basic meds Flashcards

(129 cards)

1
Q

amlodipine

A

ANTIHYPERTENSIVE and ANTIANGINAL

calcium channel blocker: inhibits Ca influx across cardiac and smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

clonazepam

A

ANTICONVULSANT - indicated for various seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

tamoxifen citrate

A

ANTINEOPLASTIC THAT ALTERS HORMONE BALANCE

advanced premenopausal and postmenopausal breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

diclofenac

A

NSAID
indications: osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, primary dysmenorrhea, acute migraine.
Voltaren at al.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

risendronate

A

AGENT AFFECTING CALCIUM and BONE METABOLISM

indications include postmenopausal osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

frusemide

A

DIURETIC
(loop diuretic - inhibits sodium and chlorine reabsorption in the kidneys)
indications include acute pulmonary oedema, oedema, hypertension.
Lasix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

atorvastatin

A

HYPOLIPADAEMIC

indications - adjunct to diet to decrease LDL, total cholesterol and triglyceride levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

warfarin

A

ANTICOAGULANT
indications: prevention and treatment of venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism associated with DVT, MI, et al.
inhibits vitamin K-dependent activation of clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

enoxaparin

A

ANTICOAGULANT
indications: prevention of pulmonary embolism and DVT following hip/knee replacement surgery or abdominal surgery
Clexane (usually 40mg but adjusted for weight)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

cefalotin

A

ANTI-INFECTIVE - CEPHALOSPORIN
(it’s an antibiotic)
route is IM or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

salbutamol

A
BRONCHODILATOR
prevention or treatment of bronchospasm 
prevention of exercise-induced asthma 
also used for the prevention of premature labour
Ventolin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

enalapril

A

ANTIHYPERTENSIVE - ace inhibitor

indications: hypertension; management of symptomatic heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

digoxin

A

ANTIARRHYTHMIC

indications: heart failure, paroxysmal SVT, atrial fibrillation and flutter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

metoclopramide

include cautions

A

ANTIEMETIC - dopamine receptor antagonist

blocks dopamine receptors in CTZ, also increases gastric motility

PO, IV, IM

use cautiously in patients with depression, Parkinson’s, hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

telmisartan

A

ANTIHYPERTENSIVE

angiotensin-II inhibitor (ARB - angiotensin receptor blocker)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

colecalciferol/cholecalciferol

A

vitamin D3, promotes absorption of calcium and phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

thiamine

A

vitamin B1, combines with ATP to form a coenzyme needed for carb metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

esomeprazole

A

ANTIULCER
treatment of GORD
brandname is Nexium (only one)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

amitryptiline

A

ANTIDEPRESSANT: Tricyclic
TCAs increase the amount of noradrenaline or serotonin or both by blocking their reuptake by presynaptic neurons (action unknown)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Targin

A

NARCOTICS AND OPIOID ANALGESICS

Targin is a combo of oxycodone hydrochloride and naloxone hydrochloride at a rate of 2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

