Basic science Flashcards
1
Q
When does gastrulation occur?
A
Week 3
2
Q
At what stage does the neural tube close?
A
Week 4
3
Q
When does an embryo’s heart begin to beat?
A
Week 4
4
Q
When in embryonic development does genitalia become differentiated?
A
Week 10
5
Q
What are the three embryonic layers?
A
Ectoderm
Mesoderm
Endoderm
6
Q
The CNS is derived from which embryonic layer?
A
Ectoderm
7
Q
Most bones and connective tissue are derived from which embryonic layer?
A
Mesoderm
8
Q
Where is bilirubin conjugated?
A
Liver
9
Q
Which type of ulcers are more common with HSV 1?
A
Oral lesions
10
Q
Which type of ulcers are more common with HSV 2?
A
Genital
11
Q
During which phase of mitosis do chromosomes align at the centre of the cell?
A
Metaphase
12
Q
Cobblestone appearance suggests…
A
Crohn’s disease
13
Q
Granulomas are found in which type of IBD?
A
Crohn’s disease
14
Q
Crypt abscesses are more common in which type of IBD?
A
UC
15
Q
Measles evades the immune system by interacting with which immune cell?
A
Dendritic cells
16
Q
What is the mechanism of paracetamol damage to the kidneys?
A
NAPQI-induced renal papillary necrosis
17
Q
Studies which compare new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests may suffer from which type of bias?
A
Workup bias
18
Q
What are the main phases of the cell cycle?
A
G1 > S > G2 > M…
19
Q
At which point in the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
A
S
20
Q
What are the four stages of mitosis?
A
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
21
Q
What happens during prophase?
A
chromatin condenses, chromosomes become visible
22
Q
What happens during metaphase?
A
Chromosomes line up at centre of the cell
23
Q
What happens during anaphase?
A
Sister chromatids move to opposite poles of the cell
24
Q
What happens during telophase?
A
Cytoplasm separates, allowing for 2 daughter cells to form
25
What happens during the urea cycle?
Nitrogenous waste products converted to urea, eliminated by urine
26
What is the accessory bundle called in WPW syndrome?
Bundle of Kent
27
What is meant by 'left shift' of the oxy-Hb curve?
Increased Hb-O2 affinity and reduced tissue uptake
28
What is meant by 'right shift' of the oxy-Hb curve?
Decreased Hb-O2 affinity and increased tissue uptake
29
Which factors result in 'right shift' of the oxy-Hb curve?
INCREASED temp, CO2, 2,3-DPG, H+, altitude
30
Which factors result in 'left shift' of the oxy-Hb curve?
DECREASED temp, CO2, 2,3-DPG, H+, altitude
31
What is the effect of CO on the oxy-Hb dissociation curve?
Results in left shift
32
Which antibody is most involved in plasmodium vivax entry into cells?
Duffy
33
Which complement deficiencies can give rise to opportunistic infections?
C5-9
34
Which porphyria is associated with photosensitivity?
Porphyria cutanea tarda
35
What is the mechanism of action of methylphenidate?
Inhibits dopamine reuptake in basal ganglia
36
Which enzyme is involved in conjugation of bilirubin?
UDPGT
37
Which anti-TB drug can affect INR?
Rifampicin
38
What is the mechanism of action of milrinone?
Inhibition of PDE-III
39
What is the function of the CFTR?
Movement of chloride from intracellular to extracellular space in lungs
40
What colour do gram positive organisms stain?
Purple
41
What colour do gram negative organisms stain?
Pink
42
Do gram positive or negative organisms have a thicker peptidoglycan wall?
Positive
43
Give examples of gram positive cocci.
Staph
Strep
Enterococcus
44
Give examples of gram positive bacilli.
AACDL mnemonic
Actinomyces
Anthrax
Clostridium
Diphtheria
Listeria
45
Treponema pallidum is which kind of organism?
Gram negative spirochete
46
What kind of virus is HIV?
Single-stranded RNA reverse transcriptase
47
What kind of virus is Hepatitis B?
