are the four functional positions in ARFF operations?

A

Airport Firefighter, EMS, Rescue Team Member, Driver/Operator, Officer

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11
Q

What NFPA standard outlines firefighter professional qualifications?

A

NFPA 1001 - Standard for Firefighter Professional Qualifications

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12
Q

What federal agency funds equipment purchases through the Airport Improvement Program?

A

FAA (Federal Aviation Administration)

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13
Q

What does NTSB stand for and what is its role?

A

National Transportation Safety Board; determines cause of accidents and maintains accident database

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14
Q

What agency was created after 9/11 and oversees national transportation security?

A

TSA (Transportation Security Administration)

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15
Q

What is the primary focus of ICAO regulations?

A

Sets rules for the United Nations regarding required vehicles, agent quantities, and response times

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16
Q

What is the role of aircraft crash charts?

A

Provide ARFF crews with aircraft-specific hazard and access information

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17
Q

What are key indicators of a survivable aircraft crash?

A

Low impact, intact fuselage, and absence of fuel fire

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18
Q

What are examples of ARFF functional positions?

A

EMS, Rescue Team Member, Driver/Operator, Officer

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19
Q

What is the purpose of cadet/recruit training?

A

Initial training prior to assignment to ARFF operations

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20
Q

What is OJT and when is it used?

A

On-the-job training used in daily ARFF operations under supervision

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21
Q

What does in-service training include?

A

Classroom instruction and hands-on live fire training

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22
Q

What organization sets the primary fire safety standards?

A

NFPA (National Fire Protection Association)

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23
Q

What does AOA stand for in airport operations?

A

Airport Operations Area

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24
Q

What are target hazards in airport environments?