-axine

A

antidepressant: SNRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

-azepam

A

sedative: benzodiazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

-azole

A

antifugal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

-caine

A

local anasthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
-cam
NSAID: COX-2 inhibitor
26
-cillin
antibiotic: penicillin
27
-cog
coagulation factor
28
-coxhib
NSAID: COX-2 inhibitor
29
-curium
neuromuscular blocker
30
-curonium
neuromuscular blocker
31
-cycline
antibiotic: tetracycline
32
-dopa
dopamine-related
33
-dronate
bisphosphonate
34
-fenac
NSAID
35
-fibrozil
antihyperlipidaemic: fibrate
36
-floxacin
antibiotic: quinolone
37
-glitazone
oral hypoglycaemic (thiazolidinedione)
38
-globulin
immunoglobulin
39
-grel
antiplatelet
40
-ide
diuretic
41
-lukast
antileukotriene
42
oxycodone
NARCOTICS AND OPIOID ANALGESICS Endone, OxyContin, OxyNorm for full analgesic effect, administer before pain is intense give after meals/with milk to avoid GI upset 10mg PO oxycododone equivalent to 20mg PO morphine
43
-mab
immunoglobulin (immunomodulator)
44
-nib
antineoplastic
45
-nitrate
nitrates
46
-olol
beta blocker
47
-opram
antidepressant - SSRI
48
-oxetine
antidepressant - SNRI
49
--oxacin
antibiotic - Quinolone
50
-pam
benzodiazepine
51
-penem
antibiotic - cardapenem
52
-dipine
antihypertensive CCB
53
-pramine
antidepressant - TCA
54
-prazole
PPI - proton pump inhibitor
55
-pril
antihypertensive - ACE inhibitor
56
-salazine
aminosalicylate
57
-sartan
antihypertensive - ARB
58
-setron
antiemetic - 5HT3-antagonist
59
-solone
corticosteroid
60
-sone
corticosteroid
61
-statin
antihyperlipidaemic
62
-terol
LABA (long-acting beta antagonist)
63
-tidine
H2 antagonist
64
-tretinoin
retinoid
65
-triptan
antidepressant - SSRI
66
-tyline
antidepressant - TCA
67
-vir
antiviral
68
-zolamide
CAI (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)
69
-zosin
alpha one blocker
70
clopidogrel
ANTI PLATELET to reduce atherosclerotic events in people with recent CVA, MI or peripheral artery disease
71
nifedipine
ANTI ANGINAL hypertension, anginas thought to inhibit calcium influx across cardiac and smooth muscle cells
72
ondansetron
ANTIEMETIC used esp. chemotherapy and prevention and treatment of post-op nausea and vomiting action: selective antagonist of 5-HT3 serotonin receptor in CNS and PNS
73
docusate sodium
LAXATIVE stool softener eg. Coloxyl also used as an OTIC med for facilitation of cerumen removal
74
bisacodyl
LAXATIVE used prior to rectal/bowel exams, preparation for surgery etc action: works on smooth muscle increases peristalsis
75
insulin aspart
ANTIDIABETIC Novorapid ultra-short acting (rapid acting) generally 50% - 70% of daily requirement is taken as Novorapid, the rest is taken as intermediate acting or long-acting
76
insulin glargine
ANTIDIABETIC Lantus long acting (basal) insulin
77
ethinyloestradiol and levonoergestrol
OESTROGENS AND PROGESTINS oral contraceptive
78
metronidazole
AMEOBICIDES AND ANTIPROTOZOALS | also a local anti-infective
79
atropine sulfate
ANTICHOLINERGIC (antimuscarinic) blocks vagal effect at SA and AV nodes, thereby increasing heart rate
80
benztropine
ANTIPARKINSONIAN anticholinergic
81
omeprazole
ANTIULCER treatment of ulcers and GORD proton pump inhibitor, blocks gastric acid formation
82
chlorpromazine
ANTIPSYCHOTIC treatment of psychosis, but also nausea and vomiting as well as tetanus, intractable hiccups, adjunct to surgery action unknown, may block dopamine receptors in synapses in brain
83
prednisolone
CORTICOSTEROID used to treat severe inflammation, also a range of other conditions including asthma, croup, ulcerative colitis, crohn's disease, nephrotic syndrome and many more
84
tramadol
NARCOTIC/OPIOID binds to opioid receptors, also inhibits reuptake of noradrenaline and serotonin it's synthetic, and not chemically related to opiates
85
haloperidol
ANTIPSYCHOTIC for treatment of psychoses, also non-psychotic behaviour disorders in children as well as tourette's can also be used to treat nausea and vomiting associated with radiation/malignancy probably blocks postsynaptic dopamine receptors in brain
86
gelofusine
used as an IV colloid behaves like blood filled with albumins - causes an increase in blood volume, blood flow, cardiac output, and oxygen transportation
87
levetiracetam
ANTICONVULSANT adjunct therapy for partial onset seizures action unknown, believed to be due to binding with synaptic vesicle protein 2A in CNS
88
ciprofloxacin
ANTI-INFECTIVE (ANTIBIOTIC) fluoroquinolone used to treat various infections including UTIs and respiratory.
89
methotrexate
ANTIMETABOLITE chemotherapy drug used in various cancers as well as for autoimmune diseases, ectopic pregnancy and medical abortions
90
perindopril
ANTIHYPERTENSIVE ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and CHF
91
metoprolol
ANTIHYPERTENSIVE beta blocker used to treat hypertension, angina and as early intervention in acute MI also used as migraine prophylaxis
92
teriflunomide
IMMUNOMODIFIER used to manage MS (reduces relapse frequency, delays physical disability progression) trade name Aubagio
93
magmin
magnesium aids in relief of muscle cramps and spasms and nervous tension
94
sotalol
ANTIARRHYTHMIC beta blocker that slows sinus heart rate and AV conduction, decreases cardiac output and lowers systolic and diastolic BPs
95
pantoprazole
ANTIULCER proton pump inhibitor (suppresses gastric acid secretion) used to treat ulcers inc. helicobacter pylori, reflux oesophagitis, and GORD
96
cetirizine
ANTIHISTAMINE Zyrtec inhibits peripheral H1 receptors, treatment of seasonal rhinitis, perennial allergic rhinitis, chronic urticaria
97
diazepam