Double-stranded DNA reverse transcriptase
48
Give examples of DNA viruses.
Smallpox
Parvovirus
Hep B (reverse transcriptase)
49
Give examples of RNA viruses.
Rotavirus
Coronavirus
Measles
HIV (reverse transcriptase)
50
Increased PT suggests an issue with which pathway and factor?
Extrinsic pathway, factor 7
51
Increased APTT suggests an issue with which pathway?
Intrinsic pathway
52
Which clotting factors are involved in the intrinsic pathway?
8, 9, 11 and 12
53
Raised PT and APT suggests...
common pathway issue
54
Which factors are involved in the 'common pathway'?
Factors 2,5 and 10
55
Which factors are Vitamin K dependent?
2, 7, 9 and 10
56
Which factor is deficient in Haemophilia A?
Factor 8 (VIII)
57
Which factor is deficient in Haemophilia B?
Factor 9 (IX)
58
Which factor is deficient in Haemophilia C?
Factor 11 (XI)
59
How is haemophilia C inherited?
AR
60
What is the mechanism of loop diuretics?
Inhibits Na/K/2Cl co-transporter in thick ascending loop of Henle to increase water excretion
61
What is the mechanism of thiazide-like diuretics?
Inhibit Na absorption at DCT resulting in water loss
62
What is the mechanism of aldosterone antagonists?
Block effects of aldosterone in DCT --> reduced activity of Na/K exchanger resulting in water loss
63
Which ion is most important in cardioplegia solution?
K+
64
What kind of receptor is Ca-sensing receptor?
GPCR
65
What are the main roles of PTH in calcium metabolsim?
Stimulates Ca release from bones
Stimulates Ca uptake by kidneys
Conversion of Vit D to active form
66
What is the main role of Vit D in calcium metabolism?
Increase intestinal absorption of Ca
67
Give features of hypocalcaemia.
Spasm/parasthesia
Seizures
Arrythmia
68
Renin is primarily secreted in response to...
Low BP
69
What is the role of Renin?
hydrolyses angiotensinogen to produce angiotensin I
70
Which structures are included in a myelomeningocoele?
Meninges, CSF and spinal nerves
71
Which anti-D immunoglobin is responsible for haemolytic disease of the newborn?
IgG
72
What is CVID?
Group of hypogammaglobulinaemi syndromes characterised by recurrent infections, increased risk of malignancy and autoimmune disease
73
What is the underlying issue in Bruton's agammaglobulinaemia?
Defect in Bruton's Tyrosine Kinase resulting in severe block in B cell development
74
How is Bruton's agammaglobulinaemia inherited?
X-linked recessive
75
Which immune cell is affected in DiGeorge Syndrome?
T cells
76
What is the most common cause of SCID?
Genetic
77
Recurrent bacterial infections, eczema and thrombocytopaenia suggests...
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
78
How is Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome inherited?
X-linked
79
What is the most abundant Ig sub-class in serum?
IgG
80
Which is the first immunoglobulin secreted in acute infection?
IgM
81
Basophilic stippling suggests...
Lead poisoning
82
What is the mechanism of Na valproate?
Increased GABA activity
83
What is the mechanism of Carbemazepine?
Binds to Na+ channels to increase refractory perior
84
What is the mechanism of Lamotrigine?
Na+ channel blocker
85
Which anti-epileptic(s) are P450 inhibitor?
Valproate
86
Which anti-epileptics are P450 inducers?
Lamotrigine, Carbamazepine, Phenytoin
87
Which eye drops are typically used to dilate the pupils?
Atropine
88
Which is the only vaccine to be given intra-dermally?
BCG
89
Prostaglandin is produced by...
Cyclo-oxygenase
90
What is the mechanism of UVB phototherapy?
Induction of pyridimine dimerisation
91
Where is melatonin produced?
Pineal gland
92
Which part of the bone is most susceptible to osteomyelitis?
Metaphysis
93
Which part of the bone is most susceptible to osteomyelitis?
Metaphysis
94
When is a serious case review initiated (England)?
