Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

general studies > course work > Flashcards

course work Flashcards

1
Q

What is phlebitis and what are the three types of phlebitis?

A

inflammation of a vein

mechanical - movement of cannula within vein causes friction

chemical - caused by the drug or fluid being infused (for example, antibiotics are reported to increase the
incidence of chemical phlebitis due to
their low pH)

infective - caused by the introduction of bacteria into the vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How much fluid may be injected into the deltoid?

A

1 ml or less of clear, non-irritating solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Whaat does ISBAR stand for?

A

Identify, Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When do you assess the patency of an IV cannula?

A

each time it is accessed for use
at least once every shift
any time a patient is transferred between wards or departments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Aside from patency, what other assessments are involved when caring for a patient with an IV
cannula? (6)

A 
erythema
tenderness
pain
swelling
dressing integrity
PIVC position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long does an IV cannula remain insitu?

A

no more than 72 hours, unless there is no sign of infection and either replacement is likely to be difficult or it’s likely to be needed for no more than 24 hours more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the four essential elements of valid consent?

A

it must be voluntary, specific, informed, and the person must have legal capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is measured in a FBC or CBC and diff?

A 
RBC count 
haemoglobin
haematocrit (PCV)
blood smear
platelet count
mean platelet volume
red blood cell indices
WBC count
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the two different classifications of WBCs?

A

granulocytes - neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils

non-granulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

resp rate: normal range

A

12 - 20

(adult)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

pulse rate: normal range

A

60 - 100 (adult)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

body temp (tympanic): normal range

A

35.5 - 37.5 (adult)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

define affinity

A

the extent of binding of a drug to a receptor

how well the drug fits into the receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

define specificity and selectivity

A

The specificity of a drug describes the number of effects the drug produces, while selectivity describes the number of molecular targets the drug interacts with.

An ideal drug would interact with a single molecular target, at a single site, and cause only one effect. Such a drug would be described as having complete specificity; unfortunately, no drugs can lay claim to that title. Most drugs show some degree of selectivity – that is, a preference for a molecular target – but may lack specificity either because they act on more than one molecular target or because they act on a molecular target that is located in multiple organs or tissues throughout the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

define efficacy

A

the ability of a drug to produce an effect once it is bound to the molecular target.

The maximal efficacy of a drug is the maximum response a drug can produce.

The clinical effectiveness of a drug depends on its efficacy, not on its potency.

important: only an agonist has efficacy - an antagonist has affinity but not efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

define potency

A

the relative amount of a drug that has to be present to produce a desired effect

the more potent the drug, the lower the dose required to acheive effect (ie fentanyl is much more potent than oxycodone)

important - efficacy and potency are not the same thing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the four aspects of pharmacokinetics?

A

absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what factors influence the absorption of drugs?

A
  1. surface area of absorbing site
  2. blood circulation to site of administration
  3. drug solubility - (lipids and lipid soluble absorbs faster)
  4. ionisation, which is determined by pH of the environment (acid drugs absorb well in acid environment; basic drugs in basic)
  5. size of the molecule of the drug (smaller is faster)
  6. formulation eg, SR, enteric coating
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how are most drugs absorbed in the body?

A

simple diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how do almost all drugs work, with the exception of many chemotherapy drugs?

A

by binding to proteins, which are known as molecular targets or sites of action

many chemo drugs are the exception because the bind to DNA, which is not a protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the four main types of molecular drug targets?

A

transporters eg SSRIs

ion channels eg calcium channel blockers

enzymes eg ACE inhibitors

receptors - largest and most diverse type of molecular drug target eg morphine and other opiates work on opioid receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what factors influence the magnitude of a pharmacological effect of a drug?

A

the nature of the interaction with the target

the affinity of the drug for the target

the concentration of a drug at the site of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what factors influence the concentration of a drug at the site of action?

A

the absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of the drug (ie pharmacokinetics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the interaction of a drug with a enzyme called?

