Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Step 1 Pharm > Autonomics > Flashcards

Autonomics Flashcards

(59 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What part of sympathetic nervous system

is innervated by cholinergic fibers?

(2 places)

A

Adrenal medulla

Sweat glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What prevents release of NT at all cholinergic terminals?

A

Botulinum toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

System, receptor, G-protein?

Increases:

VSM contraction, pupillary dilation (mydriasis), intestinal and bladder sphincter contraction

A

Sympathetic

Alpha 1

Gq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

System, receptor, G-protein?

Increases:

Platelet aggregation

Decreases:

Sympathetic outflow, insulin release, lipolysis

A

Sympathetic

Alpha 2

Gi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

System, receptor, G-protein?

Increases:

HR, contractility, renin release, lipolysis

A

Sympathetic

Beta 1

Gs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

System, receptor, G-protein?

Increases:

HR, contractility, lipolysis, insuline release, aqueous humor production

Decreases:

VSM tone, bronchial SM tone, uterine tone (tocolysis), ciliary muscle tone

A

Sympathetic

Beta 2

Gs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

System, receptor, G-protein?

Effects in CNS, eneteric nervous system

A

Parasympathetic

M1

Gq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

System, receptor, G-protein?

Decrease:

HR, contractility of atria

A

Parasympathetic

M2

Gi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

System, receptor, G-protein?

Increases:

Exocrine gland secretions, gut peristalsis, bladder contraction, broncial SM tone, pupillary sphincter tone (miosis), ciliary muscle tone (accommodation)

A

Parasympathetic

M3

Gq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

System, receptor, G-protein?

Decreases:

Renal VSM tone

A

Dopamine

D1

Gs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

System, receptor, G-protein?

Modulates transmitter release, esp. in brain

A

Dopamine

D2

Gi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

System, receptor, G-protein?

Increases:

Nasal and bronchial mucus production, bronchial SM tone, pruritis, pain

A

Histamine

H1

Gq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

System, receptor, G-protein?

Increases:

Gastric acid secretion

A

Histamine

H2

Gs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

System, receptor, G-protein?

Increases:

VSM tone

A

Vasopressin

V1

Gq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

System, receptor, G-protein?

Increases:

H2O permeability, reabsoption in collecting duct

A

Vasopressin

V2

Gs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which enzyme, which second messenger?

Gq

Gs

Gi

A

Gq- phospholipase C, protein kinase C

Gs- adenylyl cyclase, protein kinase A

Gi- adenylyl cyclase, protein kinase A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Modulates NE release

by acting on

alpha-2, M2, angiotensin II

presynaptic autoreceptors

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Activated bowel, bladder smooth muscle

Postoperative ileus, neurogenic ileus

Urinary retention

Direct cholinergic agonist

AChE resistant

A

Bethanechol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Glaucoma, pupillary contraction

Direct cholinergic agonist

A

Carbachol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Potent stimulator of sweat, tears, saliva

Open and closed-angle glaucoma

(What does it contract?)

Direct cholinergic agonist

Resistant to AChE

A

Pilocarpine

Contracts:

ciliary muscle (open-angle glaucoma)

pupillary sphincter (closed-angle glaucoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Challenge test for asthma diagnosis

Stimulates muscaric receptors in airway when inhaled

Direct cholinergic agonist

A

Methacholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Postoperative and neurogenic ileus, urinary retention

Myasthenia gravis

Reversal of NMJ blockade (post-op)

Anticholinesterase (AChE-i)

No CNS penetration

A

Neostigmine

increases endogenous ACh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Myasthenia gravis (long-acting)

Anticholinesterase (AChE-i)

No CNS penetration

A

Pyridostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

(extremely short acting)

Anticholinesterase (AChE-i)

