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1
Q

What type of failure affects the loss of a system or an item
of equipment resulting from a primary failure?

A

A secondary failure

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2
Q

In which colour is a failure, but need not take immediate

action displayed on the ECAM screen?

A

Amber

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3
Q

In which colour are inoperative systems displayed on the

ECAM screen?

A

Amber

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4
Q

What is the significance of the memo “T.O.INHIBIT”

when displayed on the ECAM screen?

A

Some warnings & cautions suppressed during the take off

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5
Q

When does the Take Off Memo appear on the E/WD?

A

Two minutes after second engine start

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6
Q

What is the significance of the Amber memo “NW STRG DISC”?

A

One engine is running, and the tow bar is still connected

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7
Q

How is the failure of a display unit indicated?

A

A white diagonal stripe is displayed on the associated

ECAM screen

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8
Q

In addition to generating Cautions and Warnings, the Flight Warning Computers also generate…

A

Decision height and Rad-Alt callouts

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9
Q

On which screen is the status page normally displayed?

A

The Lower ECAM screen

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10
Q

During taxi in how is an automatic APU shutdown indicated?

A

Amber fault light illuminates in APU Master Switch

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11
Q

What is the maximum altitude at which the APU may be started

by battery?

A

25,000 feet

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12
Q

When is the CVR energised automatically?

A

On ground for the first five minutes after electrical power up

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13
Q

Which ground source(s), can power the Ground Flight buses in isolation?

A

External power

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14
Q

What does a GEN 1 “FAULT” light indicate?

A

The generator has been automatically tripped.

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15
Q

On ground with APU power what galley power should be available?

A

Both Primary and Secondary.

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16
Q

From where are the batteries charged?

A

DC BAT bus.

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17
Q

During single engine operation what is the position of the bus
tie contactors?

A

Closed.

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18
Q

When does the IDG FAULT light come on?

A

When the IDG oil temperature is too high

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19
Q

What track will the aircraft follow in a Go-around?

A

The current track at Go-around initiation.

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20
Q

If Managed NAV is selected in cruise, it should engage

provided that aircraft is not off the active leg by more than…

A

1 mile

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21
Q

At what height will CLB mode engage, if it was armed before take
off?

A

ACC ALT

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22
Q

At 250 ft prior to the selected altitude, the pulsing yellow altitude box on the PFD …

A

returns to normal.

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23
Q

An FMGC managed descent will commence provided that the FCU altitude has previously been set…

A

below cruising altitude and the ALT selector is pushed

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24
Q

Which autothrust modes are associated with an open climb ?

A

THR CLB

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25
On the approach how is GA activated ?
By setting the thrust levers to TOGA.
26
How would light precipitation be displayed on the weather radar?
Green
27
What indication will be given if IR2 is faulty, yet is probably able to recover Attitude and Heading data?
IR2 Amber fault light flashes
28
Where does the DDRMI receive compass card data from in | the event of a failure of its normal source?
ADIRU 3
29
At what height will the RAD ALT activate?
2500 feet
30
Which system supplies altitude information to Transponder 2?
ADIRU 2
31
How many Bleed Monitoring Computers are there?
2
32
What indication would you expect to see if ground air was being supplied to the aircraft?
Positive pressure indicated with no other possible supply
33
At what flow rate do the packs operate when; on ground with low flow selected and the APU supplying?
High
34
Where does the pressurisation system get the landing airfields QNH?
FMGC’s
35
What is the temperature range of the Zone Temperature Control?
18°C - 30°C
36
What happens if the BLOWER switch is set to OVRD?
The Blower Fan is stopped, Extractor Fan continues to run
37
If optimised temperature regulation is lost (HOT AIR switch off) at what temperature should the cockpit be regulated?
As selected between 18°C to 30°C
38
On the A320/319 aircraft, at which inner tank quantity would you expect the outer tanks to start transferring?
750 Kg
39
What controls the engines HP fuel valve?
Engine Master Switch and FADEC
40
During an auto start on ground, what activates the ignitors?
N2 reaching 16%
41
Which engine indications are inhibited from turning amber during ∝ floor protection?
EGT
42
The No2 engine thrust reverser is powered by ….
Yellow hydraulic system
43
Which pump(s) drive the Green Hydraulic System?
Number One engine pump
44
For which systems can the PTU provide hydraulic power?
Green or Yellow
45
What conditions must be fulfilled in order for the Autobrakes to be armed?
Green Hydraulic pressure, one ADIRS functioning and the anti-skid system serviceable
46
How is the gear hydraulics isolated from the green hydraulics for emergency gear extension?
By cranking the emergency gear extension handle
47
Both sidestick priority buttons are pressed together, and the...
Last button pressed has priority
48
The flap wingtip brakes have been activated. Which of the following statements is true?
The slats only can be operated
49
During fly by wire failure, how is pitch controlled?
By manually operating the trim wheel
50
How many fire bottles are there for the APU?
One
51
How many sensing elements are there in each main engine loop?
1 in the core, 1 in the pylon, 1 in the fan
52
Which parts of the aircraft are anti-iced by hot air?
Engine intakes, and leading edge slats
53
Which instrumentation probes are heated to prevent icing?
Pitot heads, Static ports, AOA sensor, and TAT
54
How is the crew oxygen switched on?
Selecting the crew supply switch on the overhead panel to ON
55
When will the stuck microphone alarm activate?
The microphone is in the transmit mode for more that 30 secs
56
If the aircraft door is shut, how can you tell from outside that the slide is still armed?
A warning light will be visible through the door window
57
What is the maximum brake release weight (Take Off weight) | of an A320-200?
73,500 Kg
58
What is the maximum landing weight of an A320-200?
64,500 Kg
59
What is the maximum wind allowable for opening the | passenger door?
65 Kts
60
What is the maximum speed with landing gear extended (VLE).?
280 Kts
61
What is the maximum operating altitude with slats or slats and flaps extended?
20,000 feet
62
The maximum allowable fuel imbalance in the OUTER wing tanks is:
530 Kg
63
What is the minimum allowable fuel quantity for take off?
1500 Kg
64
After 3 A.P.U. starter motor duty cycles, how long do you have to wait before attempting 3 more cycles?
60 minutes
65
For a CFM-56 engine what is the minimum oil pressure?
13 psi
66
What is the manoeuvre limit (G force). with flaps and slats extended?
+2.0 G
67
What is the maximum permissible cabin pressure differential?
8.6 psi
68
What is the maximum X wind component for Autoland?
20 Kts
69
Where is the re-fuelling panel located?
Under the Starboard fuselage, near the wing root
70
How many Manual Magnetic Indicators are there in the fuel system?
5 in each wing tank, 1 in the centre tank
71
What items comprise the Actual Zero Fuel Weight?
Total Traffic Load plus Dry operating Weight
72
What are the indications of an engine fire?
Master Warning light, continuous chime, engine fire button | illuminates
73
An engine has been secured following an engine fire. Which of the following statements is true?
The hydraulic system is isolated from the engine
74
When will an engine fire warning light go out?
When the fire is extinguished
75
At what temperature does that brake temperature indicator turn amber?
300°C
76
What happens automatically when cabin altitude exceeds | 11,300 feet?
No smoking, Fasten Seatbelts and EXIT signs all light up | regardless of selector switch position
77
If take off is aborted at 90 kts, what will the autobrake system do?
Applies maximum braking to the wheels as soon as the | ground spoilers extend
78
If Yellow hydraulic pressure falls, there is sufficient pressure in the accumulator for how many full braking applications?
7
79
ECAM Generates a HIGH VIBRATION message for an engine | The correct action is to....
monitor the engine parameters, especially EGT
80
For CAT 3A Operations, how many elements of the approach | lights must be identified and kept in view?
3 without a lateral element
81
What colour is the taxiway lighting from the runway to the edge of the localiser sensitive area?
Green and Yellow
82
What colour are the taxiway stopbar lights?
Red
83
The last 300m of the CAT 3 Calvert lighting system consists of centreline lighting, and what other element?
Red side row barettes
84
What are instruments that measure Runway Visual Range called?
Transmissometers
85
Visual reference is lost below decision height on a CAT 3A approach. You should...
Go Around
86
During which approaches must the Cat 1 MDA be bugged on the standby altimeter?
All approaches
87
What is the minimum Runway width for AWOPS operations?
45m
88
In cruise what does the digital display, below the PFD airspeed scale, represent?
Mach number
89
Where is the Slip indicator?
Top of the PFD Attitude indicator.
90
How is the PFD AIRSPEED indication affected by a failed ADIRU output?
Entire indication disappears and a red SPD flag appears.
91
When does the PFD Radio Altitude display appear during descent?
2,500 feet AGL
92
With the ECAM / ND selector at NORM, what can be displayed on the Lower DU?
SD or EWD if the upper DU fails.
93
Rapid realignment removes which accumulated IRS errors?
Ground speed.
94
``` Which source(s). can supply IRS Attitude information to the Captain's PFD? ```
No. 1 or 3 ADIRU only.
95
In which position on the PFD does the airspeed indication appear?
Left.
96
On which MCDU page would you find an indication of either | HIGH or LOW position accuracy?
PROG
97
In order for the FMGS to consider an altitude constraint to be missed, the system must predict that a difference must exist of more than....
250 ft between the target and the predicted altitude
98
How is an ALT constraint predicted to be satisfied shown on the ND?
A magenta circle surrounding the altitude constraint waypoint
99
What is the meaning of the FMGC prompt “TOO STEEP PATH”
That it is impossible to descend between two waypoints at the planned descent speed with half speed brakes
100
On which page of the MCDU is the ALIGN IRS prompt?
INIT B
101
On INIT B page, taxi fuel is displayed. If no input is made, what will FMGC assume taxi fuel to be?
200 kgs
102
How does the MCDU show Pseudo-Waypoints?
The Waypoint is in parenthesis
103
If a lateral flight path revision must be made, how is it displayed on the MCDU and the ND?
Yellow characters on MCDU, Yellow dashes on ND

Dragon Fruit (13 decks)

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