A

inhibition (the drugs are ‘enzyme inhibitors’)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is the interaction of a drug with a transporter called?
inhibition (e.g. citalopram is a serotonin reuptake transporter inhibitor)
26
what is the interaction of a drug with a ion channel called?
blocking (e.g. verapamil is a calcium channel blocker)
27
what is the interaction of a drug with a receptor called?
either agonism or antagonism
28
define agonist
An agonist binds to the receptor (governed by affinity), and activates the receptor (governed by efficacy) to produce the same response as the endogenous ligand.
29
define partial agonist
Partial agonists produce less than the maximal effect caused by the endogenous ligand even when all receptors are occupied.
30
define antagonist
An antagonist binds to a receptor and blocks access of the endogenous ligand, thus diminishing the normal response.
31
what is one of the few examples of an drug that acts on an enzyme and doesn't inhibit it?
metformin
32
which neurotransmitters are implicated in the development of mental illness?
``` acetylcholine noradrenaline dopamine seratonin GABA ```
33
define akathisia
restlessness where the person cannot stay still
34
anosognosia
lack of insight
35
antipsychotic medication
medication prescribed to reduce psychotic symptoms
36
ataxia
lack of voluntary muscle movement
37
atypical antipsychotic medication
the newer, second generation of antipsychotic medication
38
cogwheeling rigidity
type of rigidity seen in parkinsonism whereby the muscles respond with cogwheel-like jerks to the application of constant force in attempting to bend the limb
39
dystonia
state of abnormal muscle tone
40
extrapyramidal side effects
drug-induced movement disorders
41
half-life
the time until the serum level of a drug is reduced by half
42
iatrogenic
an effect caused by medication or by health personnel
43
Parkinson's syndrome
imbalance between dopamine and acetylcholine, resulting in involuntary movements, reduced movements, rigidity and abnormal walking and posture
44
polypharmacy
use of multiple medications simultaneously
45
serotonin syndrome
a potentially life-threatening syndrome caused by excessive brain cell activity as a result of high levels of serotonin
46
tardive dyskinesia
involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk and extremities caused by a dopamine receptor blocking agent
47
typical antipsychotic medication
traditional type of antipsychotic medication
48
how do psychotropic medications produce their therapeutic action?
by altering communication among the neurons in the CNS in particular by altering the way NTs work at the synapse: - modifying the reuptake of NTs into presynaptic neuron - activating or inhibiting postsynaptic receptors - inhibiting enzyme activity
49
what are the five types of psychotropic medications?
anti-anxiety (anxiolytic) medications antidepressant medications mood-stabilising (antimania) medications antipsychotic medications sedative-hypnotic medications
50
benzodiazepines - mechanism of action
thought to potentiate the inhibitory effect of GABA in the CNS
51
what are the two groups of anti-anxiety meds?
benzodiazepines non-benzodiazepines - azapirones - beta-adrenergic blockers
52
what are antidepressant meds used to treat besides depression?
anxiety disorders such as panic disorder and OCD
53
types of antidepressants
SSRIs SNRIs tricyclics MAOIs (monoamine oxidase inhibitors)
54
what is the primary survey approach?
``` Airways Breathing Circulation Disability Exposure ```
55
what is assessed under E in an A-E assessment?
Exposure: body temperature skin integrity signs of pressure injury wounds, dressings or drains, invasive lines ability to transfer and mobilise bowel movements
56
what is assessed under D in an A-E assessment?
Disability: level of consciousness speech pain
57
what is assessed under C in an A-E assessment?
Circulation: pulse rate and rhythm blood pressure urine output
58
what is assessed under B in an A-E assessment?
Breathing: respiratory rate work of breathing oxygen saturation
59
what is another name for chronic pain?
persistent pain
60
what are nerve receptors of pain called?
nociceptors
61
where are pain impulses perceived, described, localised and interpreted?
in the thalamus and cerebral cortex
62
where are emotional and cognitive responses to pain integrated?