ANTIANXIETY / ANTICONVULSANT Valium etc benzodiazepine that depresses the CNS at limbic and subcortical levels of brain. suppresses spread of seizure activity
98
atenolol
ANTIHYPERTENSIVE hypertension / angina/ prophylaxis for MI beta blocker: decreases cardiac output, peripheral resistance, renin secretion
99
tapentadol
NARCOTICS AND OPIOID ANALGESICS binds with opioid receptors
100
What does APINCHS stand for
``` Antimicrobials Potassium and other electrolytes Insulin Narcotics and other sedatives Chemotherapeutic agents Heparin and other anticoagulants Systems ```
101
Which drugs fall under A in the APINCHS Classification of High Risk Medicines?
A for antimicrobials aminoglycosides: gentamicin, tobramycin and amikacin vancomycin amphotericin – liposomal formulation
102
Which drugs fall under P in the APINCHS Classification of High Risk Medicines?
P is for potassium and other electrolytes Injections of concentrated electrolytes: potassium, magnesium, calcium, hypertonic sodium chloride
103
Which drugs fall under C in the APINCHS Classification of High Risk Medicines?
C is for chemotherapeutic agents vincristine, methotrexate, etoposide, azathioprine Oral chemotherapy
104
Which drugs fall under N in the APINCHS Classification of High Risk Medicines?
N is for narcotics (opioids) and other sedatives: hydromorphone, oxycodone, morphine, fentanyl, alfentanil, remifentanil and analgesic patches benzodiazepines: diazepam, midazolam thiopentone, propofol and other short term anaesthetics
105
Which drugs fall under H in the APINCHS Classification of High Risk Medicines?
H is for heparin and other anticoagulants: warfarin, enoxaparin, heparin direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs): dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban
106
buspirone
ANXIOLYTIC - not related to benzodiazepines for short term treatment of anxiety (up to 1 month) binds to dopamine, noradrenaline and serotonin receptors in the CNS but no effect on GABA antianxiety effects, without sedative, antiepileptic, muscle relaxant effects doesn't cause dependence
107
propranolol
beta blocker - blocks beta-adrenergic receptors in the CNS and in peripheral cardiac and pulmonary systems ``` varied indications: non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic antanginal hypertension migraines to reduce mortality after MI essential tremor ```
108
cephazolin:
cephalosporin antibiotic inhibits cell wall synthesis in bacteria serious infections - respiratory, biliary and GU tracts; skin, soft-tissue, bone and joint; septicaemia; endocarditis IV or IM
109
morphine
opioid analgesic binds to opiate receptor in CNS, altering perception of/emotional response to pain (mechanism unknown) severe pain PO, IV, IM, SC, epidural, intrathecal
110
what class of drugs is vancomycin in?
glycopeptide antibiotics
111
classes of osteoporosis meds?
bisphosphonates RANKL inhibitors - denosumab SERMs (selective estrogen receptor modulators) - raloxifene Parathyroid hormone and related peptide analogues - teriparatide (another one called abaloparatide isn't available in australia)
112
how do RANKL inhibitors work?
Denosumab inhibits the maturation of pre-osteoclasts into osteoclasts by binding to and inhibiting RANKL.
113
what are the bisphosphonates, how frequently are they administered?
alendronate - weekly PO ibandronate (ibandronic acid) - monthly PO/ 3monthly IV risedronate - weekly PO or monthly PO zoledronic acid - annually IV
114
which osteoporosis drugs are administered subcut?
denosumab (rankl) and teriparatide (parathyroid hormone)
115
-agliflozin
SGLT2 inhibitor
116
SGLT2 inhibitors: mechanism of action?
prevent the reabsorption of glucose (and sodium) from the filtrate into the bloodstream in the proximal convoluted tubule
117
adverse reactions of macrolides?
nausea and vomiting abdo pain rash anaphylaxis
118
adverse reactions to cephalosporins?
impaired vitamin K | high sodium
119
adverse effects of aminoglycasides?
nephrotoxicity encephalopathy ototoxicity use with caution with the elderly
120
what are the adverse effects of gentamycin?
Nephrotoxicity Vestibular ototoxicity Use with caution with the elderly
121
adverse reactions to penicillins?
GI upset, nausea and vomiting
122
what are the main classes of diuretics?
``` osmotic diuretics loop diuretics thiazide diuretics potassium sparing diuretics (carbonic anhydrase inhibitors) ```
123
describe the effects of loop diuretics?
they produce rapid and intense diuresis over a fairly short period (4-6 hrs) they have a number of direct vascular effects: venodilation, reduced responsiveness to angiotensin II and noradrenalin
124
what are loop diuretics commonly indicated for?
``` oedema cirrhosis renal impairment nephrotic syndrome adjunct therapy for APO ```
125
when should loop diuretics be used with caution?
* Diabetes mellitus * Gout * Hearing impairment * Hepatic and renal impairment * Hypokalaemia
126
adverse reactions to frusemide?
* Electrolyte imbalances * Dizziness * Postural hypotension * Ototoxicity
127
adverse reactions to thiazide diuretics?
* Dizziness * Vertigo * Orthostatic hypotension * Hypokalaemia * Hyperglycaemia * Photosensitivity - use sunscreen!
128
spironolactone
aldosterone receptor blocker (potassium sparing diuretic) ``` indications: oedema heart failure hyperaldosteronism hirsutism ```
129
antipsychotics - mechanism of action?
Antipsychotic actions are thought to be mediated (at least in part) by blockade of dopaminergic transmission in various parts of the brain (in particular the limbic system). evidence suggests: all effective antipsychotics block D2 receptors differential blockade of other dopamine receptors (eg D1) may influence therapeutic and adverse effects antagonism of other receptors may influence antipsychotic activity, eg 5HT2 antagonism with some agents.