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Clinical Embryologist's exam samples. > ART-Laboratory procedures > Flashcards

ART-Laboratory procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Regarding oocyte assessment two anomalies remain that should be handled with caution:

A

Regarding oocyte assessment two anomalies remain that should be handled with caution:

  • (i) ‘giant’ oocytes because of their likely abnormal` genetic constitution and
  • (ii) sER clusters because of their potentially lethal outcomes.
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2
Q

The time for syngamy check is different for ICSI And IVF Insemination

A

true

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3
Q

The nature of the zona pellucida is important in oocyte grading.

A

false

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4
Q

Fast Cleaving embryos are considered normal

A

False

Fast Cleaving embryos are considered at risk of being abnormal

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5
Q

A fragmentation of 25% in a 4cell embryo equates to one blastomere in volume

A

true

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6
Q

A poor cleaving embryo may have either:…… , …….., …….

A
  • severe fragmentation
  • cells out of phase
  • multinucleation
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7
Q

A 4AA Grade and a 411 Grade Blastocyst Are the Same?

A

true

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8
Q

Following aspiration, human oocytes are best held in

  1. Follicular fluid until fertilization at body temperature
  2. Bicarbonate buffered media at room temperature
  3. HEPES or MOPS buffered media at room temperature
  4. HEPES or MOPS buffered media at 37ºC
A

4.

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9
Q

If Day 0 is time of ovulation. human embryos would naturally enter the uterus on:

  1. Day 1
  2. Day 2
  3. Day 3
  4. Day 4
  5. Day 5
A

4.

Embryo enter the Uterus d4 of ovulation in natural

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10
Q

Which Statement is NOT true?

  1. pH strips are useful for checking
  2. Phenol red is a pH indicator and potentially oestrogenic
  3. Phenol red turns yellow in media with a pH of 6.5
  4. pH strips are usually sold non-sterile
  5. Phenol red is a clear solution that turns red in culture media
A

5.

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11
Q

The Optimum Embryo Development Stage for Transfer is:

  1. Always the blastocyst stage as these are the stronger embryos
  2. What works best in your own clinic
  3. Cleavage stage embryos since some grading is possible
  4. Whatever the patient requests
  5. When the embryonic genome is activated
A

2.

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12
Q

In ICSI, Immotile Sperm may be used Successfully after:

  1. positive response following exposure to hypo-osmotic medium
  2. electroporation
  3. treatment with calcium ionophore A23187
  4. showing motility in pentoxifylline containing medium
A

1, 4

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13
Q

To increase Humidity in Incubator……..

A

Placing a tray with 1L of water in the incubator will create humidity levels > 75%

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14
Q

advantages of oil overlay in culture media…….

A

reduce changes in Temp- and PH

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15
Q

Sequential Media was developed because there are changes in………………..

A

Sequential Media was developed because there are changes in embryo metabolism during cleavage

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16
Q

High O2 Coc- may increase the……….

A

free radical formation

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17
Q

Mineral Oil and Paraffin Oil

A

Paraffin oil and mineral oil are chemically slightly different

The polycarbon lipid tail of mineral oil contains more unsaturated bonds than paraffin oil

This makes mineral oil more unstable and prone to attack by free oxygen radicals and photo-oxidation

Paraffin oil is derived from fractionated distillation

Silicone Oil is a polymer

Silicone Oil may be more stable that paraffin oil.

Silicon oil is derived from gas chromatogrphy

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18
Q

High Temperature may be detrimental to the Oil

A

true

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19
Q

Washing Media Before use is a good idea because….

A
  • Batch To Batch Variability
  • It May Reduce Or Remove Water Soluble Toxins
  • washing Media Containing EDTA may Reduce or Remove Cations Such as Zinc
    *
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20
Q

Some Mineral Oil may Contain Preservatives Such as

A

Alpha-Tocopherol

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21
Q

Fertilisation Media Not Contain EDTA because:

A
  • EDTA may chelate Ca2++
  • Ca2++ is requried for the acrosome reaction
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22
Q

Biopsy Media free of Ca2++ but contain EDTA because….

A

to perform biopsy ⇒►and reduce blastomere compaction

Ca2++ is required for compaction

If Ca2++ is absent, the blastomeres cannot adhere

► then it can be biopsied

EDTA is a chelating agent so it will remove Ca2++ and facilitate biopsy

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23
Q

The Oocyte has …………..requirement for glucose

A

little or limited

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24
Q

Glucose is added to fertilization media for…….

A

sperm metabolism and motility

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25
Penicillamine is sometimes used as a replacement for EDTA
true
26
Zinc and **Cadmium** are two potentially toxic cations removed by EDTA
true
27
EDTA is also used as a Free Radical Scavenger
true
28
EDTA can ..............Glycolysis in early cleavage stage Embryos
suppress
29
protein sources supplementation of culture media used in early years....
* Bovine serum albumin * Human fetal cord serum * Fertile Human donor serum * Maternal Human serum * --------------------------------------------- The main problems in their use include: Occult toxicity Immense lack of consistency Variation in the source and grading Untraceable risk of disease transmission
30
The development of stage specific media formulations allowed:
**Replacement of serum with Human Serum Albumin (HSA)** **Development of serum substitutes to augment HSA** **The substitutes were mainly serum globulins**
31
Pregnancy has been achieved in **protein free** media that includes: * Polyvinvyl pyrrolidone (PVP) * Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA) * Hyaluronic acid
true
32
The requirements for HSA And Supplements such as Globulins and Growth Factors Appear Stage Dependent.
true
33
Phenol Red is
**a guide to media pH** **Not toxic to embryos** **Not toxic to sperm** **Not toxic to eggs** **Straw colour at pH 7.2** **Yellow at pH 7.0** **Red at pH 7.4** **Maroon at pH 7.8**
34
The Actual PH Of Culture Medium With 5%-6% CO2 will be influenced by: 1. Protein concentration 2. The type of protein Supplementation 3. Altitude 4. Age of the medium 5. The number of times a bottle has been opened 6. The latitude 7. The longitude
1.
35
A Change in the color of culture media is most likely due to 1. The age of the medium 2. The number of times the bottle has been opened 3. The loss of CO2 from the medium 4. Contamination 5. Infection
2, 3
36
The Shelf Life of CM (at 5˚C) is: 1. 2 weeks 2. 4 weeks 3. 6 weeks 4. 8 weeks 5. 10 weeks 6. 12 weeks
5. ## Footnote The Shelf Life of culture media **CM** (at 5˚C) is 10 weeks
37
The Main Source of a buildup of ammonia in culture media is due to 1. Glucose 2. Pyruvate 3. Bicarbonate 4. Glutamate 5. Glutamate dipeptide 6. Non-essential Acids
4.
38
The ability of an embryo to regulate its metabolism is directly related to its ability to implant and form a viable pregnancy
true
39
There are suggestions growth that rapid cleavage leads to loss of viability
true
40
precocious exposure to glucose may cause the early cleavage embryo to divide too fast leading to loss of energy stores and viability
true
41
The Main Metabolic Pathways Include
**Pyruvate and lactate** **Glucose** **Amino Acids** **Fatty acid and b-oxidation**
42
The Oviduct concentration of pyruvate is: 1. 0.22 mM 2. 0.32 mM 3. 0.42 mM 4. 0.52 mM 5. 0.62 mM
2.
43
The Uterine concentration of pyruvate is: 1. 0.1 mM 2. 0.2 mM 3. 0.3 mM 4. 0.4 mM 5. 0.5 mM
1.
44
The Oviduct Concentration of LACTATE is: 1. 6.5 mM 2. 7.5 mM 3. 8.5 mM 4. 9.5 mM 5. 10.5 mM
5.
45
Oviduct natural environment Uterine Pyruvate conc- 0. 32 mM 0. 1 mM LACTATE conc- 10. 5 mM 5. 87 mM Glucose 0. 5 mM 3. 15 mM Amino Acids non-essential amino acids Mix of ess & non-ess
46
The Metabolic Quotient of an early-stage cleavage embryo is similar to 1. heart tissue 2. brain tissue 3. muscle tissue 4. liver tissue 5. tumor tissue
2.
47
The Metabolic Quotient of a **blastocyst** is similar to 1. heart tissue 2. brain tissue 3. muscle tissue 4. liver tissue 5. tumor tissue
5. ## Footnote remember Metabolic Quotient of : early stage embryo ≈►brain tissue blastocyst is similar to ≈►tumor tissue
48
**Artificial oocyte activation is proposed when** 1. A few oocytes failed to fertilise 2. Less than half the oocytes fail to fertilise 3. More than half the oocytes fail to fertilise 4. All the oocytes fail to fertilise 5. All the mature oocytes fail to fertilise
5
49
**A Common Ionphore used is** 1. A23185 2. A23187 3. A13289 4. A23191 5. A23193
2.
50
The Common Ionophore Is Known As 1. Calcimycin 2. Calcomycin 3. Calcamycin 4. Calcmycin 5. Calcemycin
1.
51
**Oocyte Activation**
**Reinitiates the cell cycle** **Induces oscillations in free calcium levels** **Controls the timing of subsequent cell divisions** **It is assumed to do so by overcoming a failure to up-regulate free calcium levels after sperm entrance into the Ooplasm**
52
The pattern of calcium **oscillations** (transients) differs between normally fertilized and artificial oocyte activation (AOA)
true
53
**the use of Ionophores in IVF**
Should be considered experimental Be restricted to only total fertilisation failure Has been labelled as experimental by the HFEA has the potential to be included in all ICSI cases to minimise the risk of failed fertilisation **The HFEA Recommendations:** recommends it use to restricted to selected patients e.g. PLC deficiencies recommends that patients are provided with its efficacy and potential risks
54
**a post hoc indication**
55
**logistic regression to evaluate interdependency**
logistic regression to evaluate interdependency. -Evaluating the interdependency between a variety of factors influencing success rates. Here are some specific examples: -Evaluate the influence of environmental factors like temperature, pH, and oxygen levels on embryo development -Compare different culture media formulations by using media composition as predictors and embryo developmental -Analyze the relationship between sperm parameters like motility, morphology, and concentration with fertilization rates or embryo quality using logistic regression.
56
What is the laboratory decisions in case of oocyte with large PB?
oocyte with large PB (this may not be possible for oocytes that are inseminated via IVF, rather than ICSI). The size of the polar body should only be noted if it is exceptionally large. It was the consensus that oocytes with an abnormally large polar body should not be inseminated, due to the risk of oocyte aneuploidy.
57
Oocytes with sER disk ?
oocytes with sER should not be inseminated. In addition, it was noted that the sibling oocytes should also be examined for the presence of sER disks
58
Large vacuoles
Large vacuoles (\>14 mm in diameter) are associated with fertilization failure. In oocytes that are fertilized, those vacuoles that persist past syngamy can interfere with cleavage planes, resulting in a lower blastocyst rate
59
pronuclei with no NPBs called?
pronuclei with no NPBs called "**ghost pronuclei**’ while a single NPBs (‘bulls-eye pronuclei”)
60
Multinucleation assessment on Day 2 is more reliable than Day 3 ?
Multinucleation assessment on Day 2 is more reliable than Day 3 due to difficult assess the small size blastomeres on Day 3 compared to D2
61
early compaction on Day 3 indicates ......?
Early compaction on Day 3 is atypical, of unknown biological significance.
62
Final Sperm conc after processing for convential IVF?
-After processing by sperm wash or DG, -Final concentration and motility are reassesed. Motile sperm are suspended in an amount of media that allows final conc 25*10^3 -50 *10^3 motile sperm per mL.
63
Main components of the microinjection setupMicroscope for (ICSI)
ICSI setting includes **an inverted microscope** capable of 400-600x magnification connected to a video system. The microscope has **a heated stage**, **two electric motor-driven coarse- and fine-control manipulators**, and **two microinjectors.** The microscope must be equipped with **Nomarski or other phase interference optics**
64
True or false: PGT-A allowed single ET
Euploid embryo after PGT-a is highly recommended for Single ET
65
Epigenetics
Changes(reprogramming) in Gene expression by mechanism rather than DNA -Histon modification -DNA methylation
66
women 47 old should be encouraged to ART
women 47 old should discourage to ART
67
women attende to embryo tansfer but hasband didn't, and she told that, he already signed the consent yesterday, what's your decision?
* postpone ET or freez all * Inseminatin and ET should be performed in presence of the couple.
68

Clinical Embryologist's exam samples. (22 decks)

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