in the reticular formation and limbic systems
63
what is the 'analgesia system'?
a group of midbrain neurons that transmits impulses to the pons and medulla, which in turn stimulate a pain inhibitory centre in the dorsal horns of the spinal cord exact mechanism unknown
64
what are endorphins? | what triggers their release?
(ENDogenous mORPHINes) naturally occurring opioid peptides in brain, spinal cord and GIT released in response to afferent noxious stimuli (in brain) or in response to efferent impulses (in spinal cord) bind with opiate receptors on neurons to inhibit pain impulse transmission
65
define acute pain
less than three months has identified cause usually immediate onset, usually from tissue injury from trauma, injury or inflammation
66
what are the three major types of acute pain?
somatic pain visceral pain referred pain
67
what is somatic pain?
arises from nociceptors in skin/close to body's surface can be sharp and localised or dull and diffuse often accompanied by nausea and vomiting
68
what is referred pain?
pain perceived in area distant from site of stimuli commonly occurs with visceral pain because visceral fibres synapse at the spinal cord, close to fibres innervating other subcutaneous tissue areas
69
what is a dermatome?
a body area defined by a spinal nerve route (referred pain)
70
what are some of the characteristic physical responses to acute pain
1. tachycardia, 2. rapid and shallow breathing, 3. increased BP, 4. dilated pupils, 5. sweating, 6. pallor (autonomic stress responses) (fight or flight)
71
what is persistent (chronic) pain?
ongoing and prolonged pain ``` not always associated with an identifiable cause but often arises from an acute cause including: post trauma herpes zoster acute back pain post op surgical pain ```
72
what are the risk factors that can help predict persistent post surgical pain?
1. excruciating pain before and after surgery 2. repeated surgeries 3. potential for nerve injury 4. radiation therapy 5. neurotoxic chemotherapy 6. mental illness (eg anxiety, depression)
73
what is 'persisten (chronic) pain syndrome'?
unspecific behaviours/symptoms/feelings that can occur within cycle of persistent pain and disability may include physical deconditioning, drug tolerance, reduced activity, distorted beliefs, social stresses such as financial hardship, anger, hopelessness and more
74
approx. what percentage of australians suffer from persistent pain?
17 - 20%
75
what is breakthrough pain?
pain occurring between doses of analgesia
76
how can breakthrough pain be prevented?
by giving breakthrough analgesia more frequently or by increasing the dose of the analgesia or by increasing the SR/continuous release medication
77
what is incident pain?
pain occurring when procedures, dressings or activity increase the pain experience
78
what is cancer pain?
a common condition of clients with advanced cancer often persistent, with acute features also arising from a number of factors ie. disease process + prescribed treatment + co-morbidities often a mixture of nociceptive and neuropathic
79
problems with IM pethidine, which used to be one of the most commonly given post-op analgesic
1. late onset respiratory depression 2. painful to give 3. can irritate tissues and cause tissue abscess 4. short acting 5. can cause seizures (the first three common to IM morphine also) pethidine not usually recommended for post-op pain anymore
80
non-pharmacological stategies for managing pain
1. knowledge and information 2. relaxation (guided imagery, deep breathing, progressive muscle 3. distraction 4. biofeedback 5. hypnosis 6. massage 7. physio 8. TENS 9. heat and cold therapy 10. acupunture
81
what are simple analgesics?
such as paracetamol (analgesic and antipyretic)
82
what percentage of the average healthy adult's weight is water and electrolytes?
60% male | 55% female
83
what are the fluid compartments in the body?
``` intracellular fluid (2/3 of total) extracellular fluid (1/3 of total) ```
84
what's the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic?
one actually kills bacteria, the other slows there growth enough to render them harmless
85
which antibiotics will need drug plasma concentrations monitored?
gentamicin, tobramycin, vancomycin
86
what were the first broad spectrum antibiotics developed?
tetracyclines
87
what is ototoxicity?
