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C Flashcards

1
Q

What is the ECAM definition of a memo?

A

Functions or systems that are used temporarily in normal ops.

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2
Q

What is a primary failure?

A

A failure of a system that costs the aircraft the use of other systems.

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3
Q

Which computer generates Cautions and Warnings?

A

FWC

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4
Q

What is the significance of a Level 2 Amber caution?

A

The flight crew should be aware of the configuration or failure

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5
Q

In the event of DMC 1 failing, how will it be indicated?

A

PFD1, ND1 and upper ECAM DU will display a diagonal line

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6
Q

The lower ECAM DU can display 12 system pages, which page cannot be selected manually?

A

Cruise page

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7
Q

If the ECAM control panel fails, which pushbuttons should still be available?

A

CLR, RCL, STS, EMER CANC. and ALL.

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8
Q

When does the LDG INHIBIT memo appear on ECAM?

A

800Ft to 80Kts

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9
Q

What is the significance of ECAM text being coloured blue?

A

These are actions to be carried out or limitations.

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10
Q

Only one ECAM display is powered. How can a system page be displayed?

A

Press the related page button for a maximum of 30 seconds

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11
Q

What are the indications for an APU auto shutdown?

A

APU Fault light and an Auto Shutdown caution on ECAM

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12
Q

The APU had been supplying bleed air before it was shut down. How long will the APU continue to run?

A

60-120 seconds

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13
Q

Which of the following would automatically activate the CVR?

A

On the ground, during the first five minutes after electric network energised.

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14
Q

Which buses are powered by the Emergency Generator?

A

AC Ess, AC Ess Shed, DC Ess and DC Ess Shed

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15
Q

With the engines shut down, what indication shows in the Generator Control switches with Bat. and Grd. Pwr. connected?

A

Fault.

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16
Q

How long does a monitored CB have to be tripped before an ECAM warning is triggered?

A

One minute

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17
Q

What is the power supply that charges the batteries?

A

DC BAT Bus through the Battery Charge Limiters

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18
Q

What source powers the GND/FLT buses with the Maint. Bus switch on?

A

External Power only.

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19
Q

When is the HDG/TRK preset function available?

A

Takeoff up to 30Ft RA and LOC* through to Go around.

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20
Q

What pitch and roll annunciations would you expect to see passing 40’ RA?

A

Flare

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21
Q

Passing through 200’ RA on an autoland approach, you experience a 1/2 dot localiser deviation. What warnings will be given?

A

Localiser and glideslope scales flash, with red autoland warning.

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22
Q

What does a white box around a FMA mode indicate?

A

Mode has been engaged within the last 10/15 seconds.

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23
Q

During a climb at 300Kts, what would happen if the Expedite button were pushed?

A

The target speed for pitch becomes green dot speed.

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24
Q

When is the Altitude Alert inhibited?

A

When the landing gear is locked down.