25
Anticholinergic toxicity (atropine OD) Crosses BBB
Physostigmine "Phyxes" atropine OD
26
Alzheimer's disease Anticholinesterase (AChE-**i**)
Donepezil
27
Side effects of cholinomimetics
COPD exarcerbation, asthma, peptic ulcers
28
AChE-**i** poisoning (due to organophosphates, i.e. parathion) Irreversibly inhibit AChE Symptoms: Diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, lacrimation, sweating, salivation
Treatment for AChE-i poisoning = Atropine + Pralidoxime (regenerates active AChE)
29
Mydriasis, cycloplegia (no accommodation) Muscarinic antagonists (3)
Atropine, homatropine, tropicamide
30
Parkinson's disease Muscarinic antagonist
Benztropine Park my Benz
31
Motion sickness Muscarinic antagonist
Scopolamine
32
COPD, asthma Muscarinic antagonists (2)
Ipratropium, tiotropium I pray I can breathe soon
33
Reduce urgency in mild cystitis, reduce bladder spasms Muscarinic antagonist
Oxybutynin
34
Reduce airway secretions (post-op) Oral: drooling, peptic ulcers Muscarinic antagonist
Glycopyrrolate
35
Bradycardia, eye exams Increases: Pupil dilation (mydriasis), cycloplegia (no accommodation) Decreases: Airway secretions, gastric acid secretion, gut motility, bladder urgency in cystitis Muscarinic antagonist
Atropine
36
Dry mouth, dry, flushed skin, increased body temperature, cycloplegia, mydriasis, disorientation Acute closed-angle glaucoma (elderly) Urinary retention (BPH) Hyperthermia (infants)
Atropine overdose (HOT as a hare DRY as a bone RED as a beet BLIND as a bat MAD as a hatter) (Tx: physostigmine)
37
alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-1, beta-2 Anaphylaxis, open-angle glaucoma, asthma, hypotension
Epinephrine
38
alpha-1, alpha-2, \> beta-1 Hypotension
Norepinephrine
39
beta-1, beta-2 Torsade de pointes, bradyarrhythmias
Isoproterenol (May worsen ischemia by causing tachycardia)
40
High doses: alpha-1, alpha-2 Medium doses: beta-1, beta-2 Low doses: D1 Shock (renal perfusion), heart failure inotropic and chronotropic
Dopamine
41
beta-1 \> alpha-1, alpha-2, beta-2 Heartfailure, cardiac stess test inotropic and chronotropic
Dobutamine
42
alpha-1, alpha-2 Hypotension, eye exams, rhinitis
Phenylephrine
43
beta-2 \> beta-1 Asthma, COPD, premature uterine contractions (3)
Albuterol- acute asthma Salmeterol- long-term asthma, COPD Terbutaline- premature uterine contractions
44
beta-2 Premature uterine contractions
Ritodrine
45
Releases stored catecholamines Narcolepsy, obesity, ADD
Amphetamine
46
Releases stored catecholamines Nasal decongestion, urinary incontinence, hypotension
Ephedrine
47
Catecholamine reuptake inhibitor Vasoconstriction, local anesthesia No beta-blockers!
Cocaine beta-blockers = unopposed alpha-1 activation = extreme hypertension
48
Centrally acting alpha-2 agonists Decrease sympathetic outflow Hypertension, esp. with renal disease
Clonidine, alpha-methyldopa (No decrease in blood flow to kidney)
49
Non-selective alpha blocker Irreversible Pheochromocytoma SE: orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia
Phenoxybenzamine
50
Non-selective alpha blocker Reversible Pt on MAO-I who eats tyramine foods
Phentolamine
51
Alpha-1 blockers Hypertension Urinary retention in BPH 1st dose orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, headache
Prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, tamsulosin
52
Alpha-2 blocker Depression SE: sedation, increased serum cholesterol, appetite
Mirtazapine
53
Beta-1 blockers Angina pectoris, MI, SVT (2), HTN, CHF
**_Ace**_butolol, _**bet_**axolol, **_es_**molol, **_aten_**olol, **_m_**etoprolol SVT- metoprolol, esmolol Esmolol is short acting Acebutolol is partial agonist "**_M_**uck **_A TEN_**, **_BET_** **_ACE_**s **_ES_**pecially"
54
Nonselective beta blockers Angina pectoris, MI, HTN, CHF, glaucoma (1)
Propranolol, timolol, nadolol, pindalol Glaucoma- timolol decreases secretion of aqueous humor
55
Nonselective alpha and beta antagonists
Carvedilol, labetalol Vasodilatory effects
56
Partial beta agonists
Pindolol, acebutolol
57
Impotence, exacerbation of asthma Adverse CV effects, CNS effects Use with caution in diabetics
Beta blocker toxicities
58
How do beta blockers reverse SVT?
Decreased AV conduction velocity | (class II antiarrhythmics)
59
How do beta blockers reverse HTN?
Decreased CO and Decreased renin secretion (B-1 receptor block on JGA cells)

Step 1 Pharm (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions