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Dragon Fruit > B > Flashcards

B Flashcards

1
Q

When the ECAM upper display is not powered, where is the E/WD?

A

The Lower ECAM screen

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2
Q

Where are the ON-OFF/Brightness controls for the ECAM displays?

A

ECAM Control Panel

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3
Q

Which computer generates Cautions and Warnings?

A

FWC

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4
Q

From where do PFD2, ND2, and the Lower ECAM receive data?

A

DMC2

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5
Q

In the event of DMC 1 failing, how may DMC 3 be activated?

A

Switch EIS DMC switch on switching panel to CAPT 3

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6
Q

Both engines have just been started. What will be displayed on the lower ECAM?

A

Wheel page

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7
Q

Which of the following is permanently displayed on the lower part of the SD?

A

Gross weight

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8
Q

ECAM displays LDG INHIBIT in magenta. What does this indicate?

A

Some warnings and cautions are inhibited

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9
Q

The ECAM control panel has failed. Which of the following buttons will still be operational?

A

CLR

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10
Q

Only one ECAM display is powered. How can a system page be displayed?

A

Press the related page button for a maximum of 30 seconds

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11
Q

The APU master and start switches have been pressed. When will the APU starter be engaged?

A

When the air intake is fully open

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12
Q

The APU had been supplying bleed air before it was shut down. How long will the APU continue to run?

A

60-120 seconds

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13
Q

What does the CVR record?

A

All conversations, either direct, by RT, Intercomm, PA and all Aural warnings

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14
Q

What will cause the RAT to deploy?

A

AC Bus 1 and 2 failure

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15
Q

The APU is running and then No.2 engine is started, what source is supplying AC busses 1 and 2?

A

The engine powers AC 2 and the APU AC 1

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16
Q

What colour CB’s are monitored by ECAM?

A

Green

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17
Q

Where is battery voltage indicated?

A

On the Overhead Panel, and on the ECAM Electrics page

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18
Q

The external power switch is pressed. Which bus(es) will be activated?

A

All the busses

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19
Q

What will disengage a managed descent?

A

Activating a V/S descent of –700 ft/min

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20
Q

What pitch and roll annunciations would you expect to see passing 40’ RA?

A

Flare

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21
Q

Passing through 400’ RA on an autoland approach, you experience a 1.5 dot localiser deviation. What warnings will be given?

A

Localiser scale flashes

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22
Q

What arms the Go Around function of TO/GA mode?

A

When the flap lever is not at zero.

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23
Q

During Cruise with the FMGS controlling speed, what will the FCU IAS/MACH window display?

A

The display will show dashes.

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24
Q

On the PFD, what does the Current Altitude box outline change to when deviating more than 250 ft from the selected altitude?

A

Flashing amber.

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25
Q

When is altitude deviation alerting inhibited?

A

After GS capture.

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26
Q

How is the primary flight plan shown on the ND?

A

Steady green line

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27
Q

How is a temporary flight plan shown on the ND?

A

Dashed yellow line

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28
Q

How is a flight plan waypoint depicted on the ND?

A

Green diamond

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29
Q

TCAS is active. When will a Vertical Speed arrow appear next to the intruder symbol on the ND?

A

If the intruder’s vertical speed is greater than 500 fpm

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30
Q

How is a failed glideslope indicated on the PFD

A

A red G/S flag appears

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31
Q

What is the normal pneumatic system pressure?

A

45 psi ± 5

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32
Q

During taxi in the engines are supplying bleed air. What happens when the APU bleed switch is pressed?

A

Both engine bleeds close and the APU bleed and crossbleed open

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33
Q

Where is the air precooler outlet temperature indicator?

A

On the ECAM BLEED page

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34
Q

You have 90 passengers on board. What pack flow rate should be selected?

A

LO

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35
Q

In single pack operation, what flow rate will be selected automatically?

A

HI

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36
Q

What happens 55 seconds after landing?

A

Outflow valve drives fully open

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37
Q

The amber FAULT light comes on in the AFT ISOL VALVE switch. What could this mean?

A

Either inlet or outlet valve not in selected position

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38
Q

The CAB FANS switch on the overhead panel, control fans for…

A

Cabin Air re-circulation

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39
Q

There is unusable fuel in the outer wing tanks. How is this indicated on the EWD?

A

Fuel on board half boxed in amber

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40
Q

Where would you find the FUEL USED indicator?

A

Top of ECAM Fuel page

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41
Q

What powers the engine FADEC in flight?

A

It is self powered

42
Q

What does the Thrust lever position control on a V2500 engine, with the ECU’s in Normal mode?

A

EPR

43
Q

What will ECAM display if an engine hydraulic pump is on, but pressure is low?

A

“LO” in amber

44
Q

What type of pump will normally provide pressure to blue system?

A

Electric pump

45
Q

During NORMAL braking, which hydraulic system powers the brakes and anti-skid?

A

Green

46
Q

Green hydraulic system has failed. What will yellow system now supply?

A

Alternate brakes and anti-skid

47
Q

In Normal Law, you are holding 45° of bank. When you release the sidestick, what bank angle will the aircraft adopt?

A

33°

48
Q

A single SFCC has failed. Which of the following is true?

A

The slats and flaps operate at half speed

49
Q

In Normal Law, what is the maximum nose-down pitch attitude that may acheived?

A

15°

50
Q

When is a Fire warning generated?

A

Both loops detect a fire, or from one loop if one is faulty, or when breaks occur in both loops within 5 seconds of each other.

51
Q

Which of the following occurs when the engine fire pushbutton switch is pushed?

A

The low pressure fuel valve closes

52
Q

With the windshield heat selected to AUTO, the system is activated when the…

A

first engine is started.

53
Q

During a descent and landing with the Wing Anti-ice switch at ON, when should the system stop operating?

A

After aircraft touch down.

54
Q

How can the passenger oxygen system be deployed?

A

Automatically, or manually from the flight deck.

55
Q

Where is the Audio Switching panel located?

A

Aft overhead panel

56
Q

What indication would you expect to see on the DOOR/OXY page if the door is not closed and locked?

A

An amber block with associated door name

57
Q

What is the maximum speed for windshield wiper operation?

A

230 kts

58
Q

What is the maximum tailwind component for auto-land?

A

10 kts

59
Q

What is the maximum speed at which gear may be retracted (VLO Retract)

A

220 kt

60
Q

What is the minimum height for autopilot engagement after take off?

A

100 ft AAL

61
Q

What is the maximum brake temperature for take off?

A

300°C

62
Q

For which of the following is APU Bleed air extraction NOT permitted?

A

Wing Anti-Ice

63
Q

What is the minimum engine oil temperature for engine start?

A

-40°C

64
Q

What is normally the minimum speed at which the aircraft can be operated with maximum reverse thrust?

A

70 kts

65
Q

What is the maximum altitude for the APU Bleed to supply both packs?

A

10 Minutes

66
Q

What is the maximum APU run time allowed after the LOW OIL LEVEL appears on the ECAM SD?

A

10 hours

67
Q

What are the starter motor limitations for the V2500 engine?

A

2 cycles of 2 minutes and one of 1 minute

68
Q

During refuelling, if the fuel level selected means that the centre tank will contain fuel. Which tanks are fuelled first?

A

Outer and centre tanks

69
Q

For a load sheet to be in compliance, what is the limitation on the range of aircraft weights?

A

+1000 kgs and -2000 kgs

70
Q

The following is displayed above a QRH drill, what does this indicate? [Grey out, bordered]

A

An emergency procedure not displayed on ECAM

71
Q

Following a fire drill an engine fire has been extinguished. What colour is the message “LAND ASAP” on the status page?

A

Amber

72
Q

What is the correct action to take if a “TERRAIN TERRAIN PULL UP!”is heard?

A

Autopilot OFF, Pitch attitude - pull up, Thrust Levers - TOGA

73
Q

An engine fire occurs just after take-off, what is the earliest you can action the ECAM checklist?

A

400 ft

74
Q

An ECAM warning is displayed, what does the Pilot Flying do?

A

Take over radio transmissions

75
Q

When would you expect the magenta T.O. inhibit to appear?

A

1st engine to take off power

76
Q

When is the excessive Cabin Altitude warning activated?

A

9550 feet

77
Q

When is the low energy speed warning armed?

A

Below 2000 ft with Conf 2 or greater

78
Q

During CAT IIIB operations, with a DH; an approach must not be made to below decision height unless the pilot has the…

A

Centreline light in view

79
Q

An aircraft is making an approach to land in fog. At what point during this aircraft’s approach, is a taxying aircraft not allowed into the localiser sensitive area?

A

2nm from touchdown

80
Q

What is the definition of a damp runway?

A

Not perfectly dry, but water on it is not shiny

81
Q

If ATC inform you that “Low visibility procedures are in effect, what could you assume about the airport?

A

Appropriate Rwy and ILS protection procedures have been applied

82
Q

How is the last 900 metres of runway indicated?

A

Centreline lights change to alternate red and white

83
Q

What is the lowest permitted minima for a single engine approach?

A

CAT IIIA

84
Q

How is excess ILS Glideslope deviation indicated to you, once the aircraft descends below 400R on the approach?

A

Glideslope scale on PFD will flash

85
Q

What ambient conditions are most likely to give rise to clear ice deposits on upper and lower wing surfaces near fuel tanks after a cruise in excess of 75 minutes?

A

OAT between -2°C and +10°C, and there is/has been precipitation

86
Q

In normal law, with the sidestick fully aft, what speed will the aircraft slow to?

A

ALPHA MAX speed

87
Q

How is the PFD ALTITUDE indication affected by a failure of the ADIRU input?

A

Entire indication disappears and a red ALT flag appears

88
Q

In a climb, what do the digits below the PFD ALTITUDE scale indicate?

A

Altitude BARO setting

89
Q

What happens to the VS digital display as vertical speed drops below 200 fpm?

A

It disappears

90
Q

Which ND modes can display a route OFFSET?

A

Rose NAV, ARC and PLAN

91
Q

Where is the slip indicator?

A

Top of the PFD Attitude Indicator

92
Q

How is the PFD AIRSPEED indication affected by a failed ADIRU?

A

Entire indication disappears and RED SPD flag appears

93
Q

When does the PFD Radio Altitude display appear during descent?

A

2500’ RA

94
Q

If IMMEDIATE EXIT is depressed whilst in the hold, how will the aircraft depart?

A

Immediate turn to overfly the fix, and then pick up course to the next waypoint.

95
Q

How is a message cleared from the scratch pad?

A

Press the CLR key

96
Q

Having reached the Cruise FL, the FMA should display…

A

“ALT CRZ”

97
Q

If the EXPED key is pressed on the FCU, at what speed will the aircraft climb?

A

Green Dot Speed

98
Q

How is an overfly waypoint displayed on the Flight Plan page?

A

Δ

99
Q

How would you identify a satisfied altitude constrained waypoint on the MCDU?

A

A magenta asterisk

100
Q

Which MCDU page key is pressed to view the navigation data base validity?

A

DATA

101
Q

If the MCDU locks up, how is the system reset?

A

Pull the associated circuit breaker, then reset.

Dragon Fruit (13 decks)

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