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25
What PFD indication does Altitude Alert provide during deviation from selected altitude?
250Ft away, the Alt window on the PFD flashes amber and you will hear a continuous C chord.
26
How is the secondary flight plan shown on the ND
Continuous white line.
27
How is a primary flight plan shown on the ND when in heading mode?
Dotted green line
28
How is an active flight plan TO waypoint depicted on the ND?
White diamond.
29
TCAS is active. How is a TA Intruder shown on the ND?
An amber circle.
30
Managed descent mode is disengaged during a descent. What mode will the system revert to?
V/S.
31
What is the normal pneumatic system pressure?
45 psi ± 5
32
The engines are supplying bleed air, what happens when the APU bleed switch is pressed?
Both engine bleeds close ,the APU bleed valve and the X bleed open.
33
Where is the air precooler outlet temperature indicator?
On the ECAM BLEED page
34
You have 140 passengers on board an A320. What pack flow rate should be selected?
NORM
35
In single pack operation, what flow rate will be selected automatically?
HI
36
In total, how many pack control valves are fitted between the pneumatic system and the mixer unit?
Two
37
The ground icon appears on the Bleed page whenever…….
the aircraft is on the ground.
38
The CAB FANS switch on the overhead panel, control fans for...
Cabin Air re-circulation
39
When is gravity feeding of fuel from the Centre Tanks possible?
Never.
40
What indication would you expect if ECAM detects a difference of more than 1500Kgs between the contents of the wing tanks ?
The highest fuel quantity indication pulses in green.
41
When compared to forward idle thrust, reverse idle thrust is…?
Higher than forward idle.
42
What does the small white circle by the EPR indicator show?
Thrust lever position.
43
What will ECAM display if an engine hydraulic pump is on, but pressure is low?
“LO” in amber
44
Which hydraulic system powers the cargo doors
Yellow system.
45
During ALTERNATE braking, which hydraulic system powers the brakes and anti-skid?
Yellow
46
What is the maximum allowable speed to lower the landing gear?
250Kts.
47
In Normal Law, you are holding 15° of bank. When you release the sidestick, what bank angle will the aircraft adopt?
15°
48
A single SFCC has failed. Which of the following is true?
The slats and flaps operate at half speed
49
When will the Flap legend on the EWD turn amber?
The wingtip brakes are on.
50
What is the significance of the Red APU Extinguisher disc on the rear fuselage?
If it is visible, no overpressure discharge has occurred.
51
How many fire detection loops are there in the APU?
2.
52
With the windshield heat selected to AUTO, the system is activated when the…
First engine is started.
53
When will the Wing anti ice system be inhibited when switched on?
On the ground.
54
What are you looking for on the ECAM DOOR page during the Safety Check?
No amber half box.
55
How many VHF radio transmitters can be selected at the same time by one RMP?
1.
56
How many passenger doors does the A319/20/21 have?
4.
57
In clean config, what are the manoeuvring load acceleration limits?
-1G to +2.5G
58
What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for take off?
29kts gusting to 38kts
59
What is the maximum speed at which the cockpit window may be opened?
200kts
60
What is the maximum tyre limiting speed?
195kts
61
What is the maximum crosswind limit for a CATII/CATIII | Automatic approach?
20kts
62
What is the maximum allowable imbalance between the outer tanks on an A319/320?
530kg
63
A319/320(IAE) has the park brake set to ON. What is the maximum EPR that may be set on both engines?
1.50
64
What is the maximum recommended bank angle during normal operation?
25°
65
Which of the following messages may be displayed and still allow you to start the APU?
ADD OIL
66
What is the maximum altitude for flight with Flaps/Slats extended?
20,000ft
67
What is the minimum oil pressure for the IAE?
60 psi
68
What are the starter motor limitations for the IAE engine?
3 cycles , 2 of 2 minutes, 1 of 1 minute.
69
A WET Runway is defined as?
A shiny appearance and up to 3mm of water on surface
70
If you are planning to take off from a WET runway, the determination of take off distance with one engine inoperative is based on clearing a a screen height of?
15 feet
71
If a take off is to be performed on a contaminated runway, the minimum cleared runway width should be:
30m
72
What is ASDA?
TORA + STOPWAY
73
Which of the following factors must V1 never exceed?
VMBE
74
V1 must never be less than which of the following factors?
VMCG
75
Which of the following aircraft systems are NOT taken into account during dry runway take off distance calculations
Reverse Thrust
76
What does a cost index of 00 on a Cirrus Flight plan mean?
Minimum fuel.
77
During refuelling, if the fuel level selected means that the centre tank will contain fuel. Which tanks are fuelled first?
Outer and centre tanks
78
For a load sheet to be in compliance, what is the limitation on TOW?
+1000kgs or –2000kgs
79
When are the engine fire warnings inhibited?
Engine fire warnings are never inhibited.
80
What happens if an APU fire warning occurs when airborne?
The APU will not auto shutdown and the crew must action the APU fire drill.
81
What is the effect of the cabin altitude going above 9550 ft?
Master warning light, repetitive chime and EXCESS CAB ALT on the EWD.
82
Which is the first memory action when an emergency descent is initiated?
CREW OXYGEN MASK ………. ON
83
AC Bus1 and AC Bus2 fail in flight, how long should RAT extension and emergency generator coupling take?
8 seconds.
84
How long may TOGA power be selected if an engine fails during take off?
10 minutes.
85
When performing a MANUAL engine start what is the first memory action if an engine tailpipe fire occurs?
MAN START ………. OFF
86
If required the passenger oxygen masks may be deployed manually by operation of which control?
The MASK MAN ON switch on the flight deck overhead panel.
87
What does a Transmissometer measure?
Runway visual range.
88
What actions are required before touchdown if visual reference is lost below DH?
Immediate go around
89
Which is the alert height during a CAT 3 fail operational dual autoland?
100 feet radio
90
Which flap setting is recommended for CAT 2/3 landings?
Flap full.
91
What result would you expect during the autoland light test?
Red autoland light and ILS deviation scales flash.
92
How is excess ILS localiser deviation indicated once the aircraft descends below 400 feet radio on the approach?
Localiser scale on the PFD will flash.
93
During an autoland approach at which radio altimeter height should LAND annunciate on the FMAs ?
400 feet radio.
94
During an autoland approach at which radio altimeter height should rollout annunciate on the FMAs ?
0 feet radio on touchdown.
95
When will the Sidestick position (order) indicator first be displayed on the PFD?
As soon as one engine is started.
96
When is the Stall Warning Speed (VSW) displayed on the PFD ?
When operating in pitch alternate or pitch direct law.
97
What happens if the Captain’s PFDU fails?
The PFD transfers automatically to the Captain’s NDU.
98
What happens to the VS digital display as vertical speed drops below 200 fpm?
It disappears
99
What does it signify if the PFD target airspeed is blue?
That it is the FCU selected speed.
100
What does the yellow speed trend indicate?
The tip shows the speed the a/c will reach in 10 seconds.
101
What colour is the ADF Navaid identification on the ND?
Green.
102
When does the PFD Radio Altitude display appear during descent?
2500’ RA
103
If IMM EXIT is depressed whilst in the hold, how will the aircraft depart?
Immediate turn to overfly the fix, and then pick up course to the next waypoint.
104
When does the INIT B Page automatically revert to FUEL PRED page?
After the first engine is started
105
During a managed climb, what would the mode annunciations for Autothrust and Pitch be?
THR CLB and CLB
106
How are pseudo waypoints shown?
In parentheses or brackets.
107
How is Aircraft Status page displayed?
Automatically at power up or by pressing the DATA key.
108
hat is the significance of amber box screen prompts on the MCDU?
Data entry is mandatory for FMGC to perform all functions
109
Which page would you use to cross-check the Nav. Accuracy of the FMS, if required?
PROG
110
If the MCDU locks up, how is the system reset?
Pull the associated circuit breaker, then reset.

Dragon Fruit (13 decks)

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