assessment of the eyes, and ears Flashcards
(122 cards)
1
Q
what does the eye transmit to the brain for interpretation
A
visual stimuli
2
Q
what protects the eyeball?(2)
A
- bony orbit
- fat fusion
3
Q
what does the the external structure or the EYELIDS do for the lower and upper eyes? (2)
A
- limits the amount of light
- lubricate the surface
4
Q
what part of the eye allow drainage of tears into the lacrimal system containing SEBACEOUS GLAND? (middle eyeliner- external KANTO)
A
Medial canthus
5
Q
this is the WHITE SPACE between open eyelids (where i put eyeshadow)
A
palpebral fissure
6
Q
projections of stiff hair
A
eyelashes
7
Q
glands and ducts that LUBRICATE EYES
A
lacrimal apparatus
8
Q
this is a MUSCLE that control 6 diff directions of the eye
A
extraocular muscles
9
Q
Conjuctiva area: covers ANTERIOR EYE merging w cornea at the limbus (border) (OPENS AND CLOSES)
A
palpebral conjuctiva
10
Q
internal structure: the eyeball consists of 2 parts:
A
- sclera
- cornea
11
Q
this is a dense, protective WHITE COVERING that PHYSICALLY supports the internal structures
A
sclera
12
Q
permits the entrance of light
A
cornea
13
Q
circular disc of muscle containing pigments that determine EYE COLOR
A
IRIS
14
Q
central APERTURE of the IRIS (black spot)
A
PUPIL
15
Q
the innermost layer
A
retina
16
Q
cream-colored circular area located on the retina toward the MEDIAL NASAL SIDE OF EYE
A
optic side
17
Q
refers to what a person see with the eye
A
visual field
18
Q
4 quadrants of the visual field of the eye
A
- upper temporal
- lower temporal
- upper nasal
- lower nasal
19
Q
this is being transformed into nerve impulses, conducted to the brain through the optic nerve, and interpreted
A
visual perception
20
Q
causes pupil immediately to CONSTRICT AND DILATE (direct reflex)
A
pupillary light reflex
21
Q
allow eyes to focus on near objects
A
functional reflex
22
Q
test for distant visual acuity
A
Snellen
23
Q
test for distant visual acuity when patients have no verbal communication
A
E chart
24
Q
how far does the client stand away w an opaque card?
A
20 ft
25
what is the normal distant acuity w/ w/out corrective lenses?
20/20
26
what do you call an impaired far vision when the second number in the test result is larger than the first (20/40) **the higher the second number, the poorer the vision.
Myopia
27
true or false. a client can wear reading glasses for test in distant visual acuity
false
28
what do you consider of the client when vision in the better eye with corrective lenses is 20/200 or less? (worse than 20/30)
legally blind
29
who are eligible for the test for NEAR visual acuity?
middle aged or others w dfficulty reading.
30
how far can the hand held vision chart (near vision test) be from the eyes?
14 inches away
31
what is the normal finding for NEAR visual acuity w or w/out corrective lenses?
14/14
32
what is an impaired NEAR vision called?
presbyopia
33
how far will u stand to test visual fields for GROSS PERIPHERAL vision?
2 feet away from the client eye
34
what is a complete blindness of one eye?
unilateral blindness
35
loss of vision in both temporal fields
bitemporal hemianopia
36
partial lesion of temporal loop (optic radiation)
left superior quadrant anopia
37
lesion of optic chiasm
bitemporal hemianopia
38
lesion in eye or optic nerve
unilateral blindness
39
lesion in right optic tract or lesion in temporal loop (optic radiation)
right visual field loss or similar loss of vision in half of each field
40
normal in young children, pupils will appear at the inner canthus (due to epicanthic fold)
pseudostrabismus
41
constant misalignment of the eye axis
strabismus
42
movement of weaker eye is an inward drift of the eye when the stronger eye is covered
esophoria
43
movement of weaker eye outward drift of the eye when the stronger eye is covered
exophoria
44
an oscillating (shaking) movement of the eye
nystagmus
45
constant malalignment of the eye axis. one eye turns INWARD
esotopia
46
constant malalignment of the eye axis. one eye turns outward
exotopia
47
usually the result of weakness or PARALYSIS of one or more EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLES..
paralytic strabismus
48
this is a paralysis where weakness or PARALYSIS of one or more EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLES when the eye cannot look at the OUTER SIDE
6th nerve paralysis
49
this is a paralysis where weakness or PARALYSIS of one or more EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLES when the eye lost the UPWARD, DOWNWARD AND INWARD MOVEMENTS
3rd nerve paralysis
50
this is a paralysis where weakness or PARALYSIS of one or more EXTRAOCULAR MUSCLES when the eye cannot look DOWN
4th nerve paralysis- client can only loook down to the right
51
drooping of the upper lid that
ptosis
52
inverted lower lid as the eyelash brushes against against the conjuctiva and cornea
entropion
53
everted lower eyelid (drying of conjuctiva)
ectropion
54
separates the external ear from the middle ear
tympanic membrane
55
can ba used to assess the external ear and tympanic membrane
otoscope
56
3 parts of the external ear
auricle-pinna
cerumen
tympanic membrane/eardrum
57
what is the yellow plaques at inner canthus
xanthelasma
58
follicle infection in the eye
hordeolum
59
meibomian gland infection
chalazion
60
protrusion q retracted eyelids
exophthalamos
61
yellow nodules at bulbar conjuctiva
pinguecula
62
opacities of lens
cataract
63
results from a cardiopulmonary problem, whereas peripheral cyanosis may be a local problem resulting from vasoconstriction.
central cyanosis
64
butterfly rash found in dark people
malar rash
65
caused by iron deficiency, anemia
koilonychia
66
caused by hypoalbuminemia of chronic liver disease
leukonychia
67
caused by decreased protein synthesis. palpabale and does not disappear upon blanchinh
meuhrke's lines
68
lines caused by infection, injury, trauma
beau's lines
69
caused by psoriasis
pitting of nails
70
caused by lung disease, cyanotic heart, heart disease
nail clubbing
71
nails curved inwards deforming nails
pincer nails/trumpet nails
72
thickiening and discolorationcaused by fungal infection.
onycholysis
73
malaligned or low set ears. Smaller than 4cm or larger than 10 cm (normally, ears are 4-10cm equal in size)
chromosomal defects
74
painful auricle or tragus. Foul smelling, sticky YELLOW DISCHARGE
otitis externa
75
painful auricle or tragus
Post auricular cyst
76
tenderness over the mastoid process
Mastoiditis
77
tenderness behind the ear. RED Bloody, purulent discharge.
otitis media
78
gradual sensorineural hearing loss due to degeneration of the degeneration of the cochlea or vestibulocochlear nerve common in older clients. Difficulty hearing consonants and whispered words that increase difficulty over time.
presbycusis
79
occurs with AGING as the auditory ossicles develop spongy consistency that results in conductive hearing loss.
otoscelorosis
80
startle in new borns
moro reflex
81
blink eyes in response to NOISE
acoustic blink reflex
82
how many decibels can new borns hear and react with the startle reflex?
90 decibels
83
weber's test. The client reports LATERALIZATION of sound to the POOR EAR. (hears sounds in poor ear or sounds conducted by BONE VIBRATION.) the good ear is distracted by bg noise, conducted air which the poor ear has trouble hearing
conductive hearing loss
84
the client reports lateralization of sound to the GOOD EAR due to nerve damage in the bad ear
Sensorineural hearing loss
85
compares air and bone conduction sounds.
Rinne test-
86
bone conduction sound is heard longer than air conduction sound
conductive hearing loss
87
air conduction sound is heard longer than bone conduction if anything is heard at all.
Sensorineural hearing loss
88
romberg test (equilibrium test) if client moves FEET APART or FALL from loss of balance
Vestibular disorder
89
rich supply of blood vessels known as “KIESSELBACH’S AREA”
nasal septum
90
receding red gums w loss of teeth. disease is an infection of the tissues that hold your teeth in place.
periodontitis
91
normally, how many teeth are there?
28-32
92
upper or lower incisors PROTRUDE
malocclusion
93
red, swollen gums that bleed easily
Gingivitis/Scurvyphenytoin(vit C deficiency), leukemia
94
enlarged, redenned gums that COVER TEETH. (seen in pregnancy, puberty, leukemia and medications such as )
hyperplasia
95
drug for epilepsy causes gingival enlargement.
phenytoin
96
(usually lateral incisors) occur in up to 8% of Asians esp to those without 3rd molars
peg teeth
97
yellowish- whitish raised spots, are normal ectopic sebaceous glands
fordyce spots
98
seen in chronic irritation and smoking. precancerous lesion
cannot be removed after brushing
leukoplakia
99
“thrush”- Whitish, curdlike patches that scrape off over reddened mucosa and bleed easily
candida albicans
100
Many brown patches inside the cheeks of clients with adrenocortical insufficiency.occurs when the adrenal glands don't produce enough hormones, particularly cortisol and aldosterone, leading to various symptoms and potential life-threatening complications
canker sores
101
deep longitudinal fissured topographic map like tongue
dehydration
102
black, hairy tongue; a smooth, reddish, shiny tongue without papillae indicative of niacin or vitamin B12 deficiencies, certain anemias, and antineoplastic therapy.
bismuth toxicity
103
Decreased tongue strength may occur with a defect of the nerve?
12th nerve- hypoglossal
104
Loss of taste discrimination- occurs w what deficiency and defect in nerve?
zinc deficiency, 7th cranial nerve(facial)
105
may appear as thick white plaques on the hard palate.
candidal infection
106
Deep purple, raised, or flat lesions (seen in clients with AIDS)
kaposi's sarcoma
107
Fruity or acetone breath
diabetic ketoacidocis
108
is often associated with kidney disease.
ammonia
109
indicate oral or respiratory infection or tooth decay
foul odors
110
occurs in end stage liver disease
fetor hepaticus (sulfur odor)
111
split in two or partially severed
bifid uvula
112
Asymmetric movement or loss of movement may occur after
stroke/ cerobrovascular accident
113
Palate fails to rise and the uvula deviates to the normal side of the uvula.
cranial nerve X ( vagus)
114
when is drooling evident for infants?
3 months
115
deciduoud tooth eruption takes place bet the ages?
6-24 months
116
this is calles the yello white retention cysts on the hard palate and gums that are common for infants
epstein's pearls
117
tonsils are visbile in newborns. true or false?
false
118
at what age a child may loose deciduous teeth (temporary)?
6-12 years ols
119
what age does permanent teeth grow?
6 years old
120
at what age frontal sinuses develop?
7-8 y old
121
at what age sphenoid sinuses develop?
after puberty
122
The tonsils and adenoids rapidly grow, reaching maximum development by age
10-12