A

Fuel storage, terminals, maintenance areas, and dangerous goods

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25
What is the primary responsibility of the ARFF team during an aircraft incident?
Fire control, evacuation, and rescue
26
What are the primary extinguishing agents used by ARFF?
Water and foam
27
What are complementary extinguishing agents?
Dry chemical powder and clean agents
28
What defines a controlled airport?
An airport with an Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)
29
What is 14 CFR Part 139?
Code of Federal Regulations governing ARFF operations at airports
30
What color lights outline taxiways?
Blue
31
What color lights indicate the centerline of taxiways and approach ends of runways?
Green
32
What do red lights indicate on an airfield?
Obstructions such as buildings or parked aircraft
33
What do yellow guard lights indicate?
Areas that require permission to pass
34
What is a displaced threshold?
Marks the beginning of a runway suitable for takeoff but not landing
35
What is the Rapid Response Area (RRA)?
500’ each side from center of runway and 1650’ each end
36
What is CRFFAA?
Critical Rescue Firefighting Access Area — 500’ each side of runway and 3300’ each end
37
What are the primary colors of airport signage?
White, yellow, and red
38
What do white X markings indicate?
Closed taxiways or runways
39
What is the segmented circle used for at airports?
Displays traffic pattern indicators and wind direction
40
What is the width of a runway safety area?
250 feet on each side of the runway centerline
41
How long is the runway end safety area supposed to be?
At least 300 feet
42
What type of light configuration indicates the last 3000 feet of a runway?
Alternating red and white
43
What does a hold position marking consist of?
Two solid and two dashed yellow lines
44
How should airport fueling trucks be grounded?
Using a metal cable to equalize static electrical charge
45
What is a dead man device?
A valve device that must be manually held open to operate
46
What is the most common fueling method for smaller aircraft?
Over-the-wing fueling
47
What is the over-the-wing fueling hazard?
Static electricity and open flame proximity
48
What is the function of glycol containment tanks?
Contain de-icing fluid and prevent environmental contamination
49
Where should fuel extinguishers be located during fueling?
Every 100 feet and midway between gates
50
What is the required rating for portable extinguishers at aircraft fueling locations?
Minimum 20B
51
What is the preferred extinguishing agent for AVGAS fires?
Foam
52
Why should AVGAS fires not be extinguished with only water?
It may spread the fire due to its low flash point
53
What type of fire behavior do Jet A fuels exhibit?
Higher flash point and lower flame spread
54
Why are pitot tubes hazardous?
They can become extremely hot and cause burns
55
What type of light is located on the right side of an aircraft?
Green
56
What do red flashing lights on aircraft indicate?
Aircraft is under power
57
What safety area extends outward from approach and departure ends of a runway?
1000’ - 2000’
58
How are taxiways typically named?
Main ones by letters, stub feeders by adding numbers (e.g., Alpha, Alpha 1)
59
What markings indicate a non-movement area boundary?
One solid and one dashed yellow line
60
What does the color white indicate on runways?
Runway edge markings, centerlines, and threshold markings
61
What section of the aircraft houses most aircraft systems?
Fuselage
62
What is the purpose of static wicks?
Draw static electricity from the aircraft and discharge it into the atmosphere
63
What is the primary purpose of aircraft nacelles?
Housing the engine and containing pooled fuel which can pose a fire hazard
64
What component controls aircraft rolling or banking?
Ailerons located on the trailing edge of the wings
65
What is the function of elevators in aircraft?
Control pitch (up and down movement) via horizontal stabilizer
66
What aircraft section houses the rudder?
Vertical stabilizer, controlling yaw or turning
67
What component provides electrical and hydraulic power when main engines aren’t running?
APU (Auxiliary Power Unit)
68
What are the four sections of a gas turbine engine?
Compressor, combustion, turbine/exhaust, accessory section
69
What is the function of a turbofan engine?
Increases thrust by increasing total airflow
70
Which jet engine is commonly used in commuter and cargo aircraft?
Turboprop
71
Which type of engine is used in helicopters to drive the main and tail rotors?
Turboshaft
72
What aircraft engine component prevents icing but can cause burns?
Pitot tubes
73
What aircraft component helps slow it by redirecting jet exhaust?
Thrust reverser
74
What is the simplest type of jet engine?
Turbojet
75
What metal is most commonly used in aircraft construction?
Aluminum
76
Why is magnesium dangerous in aircraft fires?
It is difficult to extinguish and burns at high temperatures
77
What alloy is commonly used in landing gear structural members?
Aluminum lithium or beryllium
78
What component is used to shut off fuel during emergency aircraft operations?
‘T’ or ‘L’ shaped handle
79
How quickly should an escape slide deploy and be ready for use?
Within 6 seconds
80
How many passengers per minute can an escape slide accommodate?
70 passengers per minute
81
How fast must an aircraft be evacuated?
Within 90 seconds
82
What wind speed is the limit for safe escape slide use?
25 knots
83
What type of cargo class has built-in fire protection systems?
Class C
84
What type of cargo door is hinged at the top and swings out and up?
Cargo aircraft doors
85
How do most military cargo aircraft open cargo doors?
Manually or via electric/hydraulic systems
86
What device is used to gain access to aircraft doors when electrical power fails?
Ratchet (1/4, 3/8, or 1/2 inch)
87
What should never be used on mechanically opening aircraft doors?
Pneumatic drivers
88
What is the safest angle to approach a fighter jet with potential rocket munitions?
45° angle
89
What aircraft system provides emergency electrical/hydraulic power in flight?
RAT (Ram Air Turbine)
90
What aircraft fuel has the lowest flash point and greatest volatility?
AVGAS
91
What foam has the ability to ‘self-heal’ if disturbed?
AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam)
92
What is the most common foam concentrate in ARFF?
AFFF
93
What is the expansion ratio for high expansion foam?
200:1 to 1000:1
94
What type of foam is required for polar solvents?
Alcohol-resistant Class B foam
95
What is the foam ratio for hydrocarbon fires?
1-3% Class B foam
96
What is the foam ratio for polar solvent fires?
3-6% Class B foam
97
What is the ideal foam application method for a pool of liquid fire?
Roll-on method
98
Which method is best for applying foam at an elevated object near liquid?
Deflection or bank-down method
99
What is the PCA in foam firefighting?
Practical Critical Area, 2/3 the size of the Theoretical Critical Area (TCA)
100
What is the TCA formula for an aircraft over 65 feet long?
TCA = L x (100 + W)
101
What happens if inlet water pressure exceeds 10 psi on a foam proportioner?
Venturi effect fails and no foam is drawn in
102
How often should foam be tested with a refractometer?
At least twice per year
103
What type of nozzle produces the best quality foam?
Aspirating nozzle
104
Which foam system uses compressed air to inject air into the stream?
High energy foam system
105
What is the best extinguishing agent for engine/APU/EPU fires?
Clean agent
106
Which agent should be used first in 3D aircraft fires?
Dry chemical (PKP or similar)
107
What is the standard nozzle flow rate for a dry chemical handline?
Minimum 5 lbs/sec
108
What is the required range for a dry chemical handline?
At least 25 feet
109
What kind of extinguisher is best for electronics with no residue?
Clean agent
110
What is the ideal suppression method for a wheel fire involving magnesium?
Water from a safe distance followed by Class D extinguisher
111
What is the critical burn-through time for aluminum aircraft skin?
1 minute
112
What is the recommended nozzle positioning after fire extinguishment?
Back away with nozzle pointed at fire area
113
What aircraft fuel produces the highest flame spread and is similar to Jet B?
AVGAS
114
What is the function of the Aircraft Certification Manual (ACM)?
Outlines how an airport will meet Part 139 certification requirements
115
How often must an emergency plan be tested?
Every 3 years
116
What are the three levels of aircraft alerts?
Alert I – Local standby, Alert II – Full emergency, Alert III – Aircraft accident
117
What is the difference between an emergency and an incident?
Emergency requires immediate action; an incident does not
118
What critical phase of flight has the highest risk?
5 minutes after takeoff and 10 minutes before landing
119
What is the 'Sterile Cockpit Rule'?
No non-essential duties below 10,000 feet
120
What distance does the Clear Zone cover?
3000 feet from runway end
121
What agency is responsible for family support after aviation disasters?
Red Cross (under Aviation Disaster Family Assistance Act of 1996)
122
What document identifies the location of dangerous goods on aircraft?
Cargo manifest
123
What are Action Potential Zones (APZ) used for?
To determine zones at higher risk for aircraft incidents
124
What is the response time required for ARFF vehicles?
First vehicle in 3 minutes, others in 4 minutes
125
Who investigates civil aircraft accidents?
FAA or NTSB
126
What are the responsibilities of law enforcement during aircraft incidents?
Scene security, access control, perimeter, large-scale evacuations
127
What agency assists with locating downed aircraft?
Civil Air Patrol (CAP)
128
What is the primary hazard of military aircraft crashes?
Weapons systems and emergency escape devices
129
What is the hazard of hydrazine?
Highly toxic, hypergolic fuel used in military aircraft EPUs
130
How far should personnel retreat if a weapon cannot be extinguished on a fighter aircraft?
2000 feet
131
What is the most dangerous and difficult landing gear failure to manage?
Single main gear up
132
What material should be used to insulate fuselage during overhaul?
Blankets or insulation to preserve aircraft structure
133
What does NFPA 402 cover?
Guide for Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting operations
134
What is the main priority when ARFF arrives on scene?
Life safety and establishing rescue paths
135
What are the three zones established at a hazardous materials incident?
Hot, Warm, and Cold Zones
136
Where is the decontamination corridor located?
Upwind side of the Warm Zone
137
What are the four goals of emergency response?
Life Safety, Incident Stabilization, Property Conservation, Societal Restoration
138
What is the best suppression agent for running or flowing fuel fires?
Dry chemical (PKP)
139
What is the preferred method for fuel tank cooling during a fire?
Water fog or mist
140
What are the primary indicators of an uncontained engine failure?
Engine fragments scattered outside casing
141
What is Skydrol and its hazard?
Aviation hydraulic fluid that decomposes into toxic vapors at high temperatures
142
What system is used to identify hazardous materials in U.S. air transport?
CFR Title 49 Part 175
143
What is the purpose of EMAS (Engineered Materials Arrestor System)?
Stops aircraft overruns at end of runways
144
What defines a high-impact crash?
G-forces that exceed human tolerance levels
145
What are the triage color categories?
Red – Immediate, Yellow – Delayed, Green – Minor, Black – Deceased
146
What is the purpose of a PASS device?
Alerts rescuers if firefighter is motionless for 30 seconds
147
What is the ideal sound level for a PASS device?
95 decibels at 3 meters
148
How often should batteries in PASS devices be changed?
Every 6 months
149
How should composite fibers be handled during extrication?
Wear respiratory protection due to irritation risk
150
What is the main hazard with LOX (Liquid Oxygen)?
Extremely unstable and shock-sensitive
151
What action should be taken when encountering an undetonated aircraft ejection seat?
Do not touch it unless trained
152
How long can a jet engine remain hot after shutdown?
Up to 20 minutes
153
What is the typical red beacon light an indicator of?
Running aircraft engine
154
What is the width of a wheel fragment zone?
45° out to 289 feet
155
What are ballistic recovery systems (BRS)?
Parachute systems that deploy from small aircraft in emergencies
156
How far away should you remain from a propeller in motion?
At least 15 feet
157
What is the hazard of helicopter main rotor blades?
Can dip to within 4 feet of the ground
158
What is the danger of approaching a helicopter from the rear?
Main tail rotor is invisible and lethal
159
What do emergency locator beacons (ELB) do?
Transmit signals to aid in locating downed aircraft
160
What does SERP stand for?
Standard Emergency Response Plan
161
What type of signals are used for air searches?
ELB – Emergency Locator Beacon
162
What type of signals are used for ground searches?
Personal Locator Beacon
163
What should be the minimum clearance around a landing helicopter?
100 feet on all sides
164
How should helicopter tools be carried when approaching the aircraft?
Below waist level
165
What method is preferred for fighting cargo hold fires?
Use clean agent through access ports and secure hatch
166
What happens if fire burns through an aircraft skin?
Structural failure and possible collapse
167
What method is used to locate hidden fires inside aircraft walls?
Blistered paint or discoloration as indicators
168
What is the best foam to use when multiple agents may be deployed simultaneously?
AFFF
169
When should Class D extinguishers be used?
Only on magnesium or titanium fires
170
What is the flash point of Jet A fuel?
Approximately 100°F
171
What is the flash point of AVGAS?
-49°F
172
How long does it take to burn through aircraft aluminum skin?
60 seconds
173
How are aircraft fuel tanks typically vented?
To the opposite side of fueling
174
What is the purpose of vortex generators?
Maintain steady airflow over flight control surfaces
175
How should foam be reapplied during a long fire operation?
Reapply as water drains or vaporizes to maintain blanket
176
What color are hold short signs on taxiways?
White letters on red background
177
What type of nozzle must be used with protein and fluoroprotein foam?
Aspirating nozzle
178
What ARFF feature alerts drivers of safe maneuvering limits?
LAI – Lateral Acceleration Indicator
179
What does DEVS stand for?
Driver Enhanced Vision System
180
What foam system expands at a 20:1 ratio and is injected with compressed air?
CAFS – Compressed Air Foam System
181
What is the most common type of aircraft accident?
General Aviation (GA) crashes
182
Where should initial triage be performed?
At the location victims are found
183
What is the function of MADAS?
Monitoring and Data Acquisition System
184
What is the ideal nozzle angle for applying water to a burning wheel assembly?
45° angle
185
What does the FAA prohibit ARFF vehicles from carrying?
Alcohol-resistant foam concentrate purchased with FAA funds
186
What is the average foam application range of a turret?
Must begin within 30 feet of the vehicle
187
What types of hand tools are required in ARFF operations?
Crash axe, dearm tool, reciprocating saw, and webbing
188
What is the main job of the flight crew during an emergency if conscious?
Initiate aircraft evacuation
189
What is the best position for a rescue ladder near a door?
Opposite the door hinge or on the fuselage
190
What does FFFP foam combine?
Heat resistance of FPF and knockdown of AFFF
191
What is the flash point of Jet B fuel?
Approximately -20°F
192
What causes 'tailpipe fire' in an aircraft?
Too much fuel injected without ignition
193
What technique is used to ventilate using water fog?
Hydraulic ventilation
194
What is a common method of mechanical ventilation on aircraft?
Using PPV or opening existing doors and hatches
195
What hazard is associated with radar systems on aircraft?
Ignition source and health hazard if active
196
Where is the aircraft radar system typically located?
In the nose of the aircraft
197
What colors indicate danger areas on airfield signs?
Red background with white lettering
198
What is a common use of colored salvage tarps in ARFF?
Triage area organization
199
What is the NFPA standard for hazmat response that includes decon corridor guidelines?
NFPA 472
200
What are the three main parts of an aircraft fuselage?
Cockpit, passenger cabin, and cargo section
201
What is the primary hazard of the aircraft’s electronic and avionics bays?
Confined space and possible electrical or fuel fires
202
What is the minimum flow rate for ASPN (Aircraft Skin Penetrating Nozzle)?
Typically 350 GPM
203
How should ARFF drivers position apparatus at an aircraft crash scene?
For the greatest amount of good for the greatest amount of people
204
What is the function of a Load Sequencer?
Turns equipment on in sequence to prevent overload
205
What should the maximum play in a steering wheel be?
No more than 10% each side
206
What is the minimum required extinguisher rating at a fueling location?
20B
207
What is the foam concentrate requirement for 500 gallons of water?
15 gallons of foam
208
What are the four principles of emergency apparatus inspection?
Fluids, tires, equipment, and safety features
209
What are the most common causes of firefighter injury at the airport?
Accidents and poor situational awareness
210
What is the preferred method for aircraft ventilation post-fire?
Positive pressure ventilation (PPV)
211
What is the primary benefit of an aspirating nozzle?
Produces high-expansion, stable foam
212
What is a RIT team and when is it required?
Rapid Intervention Team, required at B-E index airports
213
What is the benefit of compressed air foam (CAFS)?
Greater expansion ratio and better coverage
214
What is a 'crash net'?
Direct line conference circuit connecting ATCT and emergency responders
215
What is the duty of the flight service station (FSS)?
Assist with weather info and traffic updates at airports without towers
216
What is a critical safety practice when operating near fuel spills?
Remove ignition sources and cover spills with foam
217
How long can an aircraft’s metal surfaces retain heat after a fire?
Up to 20 minutes
218
Why should composite aircraft materials be handled with care after cutting?
They can cause respiratory and skin irritation
219
What is the recommended nozzle pressure for foam application?
Typically around 100 psi for handlines
220
What are the two primary types of foam proportioning systems?
Venturi and pressurized injection
221
What is the hazard of allowing firefighting foam to degrade during an incident?
Reignition of flammable surfaces
222
What should be done if composite material fire is smoldering?
Apply water or foam, avoid disturbing fibers
223
What does 'piggyback' mean in dry chemical application?
Vehicle-mounted unit with high lb/sec discharge rate
224
What determines the classification of an ARFF apparatus (Index A–E)?
Length of aircraft and number of daily departures
225
What is the safest firefighting technique for magnesium fires in aircraft wheels?
Let burn or extinguish from distance using Class D agent
226
What is the required extinguisher rating for high flow fuel servicing locations?
Minimum 80B and 125 lbs
227
What is the maximum reach for dry chemical turret application?
100 feet under no wind conditions
228
What is the function of MADAS?
Records 120 seconds before and 15 seconds after ARFF accidents
229
What is the common reaction between water/foam and aircraft metals like magnesium?
Violent reactions, possible explosions
230
What is the cargo classification for fully cargo-filled aircraft with no passenger access?
Class D Cargo Compartment
231
What are 'unit load devices' used for?
Cargo pallets or containers secured in aircraft cargo holds
232
What is the expansion ratio for protein-based foams?
Typically 6:1 to 10:1 with aspirating nozzles
233
What is the most stable foam type for long-term application?
AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam)
234
What is the hazard of water-only application on a Class B fire?
Can spread the fire or worsen it
235
What is the flash point of Jet A-1?
Approximately 100°F
236
What nozzle is preferred for using protein or fluoroprotein foams?
Aspirating nozzle
237
What are the characteristics of wide-body aircraft?
Dual aisles, high passenger capacity, more than 64,000 gallons fuel
238
What is the main structural material for older aircraft?
Aluminum
239
What is the function of a vertical stabilizer?
Houses the rudder for directional (yaw) control
240
What is the danger zone around an active jet engine?
30 feet from front and sides
241
What happens if you disturb LOX with tools or boots?
It may detonate due to shock sensitivity
242
What aircraft system provides power while engines are shut down?
APU – Auxiliary Power Unit
243
How does a turboprop engine generate thrust?
Turbojet drives a propeller via gearbox
244
How should a RAT be deployed in an emergency?
Automatically or manually from under fuselage
245
How long is an escape slide designed to empty an aircraft?
90 seconds
246
What determines the ARFF index for an airport?
Length of the largest aircraft with five or more daily departures
247
What is a displaced threshold?
Portion of runway usable for takeoff but not for landing
248
What color indicates runway edge lighting?
White
249
How should tool staging areas be organized?
By tool function and accessibility
250
What should be done before opening cargo doors on aircraft?
Secure power and determine manual access
251
What are Vortex Generators used for?
Maintaining steady airflow over flight control surfaces
252
What is the range for dry chemical HRET systems?
100 feet
253
What is the ideal method of communication in high-noise aircraft incidents?
Hand signals
254
What action should be taken if agent supply is exhausted during operations?
Flash headlights and sound siren
255
How should hoses be deployed during dry chemical application?
Fully unrolled to prevent surge or rupture
256
What is the function of FPF (Fluoroprotein Foam)?
Fuel shedding quality, used for subsurface injection
257
What is a common construction hazard on airports for ARFF?
Topography limiting access and fuel drainage
258
What are the characteristics of the main landing gear?
Brakes, steering, and may retract into fuselage or wings
259
What is the difference between radial and reciprocating engines?
Radial is round and used in large aircraft; reciprocating in small aircraft
260
What is the hazard of magnetic ignition systems (magnetos)?
Can spark even when battery is disconnected
261
Why is pitot tube location important?
Located near fuselage, can cause burns
262
How should you approach a helicopter during rescue?
From the front or sides, never from the rear
263
What are the warning signs of hot brakes?
Smoke, odor, glowing parts
264
What is the most common location for aircraft fuel leaks?
Wing tanks and nacelles
265
What is the function of a segmented circle at an airport?
Displays wind direction and traffic pattern indicators
266
What are white and red alternating lights used for?
Marking the last 3000 feet of a runway
267
What is a significant fire hazard in general aviation aircraft?
Heating systems located in the nose
268
What is the difference between hydrocarbon and polar solvent fuels?
Hydrocarbons repel water; polar solvents mix with water
269
What percentage of modern automobile fuel is a polar solvent?
Up to 10%
270
What is required before discharging a wheeled extinguisher?
Fully deploy hose line
271
What action should be taken before approaching an aircraft with suspected radioactive cargo?
Verify manifest and isolate area
272
What is the expansion ratio of medium expansion foam?
20:1 to 200:1
273
What should be worn within 10 feet of a waterline during operations?
Flotation device
274
What is the proper method of laddering a wing?
Ladder the leading edge, never flaps or slats
275
What are the signs of structural fatigue after a cargo hold fire?
Sagging floor or weakened supports above
276
What type of foam must be used with non-aspirating nozzles?
Film-forming foam like AFFF
277
How are dead man devices used in fueling operations?
They must be manually held to keep valve open
278
What causes a tailpipe fire?
Excess unburned fuel injected into the engine
279
What do alternating red and green tower lights signal?
Exercise extreme caution
280
How is foam typically stored on ARFF trucks?
In tanks or 5-gallon pails/barrels
281
How often must truck-mounted foam be tested?
At least once per year
282
What does 'Suck, Squeeze, Bang, Blow' refer to?
Operating principle of a jet engine
283
What is the max slope a fully loaded ARFF truck should climb?
As defined by angle of approach and departure specs from manufacturer
284
What are the two most common wheel assembly hazards?
Hot brakes and wheel fires
285
What does the acronym CAP stand for?
Civil Air Patrol
286
Where should the treatment zones be set up during an MCI?
As close to the scene as safely possible
287
What is the first priority for ARFF personnel at a crash scene?
Protecting occupant evacuation routes
288
What temperature do fusible plugs in wheel assemblies typically melt?
Between 300°F to 400°F
289
What is the most dangerous result of landing with one main gear up?
Severe instability and potential structural failure
290
What federal directive mandates NIMS compliance for federal funding?
HSPD-5 (Homeland Security Presidential Directive)
291
What is the primary fire hazard in GA aircraft?
Nose-located heating system with a history of fires
292
What tool is used to disarm military ejection seats?
Dearm Tool
293
What aircraft section is commonly used for black box (FDR/CVR) placement?
Tail section or cargo compartment
294
What is the hazard of composite aircraft materials when burned?
Can create respiratory damage similar to asbestos
295
What is the #1 killer of burned or trauma victims?
Shock (a form of hypothermia)
296
What type of extinguisher should be used around avionics?
Clean agent (e.g., Halon 1211, 1301)
297
What is the difference between rocket and missile?
Rocket has no guidance system; missile has one
298
What is a gravity bomb and how should it be extinguished?
Unguided bomb; water is the agent of choice
299
What are the dimensions of a CRFFAA zone?
500' each side of runway center and 3300' at each end
300
What is the 'short burst' technique?
5–10 seconds of foam discharge followed by reassessment
301
What does a 'black letter on yellow sign' at an airport signify?
Location, direction, destination, or informational signage
302
What are signs of a backdraft hazard in aircraft fire?
Smoke-stained windows, puffing smoke, hot doors
303
What equipment should be worn when filling dry chemical extinguishers?
Eye protection and a dust mask or respirator
304
What should be done if an ARFF truck’s DEVS or FLIR systems reduce visibility?
Use slow, cautious driving
305
What is the function of load monitors in ARFF trucks?
Prevent electrical system overload by shedding low-priority loads
306
What is the function of the fire station’s public address system?
Relay information to responding personnel
307
What is the role of Unicom frequency?
Non-government communication at GA airports
308
What foam proportioning system requires PTO to operate?
Bypass Type Balanced Pressure Proportioner
309
What is the function of the Airport Operations Area (AOA)?
Taxiways, runways, ramps where aircraft and support vehicles operate
310
What action should be taken before disconnecting a GPU?
Shut down the unit to prevent surge or damage
311
What is the safest direction to approach a rocket engine fire?
45° angle
312
What are the two types of foam proportioning technologies?
Induction and injection
313
What is the preferred method to apply foam to a large surface fire?
Begin at farthest point and move toward you
314
What are two exceptions to the '2 in, 2 out' rule?
Known life hazard and incipient stage with potential rescue
315
What agency governs hazardous materials transport via aircraft?
Department of Transportation (CFR Title 49, Part 175)
316
What is the best method for ventilation in aircraft with reinforced nose or tail?
Avoid cutting reinforced areas, ventilate through hatches or windows
317
How long should foam take to drain from a 5-gallon bucket into ARFF tank?
Under 20 seconds
318
What is the acronym GPU?
Ground Power Unit
319
Why is magnesium used in aircraft despite its hazards?
Lightweight, used where forcible entry is unlikely
320
What is the main purpose of vortex generators on wings?
Maintain smooth airflow over control surfaces
321
What is the difference between FPF and FFFP foams?
FPF has fuel-shedding ability; FFFP combines FPF and AFFF features
322
What is the most common nozzle on ARFF handlines?
Fog or air aspirating nozzle
323
What is the function of a speed brake?
Helps slow aircraft using drag from rear or underside of fuselage
324
What is the backup system for electrical and hydraulic power in flight?
RAT (Ram Air Turbine)
325
What should never be used with pneumatic rescue tools?
Compressed oxygen (can cause explosion)
326
What is a main hazard of ejection seats during rescue?
Gas or rocket-powered deployment, lethal if activated
327
What does 'situational awareness' refer to?
Understanding environment and anticipating events or hazards
328
What is the primary role of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)?
Coordinate large-scale response and logistics
329
What are warning signs of uncontained engine failure?
Fragments and debris around engine exterior
330
What are components of COPLA/F in ICS?
Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, Admin/Finance, Intelligence
331
What is the purpose of dry powder extinguishing agents?
Used for Class D metal fires (e.g., magnesium, titanium)
332
What type of hazard is depleted uranium in aircraft noses?
Radiological and physical hazard
333
Why should hatches be approached with caution?
They may fall open or be jettisoned unexpectedly
334
What is the benefit of vehicle-mounted thermal imaging cameras (TIC)?
Locate hidden fires and heat sources
335
What foam component must be mixed before air is introduced?
Foam solution
336
What is a key safety precaution with hot brakes?
Avoid direct frontal approach; cool with water fog from safe angle
337
What is the optimal ladder placement for upper deck access in NLA?
Use aerial or platform with fall protection
338
What are 'guard lights' and where are they located?
Amber lights indicating hold bars or restricted areas
339
What are signs that composite materials are burning?
Black smoke, sweet smell, skin/eye irritation
340
What is the advantage of HRET systems?
Allows agent delivery at elevation or into fuselage with ASPN
341
What does 'black on yellow' mean in airfield signs?
Location, direction, or destination indicators
342
How should foam be applied using 'rain down' method?
Apply in a high arc to reach large fires or tank tops
343
What causes hydraulic ventilation?
Water fog draws smoke out through window or vent
344
What are three sources for cargo manifest verification?
Flight deck, loading pouch, and aircraft exterior
345
What are signs of fuel pooling under an aircraft?
Shiny surface, rainbow sheen, fuel odor
346
What is the maximum flame temperature of titanium fires?
Above 3000°F
347
What is a common cause of partial evacuation failure?
Lodged cabin door or stairs in commuter aircraft
348
How is 'load shedding' triggered?
Automatically by load monitor to prevent power overload
349
What are three common dry chemical agents?
Sodium bicarbonate, PKP, potassium chloride
350
What material are most aircraft windows made of?
Triple-pane plastic composite
351
What is the nozzle reaction effect?
Force felt from flowing water or agent, impacts stability
352
What is the expansion ratio for low-expansion foam?
Up to 20:1
353
What ARFF class vehicle carries up to 500 gallons of water?
Class 1 Rapid Intervention Vehicle
354
What are the hazards of over-the-wing fueling?
Static discharge, ignition source proximity
355
What is the best method to identify hidden fires in voids?
Thermal imaging or visual inspection after overhaul
356
What are the three flow methods for dry chemical on ARFF trucks?
Handline, piggyback, and water stream injection
357
What is the purpose of a 'command post beacon'?
Green rotating light to mark command location
358
What are typical reaction signs of composite fiber inhalation?
Coughing, eye irritation, respiratory discomfort
359
What safety equipment should be issued to ARFF crew?
Helmet, SCBA, PASS device, turnout or proximity gear
360
What does NFPA 1901 cover?
Standards for ARFF apparatus equipment and features
361
What are the two ways foam can degrade effectiveness?
Drainage due to heat and mechanical disruption
362
Why are dry chemical agents last resort for interior fires?
Corrosive and may damage sensitive systems
363
How do you ensure effective batch mixing of foam?
Flush system, pre-measure concentrate, mix thoroughly
364
What is a common problem with water-only fire attacks?
Does not suppress vapor or reignition
365
What is required before using a cutting torch on an aircraft?
Verify no fuel or explosive hazards are present
366
What causes aircraft tires to explode during fires?
Heat buildup and trapped pressure in wheel assemblies
367
What happens to aircraft tires with fusible plugs during heat exposure?
Plugs melt, releasing air to prevent explosion
368
How should flammable liquids on water be treated?
Sweep or blanket with foam, avoid ignition sources
369
What is EMAS and where is it located?
Engineered Materials Arrestor System at runway ends to stop overruns
370
What is the benefit of trenching foam on water?
Contains floating fuel and limits fire spread
371
What does FSS stand for?
Flight Service Station
372
How do aircraft windows typically fail during fires?
Melt or pop out from heat and pressure
373
What is the safety consideration with auto-deploying escape slides?
They deploy rapidly and forcefully, risk of injury
374
What should be done before entering E&E bays?
Shut down power and assess fire risk
375
What are hot brakes and how are they identified?
Brakes that overheat during landing; identified by odor, smoke, or glow
376
What does a red light with a white letter indicate on an airfield?
Runway hold position – stop required
377
What is the danger of igniting composite materials?
Toxic smoke and possible structural collapse
378
How should personnel respond to signs of composite fiber exposure?
Exit area, decontaminate, and seek medical attention
379
What is the primary method for ARFF to handle uncontained fuel fires?
Apply foam in roll-on or bank-down pattern
380
Why is interior aircraft overhaul more complex than in structures?
Numerous void spaces, hidden fires, and sensitive materials
381
How often should direct communication lines between ATCT and fire station be tested?
Every 24 hours
382
What are the symptoms of hydrazine exposure?
Ammonia smell, eye/nose irritation, dizziness, nausea
383
Where is the APU typically located?
Tail section of the aircraft
384
How can a tailpipe fire usually be extinguished?
Shut off fuel and spool engine – self-extinguishes
385
What does 'PPV' stand for?
Positive Pressure Ventilation
386
What equipment is used to detect foam concentration accuracy?
Refractometer or conductivity meter
387
What is the minimum air pressure to operate ARFF vehicle accessories?
80 PSI
388
What is the most effective cooling agent for landing gear fires?
Water fog or mist
389
What is the main reason foam application must be reapplied?
Drainage or vaporization from heat
390
What is the hazard of dry chemical residue?
Corrosive, can damage avionics and electrical systems
391
What should be done if an escape hatch is jammed?
Use 3-sided cut or access alternate exit
392
What is the preferred entry point on business/corporate aircraft?
Main cabin door, usually forward of the left wing
393
What aircraft part often contains flammable hydraulic fluid?
Landing gear bays and flight control systems
394
How can jet engine failure be categorized?
Contained or uncontained, based on debris containment
395
Why is quick foam knockdown critical in large aircraft fires?
Preserves escape routes and protects trapped occupants
396
What is the maximum number of passengers on a New Large Aircraft (NLA)?
Up to 900 people
397
What are signs of a smoldering fire?
White smoke, heat with no visible flames, discoloration
398
What does the ICAO provide in terms of fire protection standards?
Response times, agent quantities, and required vehicles
399
What color light indicates the approach end of a runway?
Green
400
What is the ICAO width for a typical clear zone?
3000 feet
401
What is the purpose of the Aircraft Community Emergency Plan (A/CEP)?
Coordinate mutual aid and define agency roles
402
What material is used for insulation in aircraft fuselages?
Composite material or fire-resistant padding
403
Why is helicopter blade sag dangerous?
Can strike personnel as it dips close to ground
404
What should be avoided during overhaul if aircraft is under investigation?
Disturbing evidence or bodies before documentation
405
What system stores vehicle telemetry and crash data?
MADAS – Monitoring and Data Acquisition System
406
What airport area must support the weight of ARFF trucks?
Runway End Safety Area (RESA)
407
What are the dimensions of the RRA?
500 feet from centerline, 1650 feet from runway ends
408
What tactic should be used for an engine nacelle fire?
Use clean agent or water stream injection
409
What ARFF foam system is compatible with dry chemical?
AFFF – Film-forming foam
410
What is the warning associated with radar systems on aircraft?
Active radar is an ignition and health hazard
411
What should be done with damaged or suspect foam concentrate?
Test and replace if beyond shelf life or degraded
412
What is the responsibility of the TSA in aircraft incidents?
Screening, cargo checks, and securing transportation systems
413
What component in aircraft fuel systems prevents over-pressurization?
Vent system to opposite wing or fuel tank
414
What is required before operating a manual regeneration switch for a DPF system?
The vehicle must be in park.
415
What does the HEST indicator signify on post-2007 diesel apparatus?
High Exhaust System Temperature during active regeneration.
416
What can happen if DEF fluid is not topped off regularly?
The engine can be derated or enter a 5 MPH limp mode.
417
How long should a hot engine idle to cool before shutdown?
3 to 5 minutes.
418
Why should a diesel engine never be shut off while in motion?
It cuts off fuel flow that lubricates injectors and may cause pressure build-up.
419
What is 'due regard' in emergency vehicle operations?
Operating with the safety of others in mind.
420
What type of apparatus has the most frequent mechanical issues?
Homebuilt apparatus.
421
What is 'situational awareness' while driving?
Knowing surroundings and anticipating events.
422
Where do most emergency vehicle crashes occur?
At intersections.
423
What causes brake fade?
Overuse of brakes leading to loss of function.
424
What are the three angles used to assess truck movement over terrain?
Angle of Approach, Angle of Departure, and Breakover Angle.
425
What happens when the steering axle is too heavy?
Hard steering and increased tire wear.
426
What is engine lugging?
Using too high of a gear for the engine's demand.
427
What is overthrottling?
Injecting more fuel than can be burned, causing carbon buildup and oil dilution.
428
How much following distance should emergency vehicles maintain?
300 to 500 feet.
429
Why should apparatus turn headlights on during daytime responses?
To increase visibility to civilians.
430
What is the function of strobe light preemption devices?
To change traffic lights in favor of approaching emergency vehicles.
431
What is visual head time?
The time a driver has to see and react to conditions ahead.
432
What is the purpose of an exhaust brake?
To help slow the vehicle by restricting exhaust flow.
433
What should always be done when backing apparatus?
Use one or more spotters positioned 8–10 feet behind the truck.
434
What is the NFPA standard that prohibits dashboard riding?
NFPA 1500.
435
What safety feature is required during hose loading operations?
One dedicated spotter and forward movement at no more than 5 MPH.
436
What does DPF stand for and what does it do?
Diesel Particulate Filter; collects soot from exhaust gases.
437
What causes diesel particulate filters to enter 'regen' mode?
Accumulated soot requiring high heat to burn off during regeneration.
438
What component allows operators to inhibit regen for safety?
Regen Inhibit Switch.
439
What is the danger of running an engine without DEF fluid?
It may enter limp mode at 5 MPH and require dealership servicing.
440
What are the three zones established at hazmat incidents?
Hot Zone, Warm Zone, and Cold Zone.
441
What does a 2 short horn blast signal mean during backing operations?
The spotter is signaling the operator to stop or pause backing.
442
How much should apparatus cabinets be able to restrain?
10 times the weight of the contents.
443
What is the recommended method for positioning apparatus for fire attack?
Pre-incident planning and pulling past the building for visibility.
444
When should pumpers lay their own supply lines?
When access is limited or narrow, to avoid delays.
445
Why should pumpers park uphill during a fuel spill incident?
To prevent fuel from running toward the apparatus.
446
What is a collapse zone and how is it calculated?
1.5 times the height of the building.
447
What is the preferred side of the building for aerial apparatus during collapse risk?
Corner of the building.
448
When positioning pumpers for high-rise support, where should they park?
As close to the aerial as possible.
449
What is a dry hydrant?
A non-pressurized pipe with a strainer submerged in water for drafting.
450
How deep must the strainer be for a dry hydrant?
At least 2 feet under water.
451
What is dual pumping?
Using one hydrant to supply two pumpers.
452
What is tandem pumping?
Using two pumpers in series to increase pressure or distance of supply.
453
When should relay pumping be used?
To increase volume over long distances between source and fire.
454
Where should wildland engines be parked during a fire attack?
Leeward side of structures with AC set to recirculate.
455
How far should units stage in Level 1 staging?
1 to 2 blocks away.
456
What distinguishes Level 2 staging?
It’s used for multiple alarms and managed by a Staging Area Manager.
457
Where should the side-mounted pump panel face?
Toward the fire scene for visibility and access.
458
How far must fire apparatus park from railroad tracks?
Maintain a 30-foot clear zone.
459
What is the function of a breakover angle?
It determines the point where the midpoint of the chassis could contact the ground.
460
How does excessive rear overhang affect the angle of departure?
Increases the risk of bottoming out when exiting slopes.
461
Why should firefighters avoid parking on vaulted surfaces?
Due to structural collapse risks from underground voids like basements or culverts.
462
What is the appropriate response if the operator loses visual contact with a spotter?
Stop immediately, set the parking brake, and exit the cab.
463
What is the difference between forward lay and reverse lay?
Forward lay runs hose from source to scene; reverse lay goes from scene to source.
464
What is the main risk when using the exhaust brake system in bad weather?
Loss of traction and control due to reduced braking balance.
465
What is the total stopping distance composed of?
Braking distance plus reaction distance.
466
What is the skid recovery technique for a locked wheel skid?
Ease off the brake and straighten the steering wheel.
467
What type of skid results from excessive throttle?
Acceleration skid.
468
What are the three basic types of auxiliary braking systems?
Engine compression brake, transmission output retarder, exhaust brake.
469
What is the required auxiliary braking system for vehicles over 36,000 lbs per NFPA 1901?
At least one auxiliary braking system.
470
Why should automatic traction control (ATC) be used carefully?
Improper use can reduce traction on slick surfaces by limiting power.
471
What is the Driver Controlled Differential Lock (DCDL)?
Locks wheels to turn at the same speed for improved traction.
472
How should the DCDL be used on slopes?
Disengage while turning or descending downhill.
473
What does the Interaxle Differential Lock do?
Locks tandem axles to improve traction.
474
What is Roll Stability Control (RSC)?
Reduces engine power or applies brakes to avoid rollover.
475
What does Electronic Stability Control (ESC) do?
Applies brakes to specific wheels to maintain direction of travel.
476
What is the visual and audio signal for backing a truck?
Two short horn blasts and visual contact with a spotter.
477
How fast can hose deploy from a moving truck?
7 feet per second at 5 MPH.
478
What is the weight of one cubic foot of water?
62.4 pounds.
479
What is the boiling point of water?
212°F.
480
How much does a gallon of water weigh?
8.3 pounds.
481
How much does water expand when converted to steam?
1700 times its original volume.
482
What extinguishment methods does water provide?
Cooling and smothering (for fuels with specific gravity >1).
483
What is surface tension and how does it affect firefighting?
It resists water penetration; wetting agents help reduce it.
484
Why are water curtains ineffective against radiant heat?
Radiant heat passes through water vapor.
485
What is atmospheric pressure at sea level?
14.7 psi.
486
How much head pressure does 1 psi create?
2.304 feet.
487
What is residual pressure?
Pressure remaining in the system after water flows.
488
What does friction loss vary directly with?
Length of hose and velocity of water flow.
489
What effect does hose diameter have on friction loss?
Larger diameter decreases friction loss.
490
How many 1.5" lines are needed to equal the flow of one 3" line?
Four 1.5" lines.
491
What are the components of a municipal water system?
Primary feeders, secondary feeders, and distributors.
492
What is an OS&Y valve used for?
Indicating valve for sprinkler systems.
493
What is a PIV valve?
Post Indicator Valve that shows open/closed position for water supply.
494
What happens to friction loss in older hose?
It can be up to 50% greater than in new hose.
495
What does NPDP stand for?
Net Pump Discharge Pressure.
496
How is NPDP calculated?
Pump discharge minus intake pressure.
497
What is the formula for Total Pressure Loss (TPL)?
TPL = Friction Loss + Elevation + Appliance loss.
498
What is the coefficient for friction loss in 1 3/4" hose?
15.5
499
What is the coefficient for friction loss in 2.5" hose?
2
500
What is the coefficient for friction loss in 3" hose?
0.677
501
What is the coefficient for friction loss in 4" hose?
0.2
502
What is the coefficient for friction loss in 5" hose?
0.08
503
What nozzle type produces a solid stream?
Smoothbore nozzle.
504
How is GPM calculated for smoothbore nozzles?
GPM = 29.7 x d² x √NP
505
What is the typical nozzle pressure for fog nozzles?
100 psi or 50–75 psi for low-pressure fog nozzles.
506
What angle range defines a narrow fog stream?
15° to 45°.
507
What is a cellar nozzle used for?
Distributing water in concealed spaces without shut-off capability.
508
What is a piercing nozzle designed for?
Penetrating walls or floors to deliver water to concealed fires.
509
What pressure and flow rate is common for a piercing nozzle?
125 GPM at 100 psi.
510
What is nozzle reaction?
The backward force generated by water leaving a nozzle.
511
What is the nozzle reaction formula for a solid stream?
NR = 1.57 x d² x NP
512
What is the nozzle reaction formula for a fog nozzle?
NR = 0.0505 x Q x √NP
513
What is a constant flow nozzle?
A nozzle that discharges the same volume of water regardless of stream pattern.
514
What is an automatic fog nozzle?
A nozzle that adjusts flow rate to maintain constant pressure.
515
What is considered a handline in terms of GPM?
Less than 350 GPM.
516
What is the purpose of a master stream?
To deliver large volumes of water in defensive operations or where handlines are ineffective.
517
When should a master stream be used?
Defensive fire, limited personnel, or when greater reach is needed.
518
What is the typical psi loss for appliances flowing more than 350 GPM?
10 psi for handline appliances, 25 psi for master stream or elevated waterway.
519
How is elevation pressure calculated in buildings?
5 psi per floor above the first.
520
What is the formula for Friction Loss (FL)?
FL = C x Q² x L.
521
What does each variable in FL = C x Q² x L represent?
C = Coefficient, Q = Flow rate in hundreds of GPM, L = Length of hose in hundreds of feet.
522
What is the standard nozzle pressure for smoothbore handlines?
50 psi.
523
What is the standard nozzle pressure for fog handlines?
100 psi.
524
What is the standard nozzle pressure for smoothbore master streams?
80 psi.
525
What is a residual pressure reading used for?
Determining how many additional lines can be added to a system.
526
What is considered a safe residual pressure threshold?
No less than 20 psi.
527
What are the four categories of residual percentage drop?
0-10% = 3 lines; 11-15% = 2 lines; 16-25% = 1 line; >25% = 0 lines.
528
What is cavitation?
Formation of air bubbles due to water being discharged faster than intake.
529
What are signs of cavitation?
Popping noise, pressure fluctuation, gravel sound, no pressure gauge response.
530
What is the ideal lift height for drafting?
10 feet.
531
What is the maximum recommended lift height for effective fire streams?
20 feet.
532
What happens to pump capacity at 20 feet of lift?
Drops to 60% of rated capacity.
533
What is the purpose of a primer?
To create a vacuum for drafting by evacuating air from the pump.
534
What is the most common drafting issue?
Air leak on the intake side.
535
What is a low-level strainer ideal for?
Drafting from portable tanks or pools with low water levels.
536
How much water should cover a barrel strainer during drafting?
At least 24 inches.
537
What is the most common blockage point in a drafting operation?
Distal end of the intake strainer.
538
What is the formula for pump discharge pressure (PDP)?
PDP = Nozzle Pressure + Total Pressure Loss (TPL).
539
Why must you shut the tank-to-pump valve when switching to external water supply?
To prevent tank over-pressurization.
540
How much psi is added for elevation when calculating PDP for standpipe operations?
5 psi per floor above the 1st.
541
What is the maximum standpipe pressure per NFPA?
Do not exceed 185 psi.
542
Why should you confirm a fire before charging an FDC?
To avoid wasting water on false activations or malfunctions.
543
What is the preferred position of a pumper when supplying an FDC?
Close to water source with a straight lay to the FDC.
544
What are the components of a dry standpipe?
A pipe system requiring external water supply before use.
545
What nozzle pressure is used for standpipe fog lines?
100 psi.
546
What is a hydraulic water tower?
An aerial with a large capacity elevated stream (up to 300 GPM).
547
What is the primary difference between aerial ladders and telescoping booms?
Aerial ladders are for climbing, telescoping booms are not.
548
What is a platform rated to hold without water?
At least 750 lbs.
549
How much weight can a platform hold when water is flowing?
At least 500 lbs.
550
What is the flow requirement for aerial apparatus in any position?
At least 1000 GPM.
551
How long should an aerial <110 ft take to fully deploy and rotate 90°?
150 seconds.
552
What are the two types of waterway systems on aerial ladders?
Bed-mounted and telescoping.
553
What is a pinnable waterway?
Allows switching between rescue and elevated stream positions.
554
What type of bolts are used in aerial ladders and cannot be reused?
Huck bolts.
555
What angle provides maximum load capacity for aerial ladders?
70° to 80°.
556
What is torsional stress?
Twisting force on the ladder, often from uneven loading or angle.
557
What is a gravity circle?
The rotating footprint traced by the aerial during operation.
558
What is the preferred stabilization method?
Use of jack plates and stabilizers on a level surface.
559
What is short-jacking?
When one side of the truck cannot fully extend stabilizers due to obstructions.
560
What are the three common types of stabilizers?
Post, box, and A-frame (scissor).
561
What is the safe lateral unevenness limit for aerials?
5% (5 feet for every 100 feet).
562
What should be used when placing stabilizers on ice or soft surfaces?
Jack pads or cribbing.
563
How can uneven apparatus leveling affect aerial operations?
Shifts the center of gravity and reduces safe working load.
564
What is a common stabilization failure in cold weather?
Melting snow leaves voids under jack plates, reducing support.
565
What does NFPA 1901 require for aerial tip radios?
Hands-free radio at the tip/platform.
566
What type of aerial platform can perform below-grade rescues?
Bronto Skylift or similar articulating platforms.
567
What causes 'deadheading' in hydraulic systems?
Running the hydraulic pump with no fluid flow, causing heat buildup.
568
What is the effect of high hydraulic oil temperature?
Pump failure or reduced aerial operation efficiency.
569
What happens if a water curtain nozzle is used improperly?
Can create false sense of safety in high-heat conditions.
570
What is the maximum allowable ice buildup on aerial ladders per NFPA 1901?
0.14 inches.
571
What technique helps remove ice from an aerial ladder?
Slowly extend and retract the ladder to 'shrug' off ice.
572
Why should an aerial never be extended or retracted while someone is on it?
Creates pinch points and unsafe conditions.
573
What is the 75-80-80 rule for aerial ladders?
75° elevation, 80% extension, 80 psi nozzle pressure.
574
What are dynamic loads in aerial operations?
Loads that involve motion, such as climbing or equipment movement.
575
What is the preferred direction for ladder operation on grades?
Over the uphill side.
576
What is the most stable aerial operating position?
Directly over the front or rear of the truck.
577
What is jackknifing and what is its effect on stability?
Turning the trailer at an angle; 60° is most stable.
578
How much clearance is required from power lines?
10 feet for standard, 50 feet for high-voltage lines.
579
How should rescue ladders be placed for aircraft access?
Treat doors like windows and wings like roofs.
580
What is the best ladder placement for mid-rise rescue?
Outside of the engine for ≤5 floors, inside for >5 floors.
581
What is the primary use of aerial ladders in aircraft incidents?
Scene lighting and crew access—not typically rescue.
582
What is the minimum load a platform must support while flowing water?
500 lbs.
583
Why are floodlights mounted near aerial tips?
To illuminate the work area during nighttime or interior ops.
584
How should electrical cords be managed on aerials?
Should not exceed 200 feet in length to prevent overheating.
585
What are four types of hydraulic rescue tools?
Shears, Spreaders, Combination tools, Rams.
586
What is the maximum practical length for hydraulic tool hose?
100 feet.
587
What kind of aerial uses a knuckle boom design?
Articulating platform.
588
What aerial platform design allows for 'up and over' movement?
Articulating platform.
589
How is torque managed during aerial operations?
Avoid lateral loads and operate at high elevation angles.
590
What are signs of structural collapse?
Bulging walls, falling bricks, sagging roofs, interior collapse.
591
What is the collapse zone distance?
1.5 times the height of the structure.
592
Why are building corners preferred for aerial operations?
They are the safest areas in case of collapse.
593
What is the base rail of an aerial ladder?
The lower support structure running the length of the ladder.
594
What is 'K' bracing in aerial ladders?
Diagonal supports for rigidity between rungs and rails.
595
What is a turntable?
The rotating platform that supports the aerial device.
596
What is an interlock system on aerials?
Prevents aerial operation unless stabilizers are deployed.
597
What safety device is used to prevent hydraulic backflow?
Interlock valves.
598
What is a tiller apparatus?
A tractor-drawn aerial with a separate rear steering control.
599
What is the primary function of a water curtain nozzle?
Protect personnel from radiant heat during emergency operations.
600
What is the function of a selector valve?
Diverts hydraulic fluid to either the ladder or stabilizers.
601
What aerial component operates at over 3,500 psi?
The hydraulic system including actuators and pump.
602
Why is huck bolt removal critical?
They are single-use and must be drilled out for replacement.
603
What is the aerial ladder's platform height measured to?
The highest handrail at full extension.
604
What differentiates a telescopic platform from an articulating platform?
Telescopic extends straight; articulating folds like an elbow.
605
What is the minimum water flow from any platform position?
1000 GPM.
606
What aerial design offers the greatest reach at low angles?
Telescoping platforms.
607
Why is grease applied to aerial sections in winter?
Helps shed ice buildup when extending or retracting.
608
What does NFPA 1901 require for salvage equipment?
Salvage covers and two scoop shovels per truck.
609
What is the purpose of ventilation with smoke ejectors?
To remove heat and smoke using negative pressure.
610
What is service testing for trucks?
Annual inspection and testing while the vehicle is in service.
611
What is a nondestructive test?
Testing aerial metal strength without stressing or damaging components.
612
What is the first priority when positioning aerial apparatus?
Stabilization, even if the aerial is only raised a few feet.
613
What is a 'hot shift' system in modern aerials?
Allows PTO engagement with the transmission in neutral.
614
How large are stabilizer pads typically?
24 inches by 24 inches with built-in handles.
615
What tool can be used to estimate stabilizer clearance?
A short pike pole or arm span.
616
How should stabilizers be deployed in a 4-jack system?
Parallel side to side or front to back, not one at a time.
617
What causes repetitive stabilizer damage?
Operating one side repeatedly without alternating load distribution.
618
What grade level is considered safe for aerial operations?
Up to 5% lateral unevenness.
619
What should be avoided when placing stabilizers?
Curbs, sidewalks, unpaved, icy, or sandy surfaces.
620
Why should trucks not be parked over storm drains or manholes?
Potential for explosion or collapse.
621
How should trucks be parked on bridges during incidents?
Staggered and not clustered to avoid weight concentration.
622
What emergency vehicle gets parking priority at medical scenes?
EMS/ambulance.
623
How should aerial apparatus be parked near a structure fire?
To protect operator side and apparatus from heat or collapse.
624
What are the three types of aircraft incidents involving aerials?
Extrication only, extrication with fire, and non-accident roadway fires.
625
What are signs of structural instability or collapse?
Cracks, falling bricks, bulging walls, sagging roof.
626
What are common aerial access challenges?
Narrow driveways, overhead obstructions, dead ends.
627
How should apparatus be positioned near railroads?
Same side as incident, 25 feet away from tracks.
628
What is a vault surface and why is it a hazard?
Underground voids like basements that may collapse under apparatus weight.
629
What should be used when visual contact with the aerial tip is lost?
A spotter to assist with operations.
630
What happens to stress on the aerial if rungs are not parallel to the ground?
Stress increases and stability decreases.
631
What is feathering?
Slow and controlled movement of aerial controls.
632
What is the preferred parking direction for rear-mount aerials?
Backing in, for best operational positioning.
633
What is the danger of operating a ladder near power lines?
Electrocution risk and equipment damage.
634
What distance should be maintained near high-voltage lines?
At least 50 feet.
635
What type of lighting improves civilian response to emergency vehicles?
Sound and light combinations with changing pitch or tone.
636
Why are headlights used during daytime response?
Improves visibility to civilian drivers.
637
What is the danger of overthrottling a diesel engine?
Wasted fuel, excessive carbon buildup, and oil dilution.
638
What should be done before climbing or descending an aerial?
Personnel must be anchored or tethered.
639
What can affect acceleration and braking on hills?
Differential lock and load distribution.
640
What should be done before manually operating a regen system?
Ensure the vehicle is parked and not in pump gear.
641
What is the recommended post-fire overhaul method?
Use of thermal imaging and careful inspection for hidden fire.
642
What is the function of a PASS device?
To alert rescuers when a firefighter is motionless.
643
What does positive pressure ventilation accomplish?
Clears smoke and heat by creating airflow out of the structure.
644
What is the function of a smoke ejector?
Negative pressure fan used to draw smoke out.
645
What does the term 'nozzle reaction' refer to?
The force pushing back on the firefighter from water flow.
646
How is engine compression braking accomplished?
By converting mechanical energy into heat through compression.
647
Why is DEF fluid important in diesel engines?
Reduces emissions and prevents engine derating.
648
What happens if DEF is empty?
Vehicle may enter 5 MPH limp mode and need dealer service.
649
What do strobe light preemption systems do?
Change traffic signals in favor of emergency vehicles.
650
What are the two common nozzle types for interior fire attack?
Fog and smoothbore.
651
What type of nozzle should be used with protein-based foam?
Aspirating nozzle.
652
What is the primary concern with wheel fires?
Risk of explosion due to heat and pressure buildup.
653
What is the preferred suppression method for magnesium fires?
Class D extinguisher from a safe distance.
654
What is the most dangerous gear failure during landing?
One main gear up failure.
655
What causes the greatest risk in fuel vapor fires?
Unconfined vapor and ignition source proximity.
656
What are the two primary extinguishing agents for ARFF?
Water/foam and dry chemical agents.
657
What is used to measure foam concentrate accuracy?
Refractometer or conductivity meter.
658
What happens when a pump is cavitating?
Water intake is insufficient, creating vapor bubbles and damage.
659
What is the function of a bypass valve during pump operation?
Allows water to circulate and prevent overheating.
660
What is the difference between maintenance and repair in apparatus serviceability?
Maintenance is keeping equipment in a state of readiness; repair is restoring something that has become inoperable.
661
What does NFPA 1002 require driver/operators to be skilled in?
Routine maintenance checks and functions.
662
What standard outlines qualifications for fire apparatus mechanics?
NFPA 1071.
663
Who determines maintenance and repair assignments within each department?
The Authority Having Jurisdiction (AHJ).
664
Why must tire types not be mixed on fire apparatus?
Mixing radial and bias-ply tires can cause unsafe handling and instability.
665
How often must all fire apparatus tires be replaced according to NFPA 1911?
Every seven years, regardless of condition.
666
What can cause poor road handling and excessive fuel use in fire apparatus tires?
Incorrect tire pressure.
667
Why should road salt be rinsed off fire apparatus?
Salt causes corrosion on steel parts and electrical components.
668
What is load shedding in electrical load management systems?
The automatic shutdown of less important equipment to prevent electrical overload.
669
What should be done before lifting a tilt cab?
Ensure adequate vertical clearance and secure all loose items.
670
What is the primary function of slack adjusters?
Connect the brake actuator to the brake drum and maintain proper brake adjustment.
671
What is the maximum air pressure drop allowed in 1 minute during an air brake leak test on a straight chassis?
3 psi.
672
What is the air pressure cutout range for fire apparatus compressors?
120 to 130 psi.
673
What temperature warning must be heeded when checking radiator coolant?
Check coolant levels only when the engine is cool.
674
What type of fluid check requires the engine to be running and warm?
Transmission fluid.
675
What is a sign that apparatus batteries may need service?
Regular need for charging or jump-starting.
676
How often should a driver/operator lift a tilt cab for inspection?
Weekly, even if inspection doors are used.
677
What is the acceptable pressure loss in a hard intake hose service test over 5 minutes?
No more than 10 inches of mercury.
678
According to USFA 2010, how many firefighters were killed while responding or returning from incidents?
17 firefighters.
679
What does NFPA 1002 establish?
Minimum qualifications for apparatus driver/operators.
680
What training must be completed to meet NFPA 1002?
Firefighter I course or equivalent.
681
Why is a full water tank safer than a partially filled one?
Provides better braking and stability due to consistent weight distribution.
682
What is the definition of 'Due Regard' in emergency vehicle driving?
A legal obligation to drive with care and caution for public safety.
683
What is brake fade?
Loss of braking function due to excessive use and heat buildup.
684
What must be confirmed verbally before apparatus is in motion?
That all personnel are onboard and belted.
685
How should hose loading be performed while the vehicle is in motion?
With at least one safety observer, driving slowly (max 5 mph), and no riders on the apparatus.
686
How often should mirrors be adjusted?
At the start of each shift and whenever driving responsibility changes.
687
What is the definition of angle of approach?
The angle from level ground to the lowest front projection from tire contact point.
688
What does Roll Stability Control (RSC) do?
Reduces engine power or applies brakes when rollover risk is detected.
689
What is the purpose of the regeneration inhibit switch?
To prevent DPF regeneration during unsafe conditions like parked on dry grass.
690
What happens if the DEF tank is empty?
Engine speed is limited to 5 mph and may require dealer service.
691
What are the four types of auxiliary braking systems?
Exhaust brake, Engine Compression Brake, Transmission Output Retarder, Electromagnetic Retarder.
692
What are signs of a locked-wheel skid?
Vehicle skids despite steering; wheels are locked from hard braking.
693
What type of retarder offers the highest braking torque?
Transmission output and electromagnetic retarders.
694
What must you do before removing an inlet or discharge cap?
Open the drain or bleeder valve to relieve trapped pressure.
695
What are the responsibilities of tiller operators?
Trailer placement, cornering, public and crew safety, and local regulation familiarity.
696
What must be done when climbing on top of apparatus without railings?
Maintain three points of contact, use slip-resistant surfaces, and have a second person present.
697
What should a driver/operator consider when positioning apparatus on a narrow street?
Ensure access for aerial apparatus and allow space for supply hose lays.
698
What is the primary tactical priority in a rescue situation?
Life safety.
699
Why should the pumper be pulled past the building during investigation mode?
To allow viewing of three sides of the structure.
700
What action must a driver take if standard placement isn't possible?
Notify incoming units of situation and any necessary changes.
701
What zone must be maintained around a potentially collapsing structure?
1.5 times the height of the building.
702
Why are corners considered safe for aerial positioning during structural collapse risks?
They are generally more stable and safer if collapse occurs.
703
What distance should be maintained for potential falling glass from high-rises?
At least 200 feet.
704
Why should drivers avoid positioning apparatus directly under utility lines?
Fire or weather conditions could bring lines down onto the apparatus.
705
What is the 'Inside/Outside' method of positioning aerial and attack pumpers?
Buildings <5 floors: aerial outside pumper; buildings >5 floors: aerial inside closer to structure.
706
What is the best position for a pumper supporting an FDC?
As close to both the FDC and a water source as possible.
707
What should be avoided during drafting operations from natural sources?
Soft or unstable surfaces that may collapse or trap apparatus.
708
What must personnel working near water edges wear?
Personal flotation devices (PFDs).
709
What intake hose type should not be connected directly to a hydrant?
Hard intake hose not rated for positive pressure.
710
What is the recommended pumper placement for large diameter intake hose connections?
A few feet short of being in line with the hydrant, allowing a slight curve.
711
What is the wildland/urban interface?
Where structures meet undeveloped land, often requiring unique apparatus positioning.
712
Why should wildland apparatus back into position facing an exit route?
To allow for quick escape if fire conditions change.
713
What positioning precautions should be taken during wildland firefighting?
Avoid unburned fuels, position off road, close windows, use anchor points.
714
What is Level I Staging?
Initial staging for multi-company responses; units stop 1–2 blocks away and await orders.
715
What is Level II Staging?
Used in large incidents with multiple resources, assigned a specific staging area.
716
What is a 'Base' in incident management?
Central location for logistics, personnel coordination, and initial orders.
717
How should apparatus be used to protect firefighters on highways?
Position to shield from traffic; may block one additional lane for safety.
718
Why should firefighters avoid stepping beyond the tailboard in highway operations?
To reduce the risk of being struck by vehicles.
719
What is the best approach direction for hazmat incidents?
From uphill and upwind.
720
What is the purpose of control zones at hazmat scenes?
To regulate access and protect personnel based on hazard level.
721
How should hoses be laid across active railroad tracks?
Only if confirmed that rail traffic is stopped; otherwise use overhead or under-rail methods.
722
Where should apparatus be parked near railroads?
Same side as incident, no closer than 30 feet from tracks.
723
What positioning considerations exist for EMS incidents?
Ensure ambulance loading access, protect from traffic, avoid exhaust near patients.
724
What is the recommended intake connection distance for dry hydrants?
15 inches (375 mm).
725
What is the specific weight of water per cubic foot and per gallon?
62.4 lb/ft³ and 8.3 lb/gal.
726
What is the expansion ratio of steam at 212°F and at 500°F?
1700:1 at 212°F and approximately 2400:1 at 500°F.
727
What is water’s primary extinguishment method on Class A fires?
Cooling by heat absorption.
728
Why is water not suitable for fires involving sodium or combustible metals?
It reacts violently and can cause explosions or spread fire.
729
What does high surface tension in water affect?
Penetration into dense materials; wetting agents help reduce it.
730
What is the force exerted by a 1 ft high water column?
0.434 psi.
731
How much elevation is needed to generate 1 psi of water pressure?
2.304 feet.
732
What principle explains why pressure is the same in all directions in a confined fluid?
Pascal’s Law (3rd Principle of Fluid Pressure).
733
What principle states that fluid pressure is independent of vessel shape?
6th Principle of Fluid Pressure.
734
What is atmospheric pressure at sea level in psi and mmHg?
14.7 psi and 759 mmHg.
735
What is head pressure and how is it calculated?
The pressure due to elevation; ft ÷ 2.304 = psi.
736
What is the primary cause of friction loss in fire hose?
Contact of water molecules with hose surfaces and internal friction.
737
What effect does older hose have on friction loss?
Up to 50% more friction loss than new hose.
738
How does friction loss relate to hose length?
Directly proportional — doubling the length doubles the loss.
739
What is the relationship between hose diameter and friction loss?
Inversely proportional to the fifth power of the diameter.
740
What causes water hammer?
Sudden stop of water flow, creating a pressure surge.
741
How can water hammer be prevented?
Close valves and nozzles slowly in stages.
742
What are the three basic rates of water consumption used in system design?
Average Daily, Maximum Daily, and Peak Hourly Consumption.
743
What type of valve visually shows its open or closed position?
Indicating valve (e.g., PIV, OS&Y).
744
What is the purpose of backflow prevention in private water systems?
To prevent contamination of municipal water supplies.
745
What are the three methods of moving water in municipal systems?
Direct pumping, gravity, and combination systems.
746
What is the advantage of a combination water system?
Redundant pumping and elevated tanks maintain pressure and supply.
747
What are the three types of water mains in a grid system?
Primary feeders, secondary feeders, and distributors.
748
What hazard can sedimentation and encrustation cause in water mains?
Reduced effective diameter and increased friction loss.
749
What is critical velocity?
The point at which water flow becomes turbulent and reduces flow efficiency.
750
What are the four principles of friction loss?
1. Varies with length, 2. Increases with square of velocity, 3. Inversely with diameter⁵, 4. Unaffected by pressure.
751
What is the purpose of elevated storage tanks in water systems?
Provide emergency storage and maintain pressure during peak demand or failure.
752
What is a dead-end hydrant?
A hydrant fed from only one direction, prone to low pressure.
753
Why should hydrants be flushed periodically?
To remove sediment and maintain water quality and flow.
754
What are the three basic fire streams?
Solid, fog, and broken streams.
755
How is a solid fire stream created?
Using a smooth bore nozzle with a fixed orifice.
756
What nozzle pressure is typical for solid stream handlines?
50 psi (350 kPa).
757
What nozzle pressure is typical for solid stream master stream appliances?
80 psi (560 kPa).
758
What is the formula for calculating GPM from a solid stream nozzle (customary)?
GPM = 29.7 × d² × √NP
759
What is the metric formula for solid stream nozzle discharge?
L/min = 0.067 × d² × √NP
760
How are fog streams formed?
By deflecting water against an obstruction to create finely divided particles.
761
What nozzle type maintains constant GPM at all stream patterns?
Constant flow fog nozzle.
762
What is a selectable gallonage nozzle?
A nozzle with adjustable flow settings predetermined before use.
763
What is a high pressure fog nozzle used for?
Wildland fires, flowing 8–15 GPM at up to 800 psi.
764
What is the maximum flow rate for handline nozzles?
350 GPM (1,400 L/min).
765
What is the minimum flow rate for master stream nozzles?
Greater than 350 GPM (1,400 L/min).
766
What are the three types of master stream appliances?
Fixed, combination, and portable monitors.
767
What types of master stream appliances are found on aerial devices?
Elevated master streams.
768
What is the flow rate and pressure of a piercing nozzle?
125 GPM at 100 psi.
769
What is a chimney nozzle?
A solid brass or steel device producing a fine mist for chimney flues, flowing 1.5–3 GPM.
770
What is the nozzle reaction formula for a solid stream (customary)?
NR = 1.57 × d² × NP
771
What is the nozzle reaction formula for a fog stream (customary)?
NR = 0.0505 × Q × √NP
772
What is the 'rule of thumb' for estimating nozzle reaction (solid stream)?
NR ≈ Q / 3
773
What is the 'rule of thumb' for fog stream nozzle reaction?
NR ≈ Q / 2
774
Why is excessive nozzle reaction dangerous?
It can injure firefighters or hinder hoseline control.
775
What is the main function of a master stream device?
To apply large volumes of water from a fixed position.
776
What happens if driver/operator supplies incorrect pressure to a selectable gallonage nozzle?
It will not flow the selected gallonage correctly.
777
What allows automatic fog nozzles to adapt to variable flow?
A spring-activated device adjusts the baffle opening.
778
Why are cellar nozzles often used with inline shut-off valves?
For safety and ease of operation.
779
What types of monitors are considered combination monitors?
Monitors that can be apparatus-mounted or detached for remote use.
780
What are piercing nozzles used for?
Aircraft fires, car fires, or fires in inaccessible voids.
781
What are the components of Total Pressure Loss (TPL)?
Friction Loss, Elevation Pressure Loss, and Appliance Loss.
782
What is the formula for friction loss (customary)?
FL = C × Q² × L
783
What does each variable in the friction loss formula represent?
C = coefficient, Q = flow rate ÷ 100, L = hose length ÷ 100.
784
When is appliance pressure loss considered insignificant?
When flow is less than 350 GPM (1,400 L/min).
785
How much pressure loss is added for each appliance at ≥ 350 GPM?
10 psi (70 kPa).
786
How much pressure loss is added for master stream appliances?
25 psi (175 kPa).
787
What is the formula for elevation pressure loss (customary)?
EP = 0.5 × Height (ft).
788
What is the formula for elevation pressure loss in multistory buildings?
EP = 5 psi × (Stories – 1).
789
What is the pressure loss in 200 ft of 2½” hose at 200 GPM?
16 psi.
790
What is the pressure loss in 150 ft of 1¾” hose at 150 GPM?
52.3 psi.
791
What is the total pressure loss for 200 ft of 1¾” hose at 180 GPM with 10 ft elevation?
105.4 psi.
792
How is pump discharge pressure (PDP) calculated?
PDP = Nozzle Pressure + Total Pressure Loss (TPL).
793
What is the formula for Net Pump Discharge Pressure from a pressurized source?
NPDP = PDP – Intake Pressure.
794
How is PDP set when supplying multiple hoselines?
Based on the line with the highest pressure requirement.
795
What pressure is added for elevated waterways with master stream appliances?
25 psi.
796
What nozzle pressures are typical for fog nozzles?
100 psi (standard), 50 or 75 psi (low pressure).
797
What is the pump pressure loss for aerial piping bends in elevated waterways?
Approximately 25 psi, though varies by manufacturer.
798
What should a driver/operator do to determine pressure loss specific to apparatus?
Consult manufacturer or conduct field testing.
799
How is friction loss calculated in wyed hoselines of equal length?
Add FL from one attack line + FL from supply + appliance and elevation losses.
800
What must be done if wyed or manifold lines have unequal lengths?
Calculate each line’s FL separately; gate down lower-pressure lines.
801
What are the four types of hose layouts?
Single, Multiple Equal, Wyed, and Siamesed.
802
What is the advantage of siamesed hoselines?
Reduced friction loss—approximately 25% less than a single line.
803
How much pressure is added for a Siamese appliance at flows > 350 GPM?
10 psi.
804
What’s the friction loss for 300 ft of 4-inch hose at 400 GPM?
9.6 psi.
805
How can drivers avoid overpressuring lower-pressure lines in multi-line setups?
Use gated discharges or valves to reduce pressure.
806
What PPE should driver/operators wear when operating pump panels?
Full PPE to reduce injury risk during mechanical failures.
807
Why is wheel chocking recommended even when the parking brake is set?
For added safety in case of brake failure or unintentional movement.
808
What is the first step after exiting the cab to operate the pump from tank water?
Chock the wheels.
809
What should be used to cool the pump if no water is flowing?
Tank fill line or circulator valve to prevent overheating.
810
What is the minimum residual pressure to maintain from a pressurized source?
20 psi (140 kPa).
811
Why must the bleeder valve on the intake be opened when transitioning to an external source?
To release air and prevent disruption of attack lines.
812
What is a four-way hydrant valve used for?
Allows uninterrupted supply transition from hydrant pressure to pump pressure.
813
Why might forward lay be insufficient in long hose stretches?
Available hydrant pressure may be inadequate; second pumper needed.
814
When is reverse lay typically used?
When the first pumper arrives at the fire and must stay at scene while a second pumper lays hose to a water source.
815
What is the key function of a transfer valve in a two-stage pump?
To switch between pressure (series) and volume (parallel) modes.
816
Why should throttle not be increased below 20 psi intake pressure?
Risk of pump cavitation.
817
How do you estimate additional water available from a hydrant?
Using the Percentage, First-Digit, or Squaring-the-Lines Method.
818
What causes pump cavitation?
Water discharges faster than it enters the pump, forming air bubbles.
819
What is the ideal lift height for drafting to retain full pump capacity?
10 feet (3 meters).
820
What is the minimum water depth required over and around a strainer during drafting?
24 inches (600 mm).
821
What is a floating strainer used for?
Shallow water drafting; reduces whirlpool and debris risk.
822
What does high vacuum reading near 22 inches Hg indicate?
Pump is near maximum capacity; risk of cavitation increases.
823
What are symptoms of cavitation?
Popping sounds, pressure fluctuation, gravel noise, no gauge change with throttle.
824
What type of water requires flushing the pump system afterward?
Nonpotable water with salt, sediment, or chemicals.
825
What pressure does atmospheric pressure drop to at 5,000 ft elevation?
Approximately 12.2 psi (85 kPa).
826
How can you compensate for increased lift during drafting?
Use larger diameter or additional intake hose.
827
What is the purpose of a jet siphon?
Uses Venturi effect to create water movement for water transfer.
828
What is the maximum rated lift for NFPA/UL fire pumps?
25 feet, though only 60% capacity remains at 20 feet.
829
Why is it better to lay 100 ft of supply hose to a better drafting site?
To improve water quality and reduce friction loss.
830
What causes loss of prime during operation?
Air leaks, suction hose defects, sudden discharge opening, or whirlpools.
831
What action is recommended when booster tank is empty and tank-to-pump valve does not seal?
Prime cannot be achieved; refill tank or repair valve.
832
How does salt water affect pump operation?
Causes corrosion; requires fresh water flushing afterward.
833
How should strainers be supported in sloped terrain?
Use rope, ladders, or metal objects to elevate and stabilize strainer.
834
What causes suction hose inner liner to collapse?
Vacuum stress during high lift or defective hose.
835
What is the general pump discharge pressure for sprinkler/standpipe FDCs if unknown?
150 psi (1,050 kPa).
836
What are the three elements needed to create foam?
Foam concentrate, water, and air.
837
What is eduction in foam systems?
Using the Venturi effect to mix foam concentrate with water in a nozzle or proportioner.
838
Why is mixing different foam concentrates during incidents problematic?
It can clog eductors and reduce foam quality due to incompatibility.
839
What are the two main categories of Class B fuels?
Hydrocarbon fuels and polar solvents.
840
What foam type is needed for polar solvents?
Alcohol-resistant foam.
841
What does 'miscible' mean in reference to polar solvents?
They mix with water in all proportions.
842
What are the four methods of foam proportioning?
Induction, injection, batch mixing, and premixing.
843
What is the primary method of foam discharge in CAFS?
Compressed air injected into foam solution before discharge.
844
What does the Jet Ratio Controller (JRC) do?
Supplies foam concentrate to a self-educting master stream from distances up to 3,000 feet.
845
What is the proportioning range for Class A foam?
0.1% to 1.0%.
846
What are the recommended Class A foam percentages for fire attack with standard fog nozzles?
0.2% to 0.5%.
847
What is the expansion ratio for medium-expansion foam?
20:1 to 200:1.
848
What is the formula to calculate application rate for Class B foam?
Application Rate = Nozzle Flow Rate ÷ Fire Area.
849
What is the foam type that forms an air/vapor excluding film?
Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF).
850
What is burnback resistance?
The foam's ability to resist flame re-ignition after initial extinguishment.
851
What is the main hazard of discharging foam into natural water bodies?
It reduces oxygen levels and can be harmful to aquatic life.
852
What are durable agents made of?
Water-absorbent polymers used for fire blocking and structure pretreatment.
853
What is the correct nozzle/eductor back pressure limit for in-line foam eductors?
70% of the inlet pressure.
854
Why should foam tanks be airtight?
To prevent the formation of surface film on the foam concentrate.
855
What is batch mixing primarily used for?
Class A and regular AFFF foams when no other system is available.
856
What are the three main foam application methods for Class B fuels?
Roll-on, bank-down, and rain-down.
857
How should AR-AFFF be applied to polar solvents?
Gently, to allow membrane formation; use aspirating nozzles for best results.
858
What is the typical shelf life of properly stored synthetic Class B foam?
20–25 years.
859
What are compressed air foam systems (CAFS) best known for?
Creating high-quality, clingy foam with long drainage time.
860
What is the advantage of foam nozzle eductors?
Nozzle and eductor are matched for proper flow and pressure.
861
What is the biggest drawback of batch mixing?
The entire tank must be emptied before changing foam percentage or type.
862
What can happen if you exceed the rated GPM of an in-line eductor?
Foam quality may decrease or stop entirely.
863
What device allows foam and water to be delivered from different outlets at the same time?
Bypass-type balanced pressure proportioners.
864
What type of foam has the highest expansion ratio?
High-expansion foam (200:1 to 1000:1).
865
What method uses foam solution sprayed into the air to fall gently onto a fuel surface?
Rain-down method.
866
What is the primary purpose of aerial fire apparatus?
To place personnel and/or water streams in elevated positions.
867
What are the three NFPA® 1901 categories of aerial devices?
Aerial ladders, elevating platforms, and water towers.
868
What structural advantage do truss ladders provide?
They are lighter than solid beams with equal strength due to triangular stress distribution.
869
What is the typical pressure in hydraulic aerial systems?
May exceed 3,500 psi (24,500 kPa).
870
What is the function of the selector valve in hydraulic systems?
Directs fluid to stabilizers or aerial device; must be preset during inspection.
871
What are the types of hydraulic pumps used in aerial systems?
Load sensing piston, rotary vane, and rotary gear positive-displacement pumps.
872
What function do counterbalance valves serve?
Prevent aerial motion if hydraulic lines fail.
873
What is a trunnion?
The pivoting end of a piston rod in a hydraulic hoisting cylinder.
874
How much can modern elevating platforms typically flow?
Up to 2,000 GPM (8,000 L/min).
875
What are the three types of elevating platforms?
Aerial ladder platforms, telescoping platforms, and articulating platforms.
876
What is the minimum floor space of an elevating platform per NFPA®?
14 square feet (1.3 m²).
877
What is the maximum uncharged load capacity of a platform?
750 lbs (375 kg); 500 lbs (250 kg) when charged.
878
What does the fog curtain nozzle under platforms do?
Creates a protective fog shield and must flow at least 75 GPM (300 L/min).
879
What are the primary uses of articulating aerial platforms?
Rescue, ventilation, elevated master streams, and access to upper floors.
880
What is the purpose of a pinnable waterway?
Allows monitor positioning at base or tip depending on operation (rescue or fire suppression).
881
What does NFPA® 1901 require for communication on aerials?
A two-way system with hands-free capability at the tip/platform.
882
What does a tiller operator interlock do?
Prevents the vehicle from starting unless the tiller operator is seated or engages override.
883
What is the purpose of a deadman foot switch?
Ensures intentional activation of aerial movement.
884
What happens if a waterway monitor isn’t anchored properly before charging?
It can launch from pressure and cause damage or injury.
885
What is the maximum nozzle movement range for detachable ladder pipes?
15° to either side of center.
886
What is the flow range of water towers?
1,000 to 5,000 GPM (4,000 to 20,000 L/min).
887
What are key safety features of hoisting cylinders?
Safety valves that lock oil in place during leaks to prevent collapse.
888
What kind of lighting is recommended near the tip of the aerial device?
Floodlighting, though not required by NFPA® 1901.
889
What are the four standard aerial apparatus control levers (right to left)?
Elevation, rotation, extension, and platform controls.
890
What are the key power generation options on aerials?
Inverters, portable generators, and vehicle-mounted generators.
891
What NFPA® standard governs breathing air systems if installed?
NFPA® 1989.
892
What is the danger of exceeding air system pressure in aerial breathing systems?
It can damage moisture filters and cause pressure loss.
893
What is the most common hydraulic tool power source on aerials?
Hydraulic pump powered by PTO, electric motor, gas engine, or compressed air.
894
What size ladder is required for fourth or fifth story access?
Pole ladders (≥ 40 ft or 12 m).
895
What is required testing frequency for aerial apparatus according to NFPA® 1911?
Annually for service tests, every 5 years for nondestructive testing.
896
What is the most important factor when initially placing an aerial apparatus?
Getting it right the first time due to fixed reach and limited repositioning options.
897
What building height affects SOP placement of engines and aerials?
5 stories (≈60 ft); aerials outside engines for <5 stories, inside for >5.
898
What is the 'collapse zone'?
Area beneath a wall that would be impacted if it collapsed.
899
Why is a low angle with long extension discouraged?
It increases stress and reduces load capacity of the aerial device.
900
What term describes loads involving motion, such as wind or vibration?
Dynamic load.
901
How should aerials be positioned in windy conditions?
Parallel to wind, minimize extension, operate over front or rear.
902
What clearance should be maintained from power lines energized from 600–50,000 volts?
10 feet (3 m).
903
What should you do if a vehicle becomes energized by a power line?
Stay in or on the vehicle until it's de-energized and grounded by professionals.
904
What is the best practice for jackknifing a tillered aerial?
60° from in-line with aerial extended away for maximum stability.
905
When should aerial devices avoid supported positioning?
When a structure is weakened or shows collapse signs.
906
What direction should you approach incidents from when possible?
Uphill and upwind.
907
What should be done in dead-end access situations?
Back apparatus in to allow a quick escape.
908
What surface warning sign appears during hot weather?
Shiny/glassy 'bleeding' asphalt.
909
What should never be done with warning lights on highways at night?
Never shut off all warning lights.
910
What is the minimum clearance from railroad tracks?
25 feet (7.5 m).
911
What must be confirmed before raising an aerial over railroad tracks?
Train traffic is halted and device is 25 ft above rails.
912
Where should apparatus be positioned on bridges?
On separate spans or lanes; not all units on same area.
913
What is the recommended angle of aerial operation for best stability?
Inline with the vehicle’s longitudinal axis (front or rear).
914
What are key hazards to avoid during structural incidents?
Collapse zones, falling debris, roof signs, parapet walls.
915
What is the priority for aerial placement during medical incidents?
Shielding personnel and providing ambulance access.
916
What causes excessive stress on aerial devices?
Low angles, long extensions, sudden movements, heat, wind, torsion.
917
What should driver/operators avoid at hazmat incidents?
Parking over manholes/storm drains or approaching from downwind/downhill.
918
Why must aerials avoid blocking aircraft slides?
Slides are primary evacuation paths and deploy automatically from doors or wings.
919
Where should aerials park at petroleum storage sites?
Outside the dike walls unless a roadway is built atop the dike.
920
What does OSHA recommend for power line clearance during construction operations?
20 ft for <350 kV lines, 50 ft for >350 kV.
921
What should you do if someone is trapped in an energized vehicle?
Do NOT touch them—wait for power company; instruct them to stay inside unless fire threatens.
922
What must be considered when operating aerials near bridges?
Load capacity, wind, movement, superstructures, and safe staggered parking.
923
Why avoid placing apparatus on vaulted surfaces?
They may collapse due to being above underground voids like basements or culverts.
924
What does 'Look Up and Live' refer to?
Checking for power lines before and during aerial operation.
925
What is the function of stabilizer pads?
Distribute aerial weight more evenly on ground surfaces to prevent sinking or tilting.
926
What causes most aerial tip-overs during stabilization?
Operator error and improper jack placement on unfamiliar apparatus.
927
What does short-jacking mean?
Deploying stabilizers to unequal lengths, often due to space restrictions.
928
What risk does short-jacking introduce?
Gravity circle may extend beyond base of stability, risking overturning.
929
What are the three types of stabilizers?
Post-type, box (H-style), and fulcrum-type (A-frame, X-style).
930
What is the gravity circle?
The lateral shift of the center of gravity when the aerial rotates or extends.
931
When does the gravity circle become dangerous?
When it extends beyond the base of stability.
932
What action can broaden the base of stability?
Full extension and deployment of stabilizers.
933
Why should PTO only be engaged when properly positioned?
To prevent drivetrain or pump system damage.
934
What must be done before stabilizer deployment?
Activate PTO, chock wheels, and check terrain for stability.
935
What tool is commonly used to estimate stabilizer travel?
Short pike pole or firefighter’s arm span.
936
What is a stabilizer shoe?
Flat metal pad at the bottom of the stabilizer to distribute load.
937
Why avoid placing stabilizers over manholes, curbs, or water covers?
These may collapse or provide unstable footing.
938
What is cribbing used for?
To supplement stabilizer support on unstable or uneven surfaces.
939
What slope is acceptable for lateral grade correction?
Up to 5% or approximately 3°.
940
How should stabilizers be deployed on lateral grade?
Lower uphill side first, then downhill side to level apparatus.
941
What direction is safest for aerial operation on slopes?
Over the uphill side of the apparatus.
942
What happens when operating on longitudinal grade?
Ladder rungs no longer remain level, introducing lateral stresses.
943
Why are icy or snowy conditions dangerous for stabilization?
Melting causes voids under pads; surfaces become slippery.
944
How can stability be enhanced on icy ground?
Use sand or friction material—never salt, which reduces traction.
945
How do stabilizer interlocks work?
Prevent aerial operation unless stabilizers are deployed and locked.
946
What provides mechanical locking of jacks?
Steel pins inserted through post holes below the jack housing.
947
What must be checked before retracting stabilizers?
Ensure personnel and equipment are clear; remove safety pins.
948
What is the correct order to retract stabilizers?
Reverse the order they were deployed to avoid chassis stress.
949
What must be done after raising stabilizers?
Disengage PTO and return stabilizer pads to storage.
950
How do manual stabilizers differ from hydraulic ones?
They require manual arm extension and screw jack adjustment.
951
What angle provides maximum stability in tillered aerials?
60° between tractor and trailer with ladder operated outward.
952
What should be avoided when jackknifing tiller apparatus?
Angles >90° due to poor stability and possible damage.
953
What should be done after setting tiller angle?
Set all brakes, including trailer axle brake, and deploy stabilizers.
954
What does Skill Sheet 18-1 cover?
Steps to deploy, lock, and stow hydraulic stabilizers.
955
What does Skill Sheet 18-2 cover?
Steps to stabilize a tractor-trailer aerial apparatus.
956
What must a pedestal operator be ready to do during tower ladder operation?
Override unsafe basket movements and warn of danger.
957
What is the first priority before climbing or descending an aerial ladder?
Ensure the device is in position and stable.
958
When must personnel be tethered while on aerial devices?
Any time not actively climbing, descending, entering, or exiting.
959
Where should safety tethers be anchored?
To structural features only, never to cables, wires, or non-structural elements.
960
Why must ladder belts and tethers meet NFPA® 1983?
To ensure fall protection equipment meets life safety standards.
961
What is a fall hazard during aerial operation?
Operating with unsecured personnel on a moving device.
962
What is the danger of extending/retracting aerials with people on them?
Pinch and crush hazards from moving rungs and sections.
963
What is required before rotating or elevating aerials with personnel aboard?
All personnel must be tethered and communication maintained.
964
Why is using wire rope near pulleys a hazard?
It creates pinch points and tension-related injury risks.
965
What should be avoided when giving rotation commands?
Ambiguous terms like 'left/right' without clarifying viewpoint.
966
What is the primary control position on an aerial apparatus?
Lower control station, typically on the turntable.
967
When can secondary controls be used?
Only with a trained operator present at the primary controls.
968
What must secondary control operators be aware of?
Tip movement, ladder personnel, water flow, and electrical hazards.
969
What is the purpose of the load chart?
To determine safe operating limits based on extension, elevation, and conditions.
970
What are electronic load systems used for?
Monitoring aerial stability, but not replacing operator judgment.
971
What sequence should be followed when raising a telescoping aerial device?
Elevate, rotate, extend, and then lower to objective.
972
What is feathering in aerial control?
Slow, smooth movements to avoid dynamic stress or hydraulic spikes.
973
What does Skill Sheet 19-1 cover?
Raising and lowering a telescoping aerial without a platform.
974
How does the operation of articulating aerials differ?
Includes concern for knuckle movement and requires additional spatial awareness.
975
What are pinnable waterways?
Fixed nozzles that can be mounted at the tip or one section lower.
976
Why is video monitoring helpful on aerial platforms?
It enhances safety by allowing operators to see tip hazards remotely.
977
What is the 75-80-80 guideline?
75° elevation, 80% extension, 80 psi nozzle pressure for safe ops.
978
What are key dangers of detachable waterways?
No tip control, exposure risk, and hose/nozzle failure risk.
979
How does cold weather affect aerial operation?
Increases oil viscosity, forms ice, and adds weight to aerial device.
980
What is ice shrugging?
Slowly extending/retracting aerial device to remove ice buildup.
981
What are signs of heat damage to an aerial?
Discoloration, deformed welds, warped metal, improper function.
982
When must a damaged aerial be removed from service?
Immediately, until EVT repairs and NFPA® 1911 retesting is complete.
983
What signs indicate aerial mechanical/power failure?
Unusual noise, fluid leaks, gauge abnormalities, or aerial drift.
984
What action is taken if aerial failure occurs?
Stop operation, remove personnel, bed device, and take unit out of service.
985
When can below-grade operations be performed?
Only if the manufacturer approves and within rated limits.
986
What are the four fireground strategies for aerial devices?
Rescue, Ventilation, Elevated Fire Attack, Exposure Protection.
987
What should be announced before aerial master stream operations?
Interior attack crews must be notified and clear.
988
What is the safest rescue approach with an aerial device?
Upwind, level grade, no obstructions, with the turntable upwind of the target.
989
Why should you avoid contacting a building with an aerial ladder during victim boarding?
It can cause twisting and potential failure if the opposite beam bends.
990
What is the 'knee-sit method'?
Rescue method where victim sits on firefighter's knee while descending the aerial ladder.
991
What angle should the blitz attack stream enter a window?
Approximately 30 degrees upward toward the ceiling.
992
What is the first priority during rescue operations?
Victims most severely threatened.
993
What does 'platform placement' depend on?
Rescue method: either lifting over rail or entering through access gate.
994
What is required for rope rescue using aerials?
NFPA® 1983 compliant equipment and personnel trained to NFPA® 1670.
995
When should a Stokes basket be used with an aerial?
When victims are unconscious or unable to climb down.
996
Why are aerial devices not ideal for water rescues?
They are not designed for lateral forces and may become unstable or damaged.
997
How should aerials be used for ventilation?
From the unburned side, with 6 ft of ladder extending past roof edge.
998
Why should you avoid breaking windows during exposure protection?
May worsen fire spread and increase water damage.
999
How should fog streams be positioned for cross ventilation?
Slightly above window and to the upwind side.
1000
What is the role of elevated standpipes?
Provide hoselines to upper levels when interior standpipe systems are inoperable.
1001
What stream should be used to avoid pushing fire into unburned areas?
Solid or straight stream aimed from the unburned side.
1002
What is a significant risk of foam use in elevated master streams?
Wind can break up the foam due to its high air content.
1003
How should apparatus be placed for exposure protection?
With a clear escape route and ability to swing stream between fire and exposure.
1004
What happens if rope is anchored to the ground while using an aerial device?
Device bears double the load, increasing collapse risk.
1005
What does Skill Sheet 20-1 cover?
Steps for deploying elevated master stream operations.
1006
What is the main advantage of articulating aerial devices for parapets?
Ability to reach over parapet and set platform directly on roof level.
1007
Why must extension locks be engaged before aerial rescues?
To reduce twisting and increase structural rigidity of the aerial device.
1008
What are indicators for switching to a defensive attack?
Unsafe conditions for handlines, IC decision, or high water needs (e.g., attic fires).
1009
What hazard may result from elevated stream use on structure fires?
Structural collapse due to water weight (2,000 lb per 250 gpm).
1010
How can aerial devices aid in aircraft rescue?
Providing elevated access to aircraft or assisting with ventilation and thermal imaging.
1011
What is the water and AFFF capacity of CFR-80?
Water: 3,000 gal, AFFF: 420 gal, Halotron 1: 460 lb
1012
What is the water and AFFF capacity of CFR-81?
Water: 3,000 gal, AFFF: 420 gal, PKP: 450 lb
1013
What is the extinguishing agent capacity of CFR-82?
Water: 3,000 gal, AFFF: 400 gal, Halotron 1: 460 lb
1014
What is the extinguishing agent capacity of CFR-84?
Water: 3,000 gal, AFFF: 400 gal, Halotron 1: 460 lb
1015
What is the extinguishing agent capacity of CFR-86?
Water: 3,000 gal, AFFF: 400 gal, PKP: 500 lb
1016
What are the tank capacities of Engine 88 (E-One)?
Water: 1,000 gal, AFFF: 30 gal
1017
What are the tank capacities of Engine 188 (Sutphen)?
Water: 750 gal, AFFF: 50 gal (20 gal in Tank A, 30 gal in Tank B)
1018
What are the tank capacities of Tower 88?
Water: 270 gal, AFFF: 30 gal
1019
What are the extinguishing agents on Chemical-1?
3% Water/AFFF Mix: 100 gal, PKP: 450 lb
1020
What are the extinguishing agent capacities of S-88?
Water: 230 gal, AFFF: 20 gal
1021
What are the HRET monitor nozzle flow rates?
High Flow: 1000 GPM, Low Flow: 500 GPM
1022
What is the flow rate for HRET piercing tips?
250 GPM / 12 PPS Halotron 1
1023
What is the flow rate of PKP roof turrets?
16 PPS
1024
What is the discharge rate of PKP dual-agent handlines?
5–6 PPS
1025
What is the discharge rate of Halotron 1 handlines?
5–6 PPS
1026
What is the requalification interval for HRET operators?
12 months.
1027
What must be documented in ARFF training records?
Initial and recurrent training, including operator proficiency.
1028
What does proficiency for HRET operators include?
Stationary and pump-and-roll operations.
1029
What is required if only one FLIR camera is installed?
It must monitor piercing operations.
1030
What is the advantage of dual FLIR setups?
Improved tactical evaluation and wider monitoring capability.
1031
How does FLIR help during pre-fire checks?
Identifies normal vs. abnormal heat signatures.
1032
What driving consideration is crucial for HRET-equipped vehicles?
High center of gravity affects turning, stopping, and slope handling.
1033
What stream should be avoided to preserve foam blankets?
Straight stream.
1034
What is the minimum standoff distance when applying agent to aircraft?
Enough to avoid damage from slides, heat, and poor visibility zones.
1035
Why is agent weight a concern during aircraft operations?
8.34 lbs/gal can shift the aircraft’s center of gravity.
1036
Where should HRET piercing be avoided?
Near wing roots, door frames, or floor reinforcements.
1037
What interior materials may trap extinguishing agent?
Gill liners and thermal batting.
1038
What can reduce pooling from HRET piercing?
Use secondary pierce points or target bilge-area drains.
1039
What determines pooling direction from a piercing tip?
Piercing angle—too high hits ceilings; too low hits seats.
1040
What agents can be discharged from tip-mounted nozzles?
Halotron, Halon 1211, and dry chemical.
1041
When are complementary agents most effective?
Engine accessory fires or APUs.
1042
What is the typical ULD spacing in cargo aircraft?
12" in narrow-body, up to 46" in wide-body aircraft.
1043
Why must lesson plans be unique for each ARFF vehicle?
They must include specific hazards, specs, and SOGs.
1044
What do lesson plans require?
Specs, hazards, inspections, capacities, flow rates, and SOGs.
1045
What did FAA testing prove about HRET speed?
Extinguishes pooled fuel fires 53% faster than roof-mounted turrets.
1046
What boom position increases coverage area?
Down-in-front.
1047
What is the flow rate and spray diameter of the HRET penetrating nozzle?
250 GPM and 40 ft spray diameter.
1048
In what order should agents be used to minimize damage?
Halotron/Halon first, AFFF second, dry chem last.
1049
Why create drain holes above rivet lines?
To prevent tail tipping from water accumulation.
1050
What should be installed on ARFF simulators for training?
Cab mockups or desktop joystick simulators (AIP-fundable).
1051
What kind of fires can HRET reach without repositioning?
Underwing and fuselage fires in low-attack mode.
1052
What is the ideal standoff range for piercing all target zones?
15–25 feet.
1053
Why is striking structural aircraft members hazardous?
Can damage nozzles or bend the HRET boom.
1054
What aircraft features should HRET operators be trained on?
ULDs, cargo layouts, fuselage structure, door access.
1055
What should be used during overhaul to check for residual heat?
Thermal imaging.
1056
What camera angle improves interior visibility during piercing?
Tip-mounted, forward-facing camera.
1057
What distance must be maintained from overhead power lines?
At least 10 feet.
1058
What document governs HRET airspace clearance?
FAA AC 150/5300-13.
1059
What is the best piercing zone for passenger aircraft?
10–12" above window line.
1060
What is the best piercing zone for cargo aircraft?
10:00 & 2:00 for main deck; 4:00 & 8:00 for belly deck.
1061
Why should water not be applied near wing roots?
These are reinforced zones and difficult to penetrate.
1062
What are common cargo ULD materials?
Metal, Lexan, vinyl, floor-loaded freight.
1063
How can vinyl and Lexan react in fire?
Burn quickly or fail catastrophically.
1064
What allows night operations or work in poor visibility?
Spotlights and forward-facing cameras.
1065
What contributes to boom stress during discharge?
Locked booms—must allow slight flex to relieve stress.
1066
What should be avoided to protect foam blankets on fuel spills?
Disruption from air, stream, or movement.
1067
What tactic allows piercing nozzle use as entry point?
Removing passenger windows or accessing via door.
1068
What priority order governs ARFF tactics?
Life safety > Property > Environment.
1069
What additional roles can HRET fulfill beyond extinguishment?
Ventilation, interior visibility, thermal monitoring.
1070
Why avoid overhead piercing near floorline supports?
These are structural and can damage the nozzle.
1071
Why is documentation required in all HRET training?
To prove requalification, proficiency, and instructor records.
1072
What structural bays are preferred for piercing?
Fuselage bays between frames, away from reinforcements.
1073
Why should tactics be updated regularly?
To reflect lessons from training and real incidents.
1074
What document defines HRET booms?
NFPA 414.
1075
What is a proper tactic to avoid collateral aircraft damage?
Use Halon agents before switching to foams or dry chem.
1076
What factors determine the ARFF Index per §139.315?
Aircraft length and average daily departures.
1077
What are the length ranges for Index A through E under §139.315?
A: <90 ft, B: 90–126 ft, C: 126–159 ft, D: 159–200 ft, E: ≥200 ft.
1078
What must occur to qualify for an ARFF index level?
At least 5 average daily departures of the longest aircraft in that group.
1079
What index is used if fewer than 5 daily departures occur for a given aircraft length?
The next lower index.
1080
How soon must ARFF vehicles arrive per §139.317?
Within 3 minutes of aircraft movement notification.
1081
How fast must 50% of agents be discharged after arrival?
Within 1 minute.
1082
What is the required vehicle and agent capacity for Index A?
One vehicle with 500 lbs dry chem or 450 lbs Halon 1211 or 100 gal water (foam).
1083
What is required for Index B?
Two vehicles: one with 500 lbs dry chem / 450 lbs Halon 1211 / 100 gal foam; second with 1,500 gal foam.
1084
What is required for Index C?
Three vehicles: one with 500 lbs dry chem / 450 lbs Halon 1211 / 100 gal foam; two with total 3,000 gal foam.
1085
What is required for Index D?
Same as C, but with 4,000 gallons water (foam) total on the two vehicles.
1086
What is required for Index E?
Same as C, but with 6,000 gallons water (foam) total on the two vehicles.
1087
Can combinations of agents be used in ARFF vehicles?
Yes, combinations of dry chem, Halon 1211, and water (foam) are allowed.
1088
What are ARFF vehicle performance expectations?
Must meet manufacturer specs and FAA requirements.
1089
What training is required for ARFF vehicle operators?
System familiarity, inspection, operation, and maintenance training.
1090
How many firefighters must be present during air carrier operations?
At least one trained firefighter.
1091
What training must all ARFF personnel receive?
Initial and annual recurrent ARFF training.
1092
List required ARFF training topics from §139.319.
Airport and aircraft familiarization, safety, comms, PPE, SCBA, hoses, nozzles, aircraft evacuation, fire suppression.
1093
How often must ARFF personnel participate in a live-fire drill?
At least once every 12 months.
1094
How long must training and performance records be maintained?
12 months.
1095
What are the required inspection frequencies for ARFF vehicles?
Daily inspection, operational check each shift, monthly in-depth inspection.
1096
What must be done if equipment discrepancies are found?
They must be corrected before use.
1097
What communication capabilities must ARFF have?
Direct contact with ATC and with airport ops and response vehicles.
1098
What are the requirements for mutual aid agreements?
Must detail responsibility, type of response, training, and annual joint training.
1099
What color smoke is produced from minor hot brakes?
Light blue.
1100
What color smoke and indicators suggest extreme brake overheating?
Moderate to heavy dark smoke and visible flame.
1101
What makes overheated aircraft tires especially dangerous?
They can exceed 200+ psi and are nitrogen-filled.
1102
From where should wheel temperatures be measured?
From the rim, not the brake assembly.
1103
What angle and gear are required when approaching hot brakes?
Approach at 45º angle in full PPE, SCBA, shields down.
1104
How should cooling water be applied to overheated brakes?
Use a fog pattern, continuous flow, not aimed directly at wheel.
1105
Is a booster line appropriate for wheel fire suppression?
No, it is only acceptable for cooling, not suppression.
1106
What is the minimum safe distance from a suspected hot tire?
At least 25 feet (7.6 meters).
1107
When should turrets be used on hot brake fires?
When fire is present, apply large volumes of water from a distance.
1108
What is the minimum handline size allowed for wheel fire suppression?
1½ inch diameter.
1109
What direction should firefighters approach burning aircraft wheels?
From the fore or aft (not from the side).
1110
What is the primary hazard of brake explosion?
Shrapnel from wheel/tire assembly failure.
1111
What pressure can aircraft tires reach under normal conditions?
Over 200 psi with nitrogen fill.
1112
Why are direct streams avoided when cooling hot brakes?
To prevent uneven cooling and risk of explosion.
1113
What must be confirmed before using handlines on wheel fires?
Proper nozzle type and pressure; use of fog pattern.
1114
What foam type is not used for wheel cooling?
AFFF foam is not applied directly to brake assemblies.
1115
What is the proper ARFF PPE for hot brake response?
Full PPE, helmet shield down, SCBA on air.
1116
What method is used to monitor wheel/brake heat levels?
Use non-contact infrared thermometer on the rim.
1117
What structural component poses danger in a wheel explosion?
Landing gear strut and wheel components.
1118
What should be done after cooling hot brakes?
Reassess temperature and visually inspect for fire extension.
1119
What is the function of misting hot brakes?
To lower brake temperature gradually and prevent ignition.
1120
What causes wheel assembly explosion during brake fires?
Rapid heat buildup and confined gas pressure.
1121
What must be avoided when approaching aircraft with suspected brake fires?
Side approach or placing personnel directly in front of wheel/tire.
1122
What minimum training must crews have before engaging hot brake operations?
ARFF basic certification and departmental SOGs for hot brakes.
1123
What distance is recommended for turret attack on wheel fire?
Greater than 100 feet if possible.
1124
What is a 'Specific Threat with PTI'?
A verbal bomb threat made in person by a suspect, usually reported by air carrier staff.
1125
What are the three identifiers of a Specific Bomb Threat?
Flight number, airline name and departure time, or airline name and location.
1126
What does Signal 55A indicate?
A specific bomb threat with PTI.
1127
What does Signal 55 indicate?
A bomb has exploded.
1128
What is the required ARFF staging distance from an aircraft under bomb threat?
At least 1,200 feet, determined by D-8.
1129
Who are the joint Incident Commanders during a bomb threat response?
Airfield Operations and Orlando Police Department (OPD).
1130
What is ARFF’s primary responsibility during a bomb threat?
Support and rescue operations only.
1131
When is ARFF allowed to approach the aircraft during a bomb threat?
Only under direct instruction from D-8.
1132
What units respond if the aircraft hot spot is on the east side?
Centerfield and Eastfield units respond; Westfield remains in quarters.
1133
What units respond if the aircraft hot spot is on the west side?
Westfield and Centerfield units respond; Eastfield remains in quarters.
1134
Where should Centerfield respond if the hot spot is east?
Taxiway Sierra, just west of Runway 18L-36R.
1135
Where should Eastfield respond if the hot spot is east?
Taxiway Sierra, east of Runway 18L-36R.
1136
Where should Centerfield respond if the hot spot is west?
Taxiway Lima, west of Runway 18R-36L.
1137
Where should Westfield respond if the hot spot is west?
Taxiway Lima, east of Runway 18R-36L.
1138
What is the ARFF stance on approaching the aircraft with a bomb threat?
No approach unless directed by D-8.
1139
What is the ARFF mission during a Specific Bomb Threat?
To assist with rescue and suppression as needed, without taking command.
1140
Who determines the safe staging location for ARFF units?
D-8, the Airport Operations Center.
1141
What must ARFF personnel wear during a bomb threat standby?
Full PPE, staged safely behind apparatus.
1142
What is the typical staging location for Centerfield during a west hot spot?
Near Taxiway Lima, maintaining visual contact but at a safe distance.
1143
What role does OPD play during a bomb threat?
Joint Incident Commander and lead law enforcement agency.
1144
What is a 'Specific Threat with PTI' in a building context?
A verbal bomb threat made in person by a suspect, usually at a ticket counter.
1145
What defines a Specific Bomb Threat to a building?
Any threat containing the building name and location.
1146
What does Signal 55A indicate in building threat protocols?
A specific bomb threat with PTI.
1147
What does Signal 55 mean in building threat response?
A bomb has exploded.
1148
How far must ARFF stage from a threatened building?
At least 1,200 feet, as designated by D-8.
1149
Which ARFF units respond to a specific threat to a building?
One engine or tower, one rescue, and District-8.
1150
Who forms Unified Command for building-specific threats?
Airfield Ops or Landside Ops and OPD.
1151
What is ARFF's primary mission during a building bomb threat?
Support and rescue only.
1152
Can ARFF approach the building without permission?
No, only under D-8 direction.
1153
What is ARFF's responsibility if a device detonates?
Fire suppression and victim rescue under OPD/D-8 coordination.
1154
What staging location is typically used for Terminal A threats?
North end of South Cell Lot.
1155
What staging location is used for Terminal B threats?
South end of South Cell Lot.
1156
Where should units stage for North Terminal Parking Garage threats?
Top floor of the North Garage.
1157
Where should units stage for South Terminal Parking Garage threats?
Top floor of the South Garage.
1158
Who determines if the building must be evacuated?
OPD and Unified Command, not ARFF alone.
1159
What is the role of D-8 in building threat response?
Command, communications, and staging coordination.
1160
When are additional units requested by ARFF?
Only after initial size-up and if necessary.
1161
What must be worn by ARFF at all times during standby?
Full PPE, helmet face shields down, and SCBA on air if needed.
1162
What determines ARFF's response level to buildings?
Signal type, location, and instructions from D-8.
1163
What is emphasized in the ARFF SOG for building threats?
Rescue readiness, safety, and strict command compliance.
1164
What is the primary purpose of SOG 200.05?
To establish a standard response guideline for aircraft hangar emergencies at Orlando International Airport.
1165
Who assigns interior quadrants and exterior divisions during a hangar response?
Command.
1166
Where are search and rescue efforts prioritized inside a hangar?
Office areas, due to the highest occupant load.
1167
What is the assignment of the crash apparatus during a hangar response?
Access hangar bays and protect or remove aircraft if possible.
1168
What is the engine crew’s role in a hangar response?
Protect rescue crews and locate/extinguish fire.
1169
When can the sprinkler system be shut down?
Only after 'fire out' is confirmed and with Command authorization.
1170
Who must be notified if fuel runoff reaches storm drains or holding ponds?
GOAA Environmental Protection Officer.
1171
What equipment is used to block water flow to canals during a hangar fire?
Earth-moving equipment provided by GOAA Facilities.
1172
Who has ultimate responsibility for fuel removal and environmental protection?
Command.
1173
What areas outside the hangar may require protection from fire spread?
Fuel trucks, storage areas, and adjacent structures.
1174
What is the designated role of ARFF during hangar emergencies?
Rescue, aircraft protection, and initial extinguishment.
1175
What must be coordinated if fire reaches foam or chemical systems?
Shutoff and reactivation plans must be communicated with Command.
1176
What type of foam is typically used for hangar suppression systems?
High-expansion foam.
1177
What is required if aircraft must be moved during fire conditions?
Coordination with Command and aircraft tug personnel.
1178
When is the fire officially considered under control during a hangar incident?
When forward fire progress has stopped and Command confirms containment.
1179
What is S-88's primary role in a parking garage fire?
Proceed directly to the fire or stage near the entrance if vehicle size prohibits access; assist E-88 crew.
1180
Where should T-88 be positioned during a garage fire?
At a corner advantageous to two sides, ready for rescue, water supply, or master stream use.
1181
What is R-88's role during a garage fire?
Establish initial RIT in the stairwell nearest the fire or one floor below; pair with mutual aid RIT if assigned.
1182
When should GOAA Maintenance be contacted during a garage fire?
If sprinkler systems are activated or for water removal due to runoff.
1183
Who handles fire investigation if a fire is suspicious?
Orlando Fire Department arson investigator.
1184
What must be done if a vehicle is involved in the garage fire?
Notify owner, request tow truck, and coordinate with OPD if needed.
1185
When should structural engineering be requested?
If concrete spalls or flames affect structural members.
1186
Where does E-88 position during a garage fire?
Locate the fire floor, identify stairwells, and establish water supply via standpipe or S-88 support.
1187
What tactic is recommended for stairwell fire attack?
Use closest stairwell with standpipe; advance hoseline from one floor below the fire.
1188
Who may be assigned to assist with water supply and standpipe support?
S-88, especially if E-88 uses standpipe for suppression.
1189
What must be ensured before ventilating the garage?
Fire is under control and ventilation is approved by Command.
1190
What specific threat exists in enclosed garages during fires?
Toxic smoke buildup due to limited natural ventilation.
1191
What role does mutual aid typically provide?
RIT, suppression support, or structural assessment assistance.
1192
What is the incident command priority for garage fires?
Life safety, fire control, protection of adjacent vehicles and structure.
1193
What is the key ARFF consideration in garage fires near terminals?
Avoid interfering with passenger operations; coordinate egress with Command.
1194
What is the minimum HOT ZONE distance for electrical hazards?
30 feet.
1195
What agents are used for fires involving energized electrical equipment?
Dry chemical, Halotron, CO2, or other non-conductive agents.
1196
When is it acceptable to use water or foam on an electrical fire?
Only after power is confirmed shut off and hazard is no longer energized.
1197
What PPE must be worn during an electrical fire response?
Full bunker gear, including gloves and rubber boots.
1198
Is bunker gear sufficient to protect against electrical shock?
No.
1199
Which units respond to a general electrical fire?
D-8, E-88 or T-88, and appropriate Rescue unit.
1200
Which units may respond to a large-scale electrical fire?
CFR with dry chem, Chemical-1, and mutual aid.
1201
What should a person do if trapped in a vehicle near live wires?
Jump out and hop or shuffle at least 35 feet away.
1202
What agency is notified if firewater runoff is excessive?
GOAA Maintenance.
1203
What items should be kept away from energized equipment?
Ladders and vehicles.
1204
What is ARFF's priority in an electrical fire response?
Rescue and hazard mitigation only when safe to do so.
1205
What should be used to block traffic near electrical hazards?
Apparatus positioned for protection and traffic control.
1206
What must be done before using handlines on electrical fire?
Power must be confirmed OFF.
1207
How should downed power lines be treated?
As if they are energized until confirmed otherwise.
1208
What is the hazard of runoff water near energized sources?
It may become electrically charged and pose a shock hazard.
1209
What kind of foam is NOT safe for live electrical use?
AFFF foam or water streams.
1210
Who should determine when it is safe to enter an energized area?
GOAA Electric or utility technician.
1211
Can you conduct a search operation while equipment is energized?
No, only after confirmation power is secured.
1212
What is ARFF’s role while power is still energized?
Establish safe zone, monitor hazards, wait for GOAA Electric.
1213
When is salvage and overhaul performed in electrical incidents?
After hazard is confirmed de-energized and under control.
1214
What are the three categories of fuel spills?
Category A: 1–25 gallons, Category B: 26–100 gallons, Category C: over 100 gallons.
1215
Who is responsible for determining the fuel spill category?
The Incident Commander (IC).
1216
When must GOAA Environmental be notified?
For spills larger than Category A or spills entering storm drains.
1217
What is the first ARFF action upon arriving at a fuel spill?
Establish a hot zone and ensure scene safety.
1218
What is a Category A fuel spill?
A spill of 1 to 25 gallons of fuel.
1219
What is a Category B fuel spill?
A spill of 26 to 100 gallons of fuel.
1220
What is a Category C fuel spill?
A spill of more than 100 gallons of fuel.
1221
When can an aircraft be pushed back from a gate after a spill?
Once the spill is mitigated and ARFF confirms it's safe.
1222
Can an aircraft engine or APU be operating during pushback after a spill?
No, they must remain off until aircraft is repositioned.
1223
What must be done if a spill enters storm drains?
Notify GOAA Environmental and take immediate containment actions.
1224
What zone must ARFF establish around a fuel spill?
A hot zone where only essential personnel are permitted.
1225
What is ARFF's role at a fuel spill?
Establish command, ensure safety, and assist with mitigation and evacuation if needed.
1226
What must happen to absorbent materials used in spill cleanup?
They must be cleaned up and properly disposed of by the responsible party.
1227
Who is responsible for cleanup after a fuel spill?
The FBO, fueling agency, or airline that caused the spill.
1228
What is done if a fuel spill occurs near people or equipment?
Evacuate non-essential personnel and isolate the area.
1229
What is an anchor point in wildland firefighting?
A point where the fire line meets a noncombustible area like a road or stream.
1230
What is a black line?
An area intentionally burned or plowed to stop fire spread.
1231
What is a backfire and who typically sets it?
A controlled fire set to burn fuel toward the fire; usually Division of Forestry or mutual aid.
1232
What is a plow line?
A barrier created by plowing to control a fire; not always passable by fire apparatus.
1233
What is the minimum number of escape routes required?
Two.
1234
What size is one acre?
208 ft by 208 ft, approximately the size of a football field.
1235
Who coordinates runway closures for brush fires?
Airside Operations and ATCT.
1236
What is the recommended hose diameter for long-distance supply in wildland fires?
3-inch or larger.
1237
What is indirect attack?
Fighting fire by cutting off fuel ahead of it, not directly engaging the flames.
1238
What is direct attack?
Attacking the flame front directly at the edge of the fire.
1239
What must be established for wildland fires on GOAA property?
A command post and staging area.
1240
What agency must be contacted for large brush fires or plow line assistance?
Florida Division of Forestry.
1241
When is it safe to enter a blackened area?
Only after it has cooled and is declared safe by Command.
1242
What is the role of rehab in wildland firefighting?
Ensure personnel rest, rehydrate, and recover during operations.
1243
Who is responsible for arranging mutual aid response for brush fires?
District-8 or Incident Command.
1244
When are ATCT and Airside Ops notified in a brush fire event?
Immediately, especially if near runways or taxiways.
1245
What fuel source creates fast-spreading ground fires?
Dry grass and brush.
1246
What gear must be worn during wildland firefighting?
Full PPE including brush jackets or turnout gear as applicable.
1247
What must be monitored during mop-up operations?
Hot spots, smoldering material, and weather changes.
1248
What must be documented after wildland fire suppression?
Incident details, mutual aid usage, and rehab actions.
1249
What voltage powers the SAPM system?
750 volts (DC).
1250
What is the Ten (10) Foot Envelope?
Area within 10 feet of the elevated guideway—requires authorization to enter.
1251
What is a Blue Light Station (BLS)?
A station where power can be shut off and radio communications can be established via emergency switch.
1252
What tool must be used before entry into SAPM guideways?
Voltmeter (hot stick) to confirm power is off.
1253
What does MRD stand for in the CMSI system?
Manual Release Device – manual door handle for emergency egress.
1254
What unit is responsible for elevated SAPM ladder access?
Tower-88 (T-88).
1255
Who provides standby during controlled evacuations under COOP?
E-88, R-88, and D-8; T-88 stages at Gate E-30.
1256
What must always be confirmed before entering SAPM trackway?
Power has been shut off and confirmed de-energized.
1257
How many passengers can each SAPM car hold?
210 passengers (105 seated, 105 standing).
1258
How are APM cars identified?
By alpha/numeric ID numbers and colored stripes.
1259
What are the two APM systems at MCO?
APM (North Terminal) and SAPM (South Terminal).
1260
Who is responsible for cutting power during SAPM emergencies?
MCO Control Room personnel using BLS or main breakers.
1261
What are the key hazards of SAPM guideways?
High voltage, height, limited egress, moving vehicles.
1262
Where are ladders stored for SAPM evacuation?
Inside SAPM stations and onboard T-88.
1263
Who assumes command during any SAPM emergency?
District-8 or the first arriving officer until relieved.
1264
What is a 'controlled evacuation' of SAPM?
One initiated by CMSI/MCO where cars stop at a station and power is off.
1265
What is an 'uncontrolled evacuation' of SAPM?
Firefighters must access, assess, shut down power, and evacuate passengers from track.
1266
How is communication maintained with SAPM passengers?
Via intercom system or through opened car doors.
1267
What must be done after emergency SAPM evacuation?
Document incident, notify GOAA, coordinate reset with CMSI.
1268
What is the procedure if no emergency exists, but a door is stuck?
Use MRD or coordinate with CMSI for access; no hot zone entry needed.
1269
What is required to operate in the SAPM Hot Zone?
Power shutoff confirmed with voltmeter and permission from Command.
1270
What must be worn by ARFF in SAPM operations?
Full PPE including helmet, gloves, and high visibility vest.
1271
What is the staging location for T-88 during SAPM response?
Gate E-30 or other designated area based on Command instructions.
1272
What is a ‘walkboard’ in SAPM context?
A narrow walkway along guideways for rescue/inspection access.
1273
Who coordinates reactivation of SAPM after an incident?
CMSI, in conjunction with Command and GOAA Operations.
1274
When must vehicle checks be completed?
Between 0700 and 0800 unless call volume or special details interfere.
1275
Who is exempt from mandatory backup spotter procedures?
Administrative staff vehicles and District-8 (D-8).
1276
What should be done before moving any vehicle?
Confirm all compartment and bay doors are closed or opened properly.
1277
What is the policy when operating vehicles near bay doors?
Open doors fully before movement; back in only with spotters.
1278
When must emergency lights be used?
When entering or exiting the station and during all emergency responses.
1279
What must always be followed when driving on the airfield?
All speed and traffic regulations.
1280
Who always has the right of way on the airfield?
Aircraft.
1281
What light setting is required when in front of aircraft at night?
Headlights off; use parking lights only.
1282
What should be done if an unrelated emergency is encountered during response?
Stop and handle the incident; notify GOAA 911 to send a replacement unit.
1283
What must be worn at all times during vehicle operations on the airfield?
High-visibility vest or safety gear.
1284
What must be done if a department vehicle is damaged?
Notify the officer immediately and complete a written report.
1285
What happens after vehicle damage is reported?
The vehicle is taken out of service and inspected by a mechanic and safety officer.
1286
What is the backing policy for large apparatus?
A spotter must be used at all times unless exempted.
1287
Where should spotters stand during backing?
Driver-side rear corner, visible in side mirror.
1288
What is required before leaving the scene of an accident with a department vehicle?
Scene documentation and GOAA PD report if applicable.
1289
When should the bay be checked for obstructions?
Before moving vehicles in or out of the bay.
1290
Who should be contacted if a bay door malfunctions?
GOAA Maintenance.
1291
What is the safe distance to stop behind another vehicle or aircraft?
Maintain enough clearance to prevent collision if stopped suddenly.
1292
Can you leave a vehicle idling in gear?
No, place it in park and set the brake before exiting.
1293
When must backup alarms and warning devices be operational?
At all times—report any malfunction immediately.
1294
What pressure is used to test 1¾” and 3” hose?
300 psi for 3 minutes.
1295
What pressure is used to test 4” and 5” hose?
200 psi for 3 minutes.
1296
How many feet of hose can be tested per discharge at one time?
300 feet.
1297
What must be done before applying pressure to test hose?
Lay hose straight and bleed all air from inside.
1298
What does the hose number '19-10' indicate?
Hose was placed in service in 2019 and is the 10th section.
1299
What should be marked on couplings before testing?
Coupling shanks should be marked to detect slippage.
1300
What should be done with hose that fails testing?
Roll in reverse (male out), label OOS, and report failure.
1301
What should be recorded in the RMS after hose testing?
Pass/fail status, hose number, and date of testing.
1302
Who is responsible for ensuring all assigned hose is tested?
The company officer.
1303
How should hose be labeled after being placed in service?
With the year and section number (e.g., 23-01).
1304
Where is the hose testing record maintained?
In the RMS (Records Management System).
1305
How is a failing hose section visually identified after rolling?
Rolled with the male coupling exposed (male out).
1306
What documentation is required for a failed hose section?
Out-of-service form submitted and section removed from inventory.
1307
What condition must the hose be in during testing?
Dry, clean, straight, and on a flat surface.
1308
What equipment is used to measure test pressure?
Calibrated pressure gauge at the far end of the hose line.
1309
What is the maximum time hose should remain pressurized during the test?
3 minutes.
1310
What is the purpose of coupling marking?
To detect any movement or slippage during the pressure test.
1311
What is done if coupling slippage is noted?
The hose is removed from service and reported as failed.
1312
When should new hose be tested?
Before being placed in service.
1313
What safety precaution must be taken during testing?
No personnel should stand over pressurized hose during the test.
1314
Where is E-88 stationed?
Centerfield.
1315
Who responds first to structural fires and MVAs from Centerfield?
E-88 and R-88 or S-88 (first due), T-88 (second due).
1316
Who responds to odor investigations at AS-1 and AS-3?
CFR-82 (first due), CFR-86 (second due).
1317
Who responds to fuel spills at AS-2 and AS-4?
CFR-80 and CFR-86 (first due), CFR-82 (second due).
1318
Who responds to the South ITF and SAPM during a COOP evacuation?
E-88, R-88, and D-8 (first due); T-88 stages near Gate E-30.
1319
What is the function of S-88?
Low-profile ALS truck capable of pumping water and foam.
1320
What unit staffs the Special Service Vehicle (SSV) during Alert 2?
S-88 (unless unavailable—then R-88 cross-staffs).
1321
What units lead Alert 2 response for Runway 36L/18R?
CFR-82 leads; CFR-86 and T-88 respond; T-88 leads if 82 is out.
1322
What units lead Alert 2 response for Runway 35L/17R?
Same as 36L/18R — CFR-82 leads unless committed.
1323
What unit responds first due to trash can fires or small exterior fires?
Closest available engine or rescue unit.
1324
Which unit stages on Runway 9R/27L for Alert 2 if CFR-82 is unavailable?
T-88 leads the response.
1325
What unit is responsible for Runway 9L/27R east side incidents?
CFR-80 and CFR-86.
1326
What unit is responsible for the west side of Runway 9L/27R?
CFR-82.
1327
Who responds to AS-1 baggage belt motor fires?
CFR-82 (first due), CFR-86 (second due).
1328
What is the first due rescue for Centerfield operations?
R-88 or S-88.
1329
What unit is typically second due to North Terminal Gate Alerts?
T-88.
1330
What is D-8’s primary role during large incidents?
Incident Commander or Support as needed.
1331
What units cover emergencies in the Southfield SAPM tunnel?
E-88, R-88, D-8 (interior), T-88 stages at E-30.
1332
Who responds to fire alarms at AS-2?
CFR-86 (first due), CFR-80 (second due).
1333
Who responds to AS-4 fire alarms?
CFR-86 and CFR-82.
1334
Who leads Alert 2s at Runway 17L/35R?
CFR-80 (lead), with support from CFR-86 and CFR-82.
1335
What’s the main responsibility of CFR units during Alert 2?
Lead rapid access to aircraft, establish rescue and suppression readiness.
1336
When is R-88 used for suppression support?
When cross-staffing with T-88 or when needed on scene as assigned by D-8.
1337
Which unit provides dual-agent capability at low profile for SAPM?
S-88.
1338
What happens if a primary alert unit is OOS?
Next closest ARFF or structural unit assumes lead per matrix.
1339
What is a Ramp Safety Survey?
A slow, methodical visual inspection from a vehicle looking for violations and safety issues.
1340
How many Ramp Safety Surveys are required per day?
At least two (2) surveys at designated ramp areas.
1341
What is the speed limit on ramps during patrol?
20 MPH on ramps, 5 MPH around aircraft.
1342
What NFPA code governs egress obstruction violations?
NFPA 101: 7.1.10.1 – egress must be free of obstruction.
1343
Who must be notified for fuel equipment violations?
Fuel agency supervisor, Ops-2, and Fuel Safety Coordinator (804).
1344
What is considered a FOD hazard?
Loose objects such as tools, garbage, cones, or luggage straps on the ramp.
1345
What must be done with a vehicle parked on a marked safety egress path?
Document and report as a safety violation.
1346
What action is required for damaged fuel hoses observed during survey?
Document, notify the fuel agency supervisor, and remove from service.
1347
Where are completed surveys documented?
In the GOAA Ramp Safety Survey Log with all relevant details.
1348
What is the safe zone distance around aircraft?
5 MPH speed limit and maintain clear distance to avoid jet blast and damage.
1349
What agency's safety codes must be followed during ramp inspection?
GOAA, FAA, and NFPA codes.
1350
What should be done if a cone is found under an aircraft?
Document, remove the FOD, and notify Operations.
1351
What type of equipment must have a fire extinguisher visible and accessible?
All fueling equipment and trucks on the ramp.
1352
How must fire extinguishers on fuel trucks be mounted?
Securely, visibly, and not blocked or hidden.
1353
What information must be included in a survey report?
Date, time, airside, unit, personnel, observations, and GOAA sticker number.
1354
Who conducts the Ramp Safety Survey?
The assigned ARFF unit or personnel based on rotation or duty.
1355
What is the procedure if damaged cones or equipment are found?
Tag for replacement and document in report.
1356
Who must be notified of recurring violations by the same vehicle or company?
Fuel Safety Coordinator and Airside Ops Supervisor.
1357
What is the required frequency for completing all assigned areas?
Twice per shift—once during daylight and once at night if possible.
1358
What must be done if vehicle ramps are leaking fluids?
Mark as out-of-service and notify fuel or vehicle supervisor.
1359
How should fueling operations be checked?
Visually inspect hoses, fittings, extinguishers, and spill kits.
1360
What is the minimum safety requirement for cone placement near aircraft?
Proper distance maintained; cones must be upright and undamaged.
1361
What is the procedure if a non-operational fuel truck is observed?
Document, notify fuel supervisor, and ensure it is removed or repaired.
1362
What must be checked regarding egress routes during survey?
They must be unobstructed, clear of vehicles or debris, and signed properly.
1363
What is the Ramp Safety Survey’s ultimate goal?
Ensure safety, regulatory compliance, and prevent airfield incidents.
1364
Who manages the Relief Driver program at OIAFR?
The Training Division.
1365
What is the minimum passing score for Relief Driver written and practical exams?
70% for each vehicle type.
1366
Who assists with test development for the Relief Driver program?
Engineers assigned to the apparatus.
1367
What must be completed before starting the Relief Driver Task Book?
Firefighter probationary period.
1368
What does the letter 'E' on the Relief Driver List indicate?
Qualified for Structural Engine (E-88 or similar).
1369
What does the letter 'C' indicate on the Relief Driver List?
Qualified for OSHKOSH T-3000 (CFR unit).
1370
What does the letter 'F' represent on the Relief Driver List?
Qualified for FT-4 (CFR vehicle).
1371
What does 'FT' stand for on the Relief Driver List?
Qualified for Striker with High Reach Extendable Turret (HRET).
1372
What does 'R' indicate on the Relief Driver List?
Qualified for Rescue unit (R-88 or similar).
1373
What are the three categories of vehicles used in the Relief Driver certification?
Structural Engines, CFR Units, CFR HRET Units.
1374
What must Relief Drivers complete for each vehicle type?
Written test, practical exam, Task Book, and OJT sign-offs.
1375
How long must a Relief Driver perform supervised driving before independent ops?
Minimum 5 shifts of documented OJT with Engineer sign-off.
1376
Where are Relief Driver certifications documented?
In the driver’s official personnel training file.
1377
Who can approve independent operation of a vehicle after training?
District-8 or designated officer based on completion of requirements.
1378
What is the purpose of the Relief Driver Task Book?
To ensure competency in operation, systems, and tactics of each assigned vehicle.
1379
What unit is designated 'S-88' in the Relief Driver program?
Low profile ALS support vehicle with suppression capability.
1380
What is the purpose of having classifications (E, C, F, R, FT) on the list?
To easily identify which vehicles a Relief Driver is qualified to operate.
1381
What is the standard for maintaining Relief Driver status?
Meet annual refresher requirements and maintain certifications.
1382
What is the prerequisite for starting OJT in the Relief Driver program?
Completion of written exam and Task Book for that apparatus type.
1383
What happens if a Relief Driver fails their written or practical exam?
They must retest after additional training and approval by the Training Division.
1384
What does ASHER stand for?
Active Shooter/Hostile Event Response.
1385
What is the purpose of the ASHER and Civil Unrest Policy?
To guide fire department response during civil unrest or violent activity.
1386
What are the three operational zones in an ASHER incident?
Hot Zone, Warm Zone, and Cold Zone.
1387
What is a Casualty Collection Point?
An area where SAVE Teams bring patients for transport, typically guarded by law enforcement.
1388
What is the M.A.R.C.H. acronym used for?
Major Hemorrhage, Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Head & Hypothermia.
1389
What defines a Civil Disturbance?
A breach of peace by a significant number of people or unruly mob gathering.
1390
What is a SAVE Team composed of?
Minimum 3 Fire Rescue and 4 Law Enforcement officers.
1391
What is the role of the Medical Team Leader (MTL)?
Lead Fire Rescue member of a SAVE Team, prioritizes treatment and coordinates with RTL.
1392
What is the purpose of the Forward Control Point (FCP)?
Control access, maintain accountability, and enhance situational awareness.
1393
What does THREAT stand for?
Threat Suppression, Hemorrhage Control, Rapid Extrication, Assessment, Transport.
1394
What PPE is required in ASHER operations?
Ballistic vest, helmet, gloves, and eye protection.
1395
What is Direct Threat Care (DTC)?
Medical care in the Hot Zone focused on massive hemorrhage control.
1396
What is Indirect Threat Care (ITC)?
Medical care in the Warm Zone under relative safety.
1397
What must be done when encountering a demonstration?
Notify ECC, avoid the area, and coordinate with law enforcement.
1398
What is the protocol for civil unrest response?
Establish Unified Command, monitor situation, and adjust deployments.
1399
What is the minimum response to a PVS?
Command Officer, Suppression Unit, and Rescue/Medic Unit.
1400
What must be done when staging for a PVS?
Select location out of sight, provide escape route, and turn off emergency lights.
1401
What is the role of Incident Command at a hostile event?
Establish command, coordinate Unified Command, define zones, and develop IAP.
1402
What actions must Rescue Task Forces avoid?
Entering the Hot Zone or delaying patient extraction.
1403
What must be done every 5 minutes during PVS response?
Conduct a Personnel Accountability Report until advised to stop.
1404
What is the primary purpose of a RIT team?
Immediate rescue of a trapped or endangered firefighter and to provide emergency egress.
1405
What is the minimum personnel required for an initial RIT team?
3 members, including one officer.
1406
What is the ideal RIT team size as resources become available?
5 to 6 members.
1407
What are the three benchmarks for firefighter rescue by RIT?
Locate, place on air, remove from hazard/building.
1408
What happens automatically upon RIT deployment due to a Mayday?
A second alarm is requested.
1409
Who is the RIT Group Supervisor?
The officer assigned to manage multiple RIT teams under the command structure.
1410
What should RIT officers confirm upon arrival at the scene?
Location of Command, other RITs, strategy/tactics, and availability of secondary egress.
1411
What is included in a basic RIT bag?
SCBA, 100’ rope, webbing, lights, wire cutters, and quick-fill hose.
1412
Where should RIT be positioned on a fireground?
Close to the entry point or near the most threatened crews, with clear egress.
1413
When should RIT pre-deployment checks be completed?
Immediately upon assignment to RIT duty.
1414
What must be done before entering a structure for RIT operations?
Conduct a 360°, assess hazards, confirm interior crew location if possible.
1415
What are common tools carried by RIT?
TIC, irons, rope, wire cutters, RIT bag, saws, lights, ladders.
1416
What does the acronym LUNAR stand for in a Mayday?
Location, Unit, Name, Assignment, Resources needed.
1417
What command protocol is used to transition during a Mayday?
Switch to a dedicated RIT channel, assign RIT Group Supervisor, establish rescue plan.
1418
What key info should be gathered prior to RIT deployment?
Last known location, air status, assignment, time since entry, radio traffic history.
1419
What is the RIT Officer responsible for during a rescue?
Direction of the team, communication with Command, and task assignment.
1420
What is the minimum equipment required for a RIT team?
RIT pack, hand tools, lights, rope, TIC, and radios.
1421
What role can additional RITs serve during extended operations?
Support, relief, egress preparation, and equipment shuttling.
1422
How should RIT prepare entry points?
Force doors, place ladders, mark secondary egress routes, confirm access.
1423
Who coordinates with the RIT Group Supervisor during a rescue?
Incident Command and Operations Section Chief.
1424
When should ladders be thrown by RIT?
Proactively to upper floors or as needed for firefighter egress.
1425
What PPE is required for RIT team members?
Full turnout gear with SCBA and PASS devices operational.
1426
What tactic should RIT avoid during rescue?
Freelancing or entering structure without known location of firefighter.
1427
How often should RIT status and readiness be confirmed?
Routinely by Command, minimum every 15 minutes.
1428
What post-incident responsibility does RIT have?
Assist in debrief, equipment rehab, and after-action review.
1429
What is the purpose of SOG 1008.00?
To reduce firefighter exposure to cancer-causing agents through PPE and equipment decontamination.
1430
What are the two levels of decontamination?
Primary (on-scene) and Secondary (at the fire station).
1431
When must firefighters remain on SCBA air?
During removal of grossly contaminated PPE at the fire scene.
1432
What must be done with uniforms worn during a fire incident?
Do not store them in personal lockers; wash before reuse.
1433
What items should not be brought into sleeping or living areas post-fire?