toxicity to the ear - the cochlea, the auditory nerve and sometimes the vestibular system
88
What types of anaesthetics are there?
``` general nerve block - spinal or epidural regional local infiltration sedation/analgesia ```
89
how do diuretics work?
modify kidney function to cause increased diuresis and increased natriuresis
90
onset of action for thiazide diuretics?
about 12 hours
91
how do thiazide diuretics work?
inhibit reabsorption of sodium and water, and promote the excretion of electrolytes
92
how potent are thiazide diuretics?
how potent are thiazide diuretics?
93
what do thiazide diuretics promote the reabsorption of?
urea, leading to increased uric acid. can lead to gout.
94
what are thiazide diuretics indicated for?
oedema, HTN
95
which diuretics are commonly used in conjunction?
thiazides and potassium-sparing diuretics
96
what are potassium-sparing diuretics commonly indicated for?
* Diuretic induced hypokalaemia * Treatment of oedema related to heart failure * Hepatic cirrhosis
97
example of a potassium-sparing diuretic?
spironolactone (Aldactone)
98
which diuretic doesn't interfere with sodium and cholride transport?
spironolactone
99
how do osmotic diuretics work?
they add to solutes already present, increasing the osmolality of the filtrate in the nephrons
100
indications for osmotic diuretics?
cerebral oedema to educe intraocular pressure acute closed angle glaucoma
101
examples of osmotic diuretics?
mannitol | acetazolamide
102
nursing care considerations for diuretics - what should be monitored?
fluid input and output blood pressure blood serum levels BGLs
103
nursing care considerations for diuretics - patient education points
education: avoid sudden posture changes take in the morning use sunscreen
104
other nursing care considerations for diuretics
ensure patients have access to toileting if IDC is present, ensure it's patent etc monitor for dehydration
105
electrolytes: role of sodium?
nerve transmission, muscle contraction, maintains normal | concentration of ECF
106
electrolytes: role of chloride?
acid/base balance, nerve transmission
107
electrolytes: role of potassium?
nerve transmission, muscle contraction, normal heart rhythms, concentration of ICF
108
electrolytes: role of calcium?
nerve transmission, muscle contraction, strong bones and teeth, blood clotting, enzyme reactions
109
electrolytes: role of magnesium?
enzyme reactions; cardiac and respiratory function
110
how is excess glucose stored?
converted to glycogen and stored in the liver and muscles or converted into fat and stored in adipose tissue
111
what is cholesterol used for in the body?
cell membranes, steroid hormones, bile
112
what is nitrogen balance?
``` when nitrogen (protein) intake is equal to nitrogen (protein) output. no nitrogen, no amino acids. it's widely considered to be the primary goal of nutritional support, and is closely associated with improved patient outcomes. ```
113
what is nitrogen essential for?
wound healing; growth, repair and maintenance of tissues
114
what BMIs mean:
BMI < 18.5 - underweight BMI > 25 overweight BMI > 30 obese BMI > 40 morbidly obese
115
what are the two types of nutritional support (feeding) if you can't eat?
enteral - NG tube, gastrostomy (PEG), jejunostomy tube | parental - via veins
116
signs and symptoms of fluid overload?
``` full, bounding pulse distended jugular veins high BP oedema pulmonary oedema ```
117
another name for Hartmann's?
CSL (compound sodium lactate)
118
IDEAL discharge
Include – patient and family (with consent) Discuss–home, medications, problems, warning signs, follow-up appointments Educate – patient’s condition in plain language Assess – how well education from doctors and nurses has been received Listen – and respect patient’s goals, preferences, concerns
119
about how long till wound has healed enough to remove staples?
1 week
120
how long til primary intention wound achieves 90% strength?
about 3 weeks
121
what assessments should a nurse be performing post-op?
``` ABCDE (primary assessment) FGH (secondary assessment) F is for fluids/full set of vital signs G is for glucose/give comfort H is for head to toe assessment ```
122
what is shock?
a condition of circulatory impairment leading to inadequate vital organ perfusion and oxygen delivery relative to the individual's metabolic needs

general studies (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions