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Dragon Fruit > A > Flashcards

A Flashcards

1
Q

What type of failure affects the loss of a system or an item
of equipment resulting from a primary failure?

A

A secondary failure

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2
Q

In which colour is a failure, but need not take immediate

action displayed on the ECAM screen?

A

Amber

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3
Q

In which colour are inoperative systems displayed on the

ECAM screen?

A

Amber

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4
Q

What is the significance of the memo “T.O.INHIBIT”

when displayed on the ECAM screen?

A

Some warnings & cautions suppressed during the take off

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5
Q

When does the Take Off Memo appear on the E/WD?

A

Two minutes after second engine start

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6
Q

What is the significance of the Amber memo “NW STRG DISC”?

A

One engine is running, and the tow bar is still connected

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7
Q

How is the failure of a display unit indicated?

A

A white diagonal stripe is displayed on the associated

ECAM screen

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8
Q

In addition to generating Cautions and Warnings, the Flight Warning Computers also generate…

A

Decision height and Rad-Alt callouts

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9
Q

On which screen is the status page normally displayed?

A

The Lower ECAM screen

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10
Q

During taxi in how is an automatic APU shutdown indicated?

A

Amber fault light illuminates in APU Master Switch

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11
Q

What is the maximum altitude at which the APU may be started

by battery?

A

25,000 feet

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12
Q

When is the CVR energised automatically?

A

On ground for the first five minutes after electrical power up

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13
Q

Which ground source(s), can power the Ground Flight buses in isolation?

A

External power

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14
Q

What does a GEN 1 “FAULT” light indicate?

A

The generator has been automatically tripped.

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15
Q

On ground with APU power what galley power should be available?

A

Both Primary and Secondary.

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16
Q

From where are the batteries charged?

A

DC BAT bus.

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17
Q

During single engine operation what is the position of the bus
tie contactors?

A

Closed.

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18
Q

When does the IDG FAULT light come on?

A

When the IDG oil temperature is too high

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19
Q

What track will the aircraft follow in a Go-around?

A

The current track at Go-around initiation.

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20
Q

If Managed NAV is selected in cruise, it should engage

provided that aircraft is not off the active leg by more than…

A

1 mile

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21
Q

At what height will CLB mode engage, if it was armed before take
off?

A

ACC ALT

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22
Q

At 250 ft prior to the selected altitude, the pulsing yellow altitude box on the PFD …

A

returns to normal.

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23
Q

An FMGC managed descent will commence provided that the FCU altitude has previously been set…

A

below cruising altitude and the ALT selector is pushed

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24
Q

Which autothrust modes are associated with an open climb ?

A

THR CLB

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25
Q

On the approach how is GA activated ?

A

By setting the thrust levers to TOGA.

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26
Q

How would light precipitation be displayed on the weather radar?

A

Green

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27
Q

What indication will be given if IR2 is faulty, yet is probably able
to recover Attitude and Heading data?

A

IR2 Amber fault light flashes

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28
Q

Where does the DDRMI receive compass card data from in

the event of a failure of its normal source?

A

ADIRU 3

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29
Q

At what height will the RAD ALT activate?

A

2500 feet

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30
Q

Which system supplies altitude information to Transponder 2?

A

ADIRU 2

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31
Q

How many Bleed Monitoring Computers are there?

A

2

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32
Q

What indication would you expect to see if ground air was being
supplied to the aircraft?

A

Positive pressure indicated with no other possible supply

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33
Q

At what flow rate do the packs operate when; on ground with low flow selected and the APU supplying?

A

High

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34
Q

Where does the pressurisation system get the landing airfields QNH?

A

FMGC’s

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35
Q

What is the temperature range of the Zone Temperature Control?

A

18°C - 30°C

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36
Q

What happens if the BLOWER switch is set to OVRD?

A

The Blower Fan is stopped, Extractor Fan continues to run

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37
Q

If optimised temperature regulation is lost (HOT AIR switch off) at what temperature should the cockpit be regulated?

A

As selected between 18°C to 30°C

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38
Q

On the A320/319 aircraft, at which inner tank quantity would you expect the outer tanks to start transferring?

A

750 Kg

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39
Q

What controls the engines HP fuel valve?

A

Engine Master Switch and FADEC

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40
Q

During an auto start on ground, what activates the ignitors?

A

N2 reaching 16%

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41
Q

Which engine indications are inhibited from turning amber during ∝ floor protection?

A

EGT

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42
Q

The No2 engine thrust reverser is powered by ….

A

Yellow hydraulic system

43
Q

Which pump(s) drive the Green Hydraulic System?

A

Number One engine pump

44
Q

For which systems can the PTU provide hydraulic power?

A

Green or Yellow

45
Q

What conditions must be fulfilled in order for the Autobrakes to be
armed?

A

Green Hydraulic pressure, one ADIRS functioning and the anti-skid system serviceable

46
Q

How is the gear hydraulics isolated from the green hydraulics for
emergency gear extension?

A

By cranking the emergency gear extension handle

47
Q

Both sidestick priority buttons are pressed together, and the…

A

Last button pressed has priority

48
Q

The flap wingtip brakes have been activated. Which of the following statements is true?

A

The slats only can be operated

49
Q

During fly by wire failure, how is pitch controlled?

A

By manually operating the trim wheel

50
Q

How many fire bottles are there for the APU?

A

One

51
Q

How many sensing elements are there in each main engine loop?

A

1 in the core, 1 in the pylon, 1 in the fan

52
Q

Which parts of the aircraft are anti-iced by hot air?

A

Engine intakes, and leading edge slats

53
Q

Which instrumentation probes are heated to prevent icing?

A

Pitot heads, Static ports, AOA sensor, and TAT

54
Q

How is the crew oxygen switched on?

A

Selecting the crew supply switch on the overhead panel to ON

55
Q

When will the stuck microphone alarm activate?

A

The microphone is in the transmit mode for more that 30 secs

56
Q

If the aircraft door is shut, how can you tell from outside that the
slide is still armed?

A

A warning light will be visible through the door window

57
Q

What is the maximum brake release weight (Take Off weight)

of an A320-200?

A

73,500 Kg

58
Q

What is the maximum landing weight of an A320-200?

A

64,500 Kg

59
Q

What is the maximum wind allowable for opening the

passenger door?

A

65 Kts

60
Q

What is the maximum speed with landing gear extended (VLE).?

A

280 Kts

61
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude with slats or slats and flaps
extended?

A

20,000 feet

62
Q

The maximum allowable fuel imbalance in the OUTER wing tanks is:

A

530 Kg

63
Q

What is the minimum allowable fuel quantity for take off?

A

1500 Kg

64
Q

After 3 A.P.U. starter motor duty cycles, how long do you have to
wait before attempting 3 more cycles?

A

60 minutes

65
Q

For a CFM-56 engine what is the minimum oil pressure?

A

13 psi

66
Q

What is the manoeuvre limit (G force). with flaps and slats extended?

A

+2.0 G

67
Q

What is the maximum permissible cabin pressure differential?

A

8.6 psi

68
Q

What is the maximum X wind component for Autoland?

A

20 Kts

69
Q

Where is the re-fuelling panel located?

A

Under the Starboard fuselage, near the wing root

70
Q

How many Manual Magnetic Indicators are there in the fuel system?

A

5 in each wing tank, 1 in the centre tank

71
Q

What items comprise the Actual Zero Fuel Weight?

A

Total Traffic Load plus Dry operating Weight

72
Q

What are the indications of an engine fire?

A

Master Warning light, continuous chime, engine fire button

illuminates

73
Q

An engine has been secured following an engine fire. Which of the
following statements is true?

A

The hydraulic system is isolated from the engine

74
Q

When will an engine fire warning light go out?

A

When the fire is extinguished

75
Q

At what temperature does that brake temperature indicator turn amber?

A

300°C

76
Q

What happens automatically when cabin altitude exceeds

11,300 feet?

A

No smoking, Fasten Seatbelts and EXIT signs all light up

regardless of selector switch position

77
Q

If take off is aborted at 90 kts, what will the autobrake system do?

A

Applies maximum braking to the wheels as soon as the

ground spoilers extend

78
Q

If Yellow hydraulic pressure falls, there is sufficient pressure in the accumulator for how many full braking applications?

A

7

79
Q

ECAM Generates a HIGH VIBRATION message for an engine

The correct action is to….

A

monitor the engine parameters, especially EGT

80
Q

For CAT 3A Operations, how many elements of the approach

lights must be identified and kept in view?

A

3 without a lateral element

81
Q

What colour is the taxiway lighting from the runway to the edge of
the localiser sensitive area?

A

Green and Yellow

82
Q

What colour are the taxiway stopbar lights?

A

Red

83
Q

The last 300m of the CAT 3 Calvert lighting system consists of
centreline lighting, and what other element?

A

Red side row barettes

84
Q

What are instruments that measure Runway Visual Range called?

A

Transmissometers

85
Q

Visual reference is lost below decision height on a CAT 3A approach. You should…

A

Go Around

86
Q

During which approaches must the Cat 1 MDA be bugged on the standby altimeter?

A

All approaches

87
Q

What is the minimum Runway width for AWOPS operations?

A

45m

88
Q

In cruise what does the digital display, below the PFD airspeed scale, represent?

A

Mach number

89
Q

Where is the Slip indicator?

A

Top of the PFD Attitude indicator.

90
Q

How is the PFD AIRSPEED indication affected by a failed ADIRU
output?

A

Entire indication disappears and a red SPD flag appears.

91
Q

When does the PFD Radio Altitude display appear during descent?

A

2,500 feet AGL

92
Q

With the ECAM / ND selector at NORM, what can be displayed on the Lower DU?

A

SD or EWD if the upper DU fails.

93
Q

Rapid realignment removes which accumulated IRS errors?

A

Ground speed.

94
Q 
Which source(s). can supply IRS Attitude information to the 
Captain's PFD?
A

No. 1 or 3 ADIRU only.

95
Q

In which position on the PFD does the airspeed indication appear?

A

Left.

96
Q

On which MCDU page would you find an indication of either

HIGH or LOW position accuracy?

A

PROG

97
Q

In order for the FMGS to consider an altitude constraint to be missed, the system must predict that a difference must exist of more than….

A

250 ft between the target and the predicted altitude

98
Q

How is an ALT constraint predicted to be satisfied shown on the ND?

A

A magenta circle surrounding the altitude constraint waypoint

99
Q

What is the meaning of the FMGC prompt “TOO STEEP PATH”

A

That it is impossible to descend between two waypoints at the planned descent speed with half speed brakes

100
Q

On which page of the MCDU is the ALIGN IRS prompt?

A

INIT B

101
Q

On INIT B page, taxi fuel is displayed. If no input is made, what will FMGC assume taxi fuel to be?

A

200 kgs

102
Q

How does the MCDU show Pseudo-Waypoints?

A

The Waypoint is in parenthesis

103
Q

If a lateral flight path revision must be made, how is it displayed on the MCDU and the ND?

A

Yellow characters on MCDU, Yellow dashes on ND

Dragon Fruit (13 decks)

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