Contaminated gear or uniforms.
1434
What PPE should be worn when performing gear or apparatus cleaning?
Department-approved decontamination gloves.
1435
How should helmets be cleaned?
Damp cloth and mild detergent; remove and clean liners and ear flaps separately.
1436
What is primary decontamination?
Initial cleaning of gear and equipment on-scene using soap, water, and brushes.
1437
What is secondary decontamination?
Detailed cleaning of PPE and tools back at the station.
1438
What should be done with SCBA masks post-incident?
Clean with approved disinfectant and rinse thoroughly.
1439
How should turnout gear be transported for cleaning?
In sealed bags or designated containers to avoid cross-contamination.
1440
What is the role of the Company Officer in gear decon?
Ensure all primary decon is completed and document gross decon actions.
1441
What is the responsibility of the Engineer during decon?
Rinse and clean tools, hose, and vehicle exterior surfaces.
1442
What is the firefighter’s role in decontamination?
Clean own gear, perform primary decon, and follow PPE removal protocols.
1443
What substance should be used to clean contaminated gear?
Mild detergent and water (not bleach or harsh solvents).
1444
How should gloves be cleaned?
Washed separately from other PPE using warm water and mild detergent.
1445
What is prohibited inside the cab of a fire apparatus?
Contaminated turnout gear or unbagged equipment post-fire.
1446
What should be used to document completed gear decon?
Department’s RMS or assigned tracking system.
1447
What surfaces inside the apparatus should be cleaned?
Seats, seat belts, SCBA holders, and commonly touched areas.
1448
What action should be taken for gear exposed to known carcinogens?
Send for advanced cleaning and notify Command.
1449
What must be done with gear that was not grossly contaminated?
Still undergo primary and secondary cleaning protocols.
1450
How often should gear decon policies be reviewed?
At least annually or after major exposure events.
1451
When should turnout gear be dried?
After cleaning, hang in a well-ventilated area; do not use direct sunlight or high heat.
1452
Who should be notified if gear damage is found during cleaning?
Company Officer and Logistics or PPE coordinator.
1453
What should be done with tools exposed to contaminants?
Clean with water and approved decon agents; inspect for damage.
1454
What are the three types of offenses under GOAA 204.02?
Minor, Major, and Dismissal offenses.
1455
What is the form used to acknowledge receipt of policy 204.02?
Form 204.02.1 – Employee Acknowledgment.
1456
What disciplinary step is typically first for a minor offense?
Written Admonition to Written Reprimand.
1457
What happens after a third minor offense?
Suspension or Notice of Dismissal.
1458
What form is used to document disciplinary action?
Form 204.02.2 – Notice of Disciplinary Action.
1459
Who must approve dismissals, suspensions, or demotions?
Senior Director of Human Resources or designee.
1460
Can an employee appeal a dismissal?
Yes, through a Post Termination Review request within 5 business days.
1461
What disciplinary action can result from a major offense?
Suspension, demotion, or dismissal.
1462
What is required for due process before dismissal?
Investigation, documentation, opportunity for the employee to respond.
1463
How should violations be documented?
Clearly, with facts, forms, and supporting documentation.
1464
What does a 'Notice of Disciplinary Action' include?
Details of misconduct, prior offenses, disciplinary decision, appeal rights.
1465
Can an employee be represented during disciplinary meetings?
Yes, representation is permitted during formal proceedings.
1466
What is a supervisor's responsibility under 204.02?
Timely documentation and reporting of observed or alleged misconduct.
1467
What does progressive discipline mean?
Applying increasingly serious consequences for repeated or severe misconduct.
1468
How long do disciplinary actions remain in an employee’s file?
As determined by Human Resources policies and legal standards.
1469
What can trigger an investigation under 204.02?
Employee complaint, witness report, or observed violation.
1470
What is the goal of the misconduct policy?
To ensure fair, consistent, and corrective disciplinary practices.
1471
When must disciplinary action be reported to HR?
Immediately following an infraction or investigation.
1472
What may be used as supporting documents in an investigation?
Witness statements, time records, surveillance, or written reports.
1473
Is counseling considered disciplinary action?
No, it's corrective and not part of formal disciplinary records.
1474
What are examples of dismissal-level offenses?
Workplace violence, theft, serious safety violations, falsification of records.
1475
What is the minimum documentation required for suspension?
Form 204.02.2, offense details, prior history, and HR approval.
1476
How soon must a post-termination review be filed?
Within 5 business days of dismissal.
1477
What is the employee's right after a reprimand?
They may respond in writing to be attached to the personnel file.
1478
What are examples of minor offenses?
Tardiness, unprofessional behavior, or dress code violations.
1479
What is considered 'Violence in the Workplace' under GOAA 204.05?
Use of, or threat to use, force, abuse, or intimidation to harm a person or property.
1480
What is an Emergency Situation under GOAA 204.05?
Injury has occurred or there’s an immediate threat of physical harm, including use of a weapon.
1481
What is a Threatening Situation under GOAA 204.05?
Intimidating words or gestures that induce fear but no immediate danger is present.
1482
What should an employee do during an Emergency Situation?
Call 911 and report to management and HR as soon as safely possible.
1483
What is the appropriate response in a Threatening Situation?
Remove oneself from danger and report the incident to management or HR.
1484
What qualifies as a 'Weapon' under this policy?
Any object that poses a reasonable risk of injury when used or threatened to be used.
1485
What behavior is prohibited under GOAA’s Violence in the Workplace policy?
Abuse, threats, intimidation, property damage, stalking, revenge threats, and more.
1486
Who is responsible for enforcing this policy?
Supervisors, managers, and Human Resources.
1487
What is the role of Human Resources in violent workplace incidents?
Investigate incidents, administer discipline, and maintain safety procedures.
1488
Can violence include verbal abuse?
Yes, verbal abuse is considered a form of workplace violence.
1489
What are employees encouraged to report?
All incidents of threats, intimidation, or violence, regardless of severity.
1490
What disciplinary actions can result from policy violations?
Verbal warning, suspension, demotion, or termination.
1491
Is retaliation permitted against those who report violence?
No, retaliation is strictly prohibited and itself a policy violation.
1492
What may be issued if a threat is credible?
Temporary removal from work and investigation by HR or law enforcement.
1493
What is a key goal of the violence prevention policy?
Promote a safe, respectful, and productive workplace environment.
1494
Are personal protective orders honored under this policy?
Yes, employees should notify HR and provide documentation for safety planning.
1495
What must supervisors do if notified of workplace violence?
Take immediate action to ensure safety and report to HR.
1496
Who should be contacted if an employee is concerned for their safety?
Immediate supervisor or Human Resources.
1497
Is GOAA responsible for protecting employees from off-duty threats?
Yes, when those threats extend into the workplace environment.
1498
Can anonymous reports be submitted?
Yes, but more complete reports assist in effective response and resolution.
1499
What kind of training may be provided under this policy?
De-escalation, threat recognition, and emergency response procedures.
1500
What must all employees do upon witnessing violent behavior?
Report it immediately to management or HR, even if not directly involved.
1501
Does this policy apply to contractors and visitors?
Yes, all persons on GOAA premises are subject to this policy.
1502
What if a threatening individual is a co-worker?
Report to supervisor or HR immediately—confidentiality will be maintained.
1503
What is the main objective of GOAA 204.05?
Prevent and respond to violence in order to ensure a safe workplace for all.
1504
What are the three types of employee movement under GOAA Policy 206.01?
Promotion, Demotion, and Lateral Transfer.
1505
What is a 'Currently Market Sensitive' classification?
A classification with limited market availability and specialized skills requiring pay adjustments to stay competitive.
1506
What is the typical salary increase for a promotion?
At least 6%, unless constrained by pay range or internal equity.
1507
What is the probationary pay structure for ARFF firefighters?
Begins at probationary rate and moves to Step 1 after probation.
1508
What annual incentive is given to ARFF Paramedics?
$9,022 annually.
1509
What annual incentive is given to ARFF EMTs?
$4,106 annually.
1510
When does longevity pay begin under this policy?
After 10 years of continuous service.
1511
What is the longevity pay amount for 10–14 years of service?
$825 annually.
1512
What is the longevity pay amount for 15–19 years of service?
$1,650 annually.
1513
What is the longevity pay amount for 20+ years of service?
$2,475 annually.
1514
How is longevity pay issued?
Annually in a lump sum.
1515
What happens when an employee is demoted?
Their pay is reduced, but not below the minimum of the lower pay grade.
1516
What is the effect of a lateral transfer on pay?
No pay adjustment is typically made.
1517
What is the process for pay range adjustments?
Reviewed periodically by HR and adjusted for market competitiveness.
1518
What defines a 'Step Adjustment'?
A movement within the same pay range due to exceptional performance or market conditions.
1519
Who approves step adjustments and promotions?
Department Directors with review by Human Resources.
1520
Can a pay increase exceed the range maximum?
Only with CEO or designee approval under exceptional conditions.
1521
What is the effect of FLSA status under this policy?
It determines overtime eligibility and exempt/non-exempt classification.
1522
What classification does not receive longevity pay?
Temporary, seasonal, and part-time employees.
1523
When is promotional pay increase effective?
On the date of promotion.
1524
When may pay be red-circled?
When current pay exceeds the new range maximum but employee remains in position.
1525
What must occur when a demotion is involuntary?
A written explanation and HR approval are required.
1526
What document governs eligibility for pay increases?
The Wage and Pay Plan outlined in GOAA Policy 206.01.
1527
Can employees receive both incentive and longevity pay?
Yes, if they meet the criteria for each separately.
1528
What is the policy’s overarching goal?
To ensure competitive, fair, and consistent compensation practices.
1529
What are the three promotional ranks under GOAA Policy 206.02?
Engineer, Lieutenant, District Chief.
1530
What is required to test for Engineer?
3 years ARFF FF, 80-hour Pump Ops course, and relief driver qualified.
1531
What is required to test for Lieutenant?
FF/Engineer certification, Florida Fire Officer I, and Relief Officer qualified per SOG 900.13.
1532
What is required to test for District Chief?
Minimum 2 years as OIAFR Lieutenant, Fire Officer II certification.
1533
How often are promotional exams typically held?
Engineer/Lieutenant: every 2 years; DC: as needed.
1534
What is the minimum passing score for promotional written or practical exams?
0.7
1535
What happens if a candidate fails any portion of the process?
They are removed from eligibility for that cycle.
1536
How long is the promotional eligibility list valid?
Up to 2 years from the final score date or until next exam cycle.
1537
What is the process for breaking tie scores?
Overall score, then highest written score, then most seniority.
1538
What is required to qualify as a Relief Driver?
Completion of written, practical, OJT, and sign-off per SOG 900.11.
1539
What documents are required to apply for promotion?
Application form, certs, and documentation as requested by HR/Training.
1540
Who conducts the written exam?
Training Division in coordination with Human Resources.
1541
What must candidates do prior to testing?
Meet all eligibility criteria and submit application before deadline.
1542
How many points may be awarded for State certifications?
Points vary—Engineer/Lieutenant: up to 10 points; DC: up to 20.
1543
Are certification points counted without proof?
No, all documentation must be submitted to receive points.
1544
Can a candidate appeal a disqualification?
Yes, via written appeal to the Senior Director of HR.
1545
What determines the final promotional score?
Combined written, practical, and certification point scores.
1546
What if a candidate cannot complete a component due to restrictions?
They are disqualified from that promotional cycle.
1547
Who authorizes final promotional appointments?
The Fire Chief based on eligibility list and vacancy.
1548
What happens if a candidate withdraws during the process?
They must reapply during the next cycle.
1549
How long are exam scores and eligibility maintained?
Up to 2 years or until a new cycle is conducted.
1550
What happens if a tie remains after applying all tiebreakers?
The Fire Chief makes the final determination.
1551
Are promotional processes open to all personnel?
Only those who meet the minimum qualifications and deadlines.
1552
What SOG governs Relief Officer qualification?
SOG 900.13.
1553
What entity manages the promotional process?
The Training Division and Human Resources.
1554
Where do Authority vehicles have jurisdiction as emergency vehicles?
Only within Orlando International Airport (MCO) and Orlando Executive Airport (ORL).
1555
Are Authority vehicles exempt from traffic laws during emergency response?
No, they must obey all traffic laws and regulations at all times.
1556
When are flashing or rotating lights allowed on public roads?
Only under limited conditions such as aircraft emergencies or by police direction.
1557
Can Authority vehicles use emergency lights routinely off airport property?
No, only under extreme and approved circumstances.
1558
What is required before operating a GOAA vehicle under emergency conditions?
Operator must be certified and follow all outlined protocols.
1559
What are examples of exceptions permitting emergency light use on public roads?
Aircraft accident, Declared Aircraft Emergency, or directed by law enforcement.
1560
Does this policy allow emergency driving privileges on city streets?
No, not unless one of the strict exceptions is met.
1561
What happens if an Authority driver violates this policy?
They may face disciplinary action per GOAA policy and legal consequences.
1562
What must all Authority vehicle operators do prior to using emergency lights?
Ensure it’s within GOAA-approved circumstances and document if required.
1563
What does the policy emphasize over speed and urgency?
Safety, legal compliance, and operational integrity.
1564
What must drivers always use even during emergency response?
Due regard for the safety of all persons and property.
1565
Who has final say on emergency light usage outside airport jurisdiction?
Law enforcement and GOAA senior command, as outlined in policy.
1566
Are lights and sirens permitted when responding to routine calls?
No, only in approved emergency scenarios.
1567
What airport properties fall under this policy’s jurisdiction?
All roads, ramps, and access points within MCO and ORL airports.
1568
What vehicles does this policy apply to?
All GOAA Authority emergency and support vehicles.
1569
What governs security operations at Orlando International Airport?
The Airport Security Program (ASP).
1570
Who is responsible for implementing the ASP?
The Director of Security.
1571
What type of federal classification is the ASP under?
Sensitive Security Information (SSI).
1572
Who must be badged according to GOAA policy?
All personnel who regularly work on airport property.
1573
What is required before issuing a security badge?
Background checks and access level approval based on job function.
1574
Can a contractor perform multiple services in secure areas?
Only with express written approval from the Aviation Authority.
1575
Is filming or photography in secure areas allowed?
Only with prior approval from Public Affairs and Security Departments.
1576
What must badge holders do if their access is no longer required?
Return the badge immediately to the Credentialing Office.
1577
What happens if a badge is lost or stolen?
It must be reported immediately to Airport Security and Credentialing Office.
1578
What is the penalty for unauthorized access to secure areas?
Possible arrest, badge revocation, and prosecution.
1579
Who approves ASP revisions and updates?
The TSA and the Director of Security.
1580
What is the function of the ASP?
To outline and enforce all federally mandated and GOAA-specific security protocols.
1581
How long must security training records be retained?
As defined by TSA regulation and ASP guidelines.
1582
What is required for unescorted access to secure areas?
Valid badge with proper access level and completed training.
1583
What type of vehicles may enter secure areas?
Only those with authorized permits and proper escort if needed.
1584
What must GOAA employees report immediately?
Suspicious activity, unauthorized access, and any ASP violations.
1585
What law protects SSI from public disclosure?
49 CFR Parts 15 and 1520.
1586
What is the consequence for mishandling SSI?
Disciplinary action, badge revocation, and potential federal penalties.
1587
What are escorting responsibilities?
Remain with escorted persons at all times within secure areas.
1588
Who enforces security compliance across airport operations?
Airport Security, GOAA management, and designated law enforcement.
1589
What does SIDA stand for?
Security Identification Display Area.
1590
What is the AOA?
Air Operations Area – includes movement areas, ramps, and aircraft parking areas.
1591
What is considered the Sterile Area?
The terminal area beyond TSA screening up to the jetway doors.
1592
What must be completed before being granted SIDA access?
Required training and a background check.
1593
What are the three exemption types under Policy 730.01?
RED – continuous, YELLOW – emergency only, GREEN – baggage makeup only.
1594
What is the penalty for a first SIDA violation?
5-day badge confiscation and retraining.
1595
What is the penalty for a second SIDA violation?
20-day badge confiscation and retraining.
1596
What is the penalty for a third SIDA violation?
Permanent revocation of MCO badge and access.
1597
What must badge holders do when entering the AOA or SIDA?
Display badge prominently above the waist, photo side out.
1598
Who has authority to verify badge and access credentials?
Airport Security and TSA personnel.
1599
Is escorting allowed in the AOA and SIDA?
Yes, but the escort must maintain constant visual and voice contact.
1600
What must be done after completing an escort?
Ensure the escorted individual exits the secure area properly.
1601
Can you lend your badge to another person?
No, lending or sharing badges is prohibited and results in penalties.
1602
What should you do if your badge is lost or stolen?
Immediately report it to Airport Security and the Credentialing Office.
1603
What must occur before escorting a non-badged person?
Confirm their reason for access and maintain control of their actions.
1604
What training is required for SIDA access renewal?
Annual refresher training and updated background check.
1605
What should be done if unauthorized persons are seen in secure areas?
Report immediately to Airport Security.
1606
What is the minimum age to hold a GOAA-issued SIDA badge?
18 years old.
1607
What must be done if you are terminated or transferred?
Return your badge to the Credentialing Office immediately.
1608
What agency mandates SIDA and AOA access compliance?
The Transportation Security Administration (TSA).
1609
What must a new employee provide before operating a GOAA vehicle?
A valid Florida driver’s license or valid out-of-state license (30-day window to convert).
1610
What form is used to waive vehicle privileges?
Form 1120.00.01 – Driving Privilege Exemption.
1611
What must be completed before and after using a GOAA vehicle?
Pre/Post Vehicle Inspection Log – Form 1120.00.02.
1612
Who is responsible for reporting any changes to their driving record?
The employee, to their supervisor and HR.
1613
Can you operate a GOAA vehicle with a suspended license?
No—driving privileges are suspended immediately.
1614
Who investigates vehicle-related accidents?
The department in coordination with Risk Management.
1615
What disciplinary action is taken for a minor vehicle offense?
Written reprimand and mandatory driver training.
1616
What constitutes a major vehicle offense?
Multiple minor incidents or a single serious event or behavior.
1617
What is considered a critical or dismissal-level vehicle offense?
Incident involving injury, major damage, substance use, or unlicensed operation.
1618
What form must employees sign to acknowledge this policy?
Form 1120.00.03 – Acknowledgment Form.
1619
Are personal vehicles covered under this policy?
Yes, if operated on GOAA property or for GOAA business.
1620
What is required for employees to use a personal vehicle for business?
Proof of insurance and written authorization.
1621
What is the consequence of not reporting a driving status change?
Possible disciplinary action, up to dismissal.
1622
What is the responsibility of supervisors under this policy?
Ensure vehicle forms are complete and respond to reported violations.
1623
What is the GOAA stance on drug and alcohol use in vehicles?
Zero tolerance—automatic dismissal for use while driving a GOAA vehicle.
1624
When is a drug/alcohol test required after a vehicle accident?
Immediately following any accident with injury, damage, or unsafe behavior.
1625
What document outlines operator responsibility in accidents?
GOAA Vehicle Operator Policy 1120.00.
1626
What must be attached to vehicle use documentation?
Proof of training, license verification, and inspection forms.
1627
Can family members ride in GOAA vehicles?
Only with prior authorization by department leadership.
1628
What must be done if an employee is involved in a vehicle incident?
Notify supervisor, complete incident report, and cooperate with investigation.
1629
How often are driver’s licenses verified?
At least annually, or more frequently if necessary.
1630
What training is required for new GOAA vehicle operators?
Initial vehicle safety training and periodic refreshers.
1631
What behavior must operators avoid while driving?
Reckless driving, using unauthorized passengers, or any policy violation.
1632
Is GPS or vehicle tracking used?
Yes, and tampering with it is a major offense.
1633
What defines a preventable accident?
Any accident that could have been avoided by using reasonable caution.
1634
What is the friction loss coefficient (C) for 1¾” hose?
15.5
1635
What is the friction loss coefficient (C) for 2½” hose?
2
1636
What is the friction loss coefficient (C) for 3” hose?
0.8
1637
What is the friction loss coefficient (C) for 4” hose?
0.2
1638
What is the friction loss coefficient (C) for 5” hose?
0.08
1639
What is the standard engine pressure for handlines with fog nozzles?
150 psi
1640
What is the standard engine pressure for solid bore nozzles?
50 psi for smooth bore; 80 psi for master stream solid tips
1641
What is the standard engine pressure for relay pumping?
Typically 50–100 psi depending on system demands and distance
1642
What is the standard nozzle pressure for a fog nozzle?
100 psi
1643
What is the standard nozzle pressure for a solid bore handline?
50 psi
1644
What is the standard nozzle pressure for a master stream fog?
100 psi
1645
What is the standard nozzle pressure for a master stream smooth bore?
80 psi
1646
What is the friction loss in small appliances under 350 GPM?
0 psi
1647
What is the friction loss in appliances over 350 GPM?
10 psi (standard value)
1648
How much elevation pressure is gained/lost per foot of height?
0.5 psi per foot
1649
What is the elevation loss for a 5-story building (approx 50 ft)?
25 psi
1650
What is the elevation loss for a 3-story building (approx 30 ft)?
15 psi
1651
What is the formula for friction loss?
FL = C × Q² × L
1652
What is the formula for nozzle reaction (fog nozzle)?
NR = 0.0505 × GPM × √NP
1653
What is the formula for nozzle reaction (smooth bore)?
NR = 1.57 × d² × NP
1654
What is the initial nozzle reaction estimate for a 1¾” fog nozzle?
60–70 lbs (based on 100 psi and 150 GPM)
1655
What is the initial nozzle reaction for a 2½” smooth bore?
Over 100 lbs depending on GPM and NP

ARFF Eng. Promotion Test (67 decks)

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