Child dies or serious injury and abuse suspected
95
What are the most common causes of meningitis in > 3 months?
Neisseria meningitidis
Strep pneumoniae
H influenzae
96
What are the CSF findings in bacterial meningitis?
Raised protein, low glucose, increased polymorphs
97
What are the CSF findings in viral meningitis?
Increased or normal protein, normal glucose, increased lymphocytes
98
What are the CSF findings in fungal/TB meningitis?
Raised protein, low glucose, increased lymphocytes
99
Is grey or white matter more associated with decision making?
Grey
100
What is the mechanism of Vigabatrin?
GABA inhibitor
101
What is the MOA of levetiracetam?
Modulates SVA2 which regulates release of neurotransmitter
102
What is the MOA of ranitidine?
H2 receptor antagonist
103
What is the MOA of chlorephenamine?
H1 receptor antagonist
104
What is the MOA of Domperidone?
Dopamine antagonist
105
What is the role of leptin?
Decrease food intake and increase energy expenditure
106
What is the role of Ghrelin?
Increase food intake, fat deposition and GH release
107
What is the MOA of ethosuximide?
T-type Ca channel blocker
108
What are the typical CSF findings in GBS?
Protein +++, normal WCC/glucose
109
Which area is typically affected in IVH?
Germinal matrix
110
What is the primary mechanism of botulinum toxin?
ACh inhibition
111
What is the main method of paracetamol metabolism in children < 12?
Sulphate conjugation
112
Which protein reduces iron transport through enterocytes?
Hepcidin
113
What is the MOA of rocuronium?
competitive ACh antagonist --> preventing depolarisation
114
What is the most potent beta-agonist?
Dobutamine
115
What is the pathological process in SMA?
Anterior horn cell degeneration
116
Which part of the nephron is defective in Cystinuria?
PCT
117
Isolated premature development of pubic hair is called...
Premature adrenarche
118
Bias in which researchers' ideas/hopes influence result...
observation bias
119
How are live attenuated vaccines made?
Passed through live foreign host
120
What is the detrimental gene in MRSA?
MecA
121
Where is leptin produced?
Adipocytes & P cells of stomach
122
Where is ghrelin produced?
Enteroendocrine cells in fundus of stomach
123
Where is somatostatin produced?
Hypothalamus and delta cells of GI tract
124
Which structure of the visual pathway is affected in a homonymous hemianopia?
Optic tract
125
Which structure of the visual pathway is affected in a quadrantanopia?
Optic radiation
126
Which structure is affected in an inferior quandrantanopia?
Superior optic radiation (parietal lobe)
127
Which structure is affected in a superior quandrantanopia?
Inferior optic radiation (temporal lobe)
128
What is the mechanism of phototherapy for jaundice?
Photoisomerisation from bilirubin to lumirubin which can be excreted in urine
129
What are the main functions of the PCT?
Reabsorb ions, water and nutrients, remove toxins and adjust pH
130
What are the main functions of the DCT?
Selective secretion of ions to maintain blood pH and electrolyte balance
131
Where in the nephron are aquaporins primarily located?
Descending loop of Henle
132
What is the main function of the ascending loop of Henle?
Reabsorb Na/Cl
133
Between which layers is CSF located?
Between arachnoid and pia mater
134
What is the main location of CSF production?
Ependymal cells in choroid plexus
135
Where is CSF re-absorbed?
Arachnoid granulations into superior sagittal sinuses
136
What is the flow of CSF within the ventricles?
Foramen of Munro --> Lateral ventricles --> 3rd ventricle ---> Cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) --> Foramina of Magendie/Luschka --> 4th ventricle --> sub-arachnoid space
137
What is the most important enzyme in transporting fatty acids from adipose tissue to mitochondria?
Carnitine acyltransferase I
138
Histology: Patchy enteropathy with increase in eosinophils and lymphocytes (no increase in inra-cellular lymphocytes).
CMPA
139
Increase in intraepithelial lymphocyte count on duodenal biopsy suggests...
Coeliac disease
140
What is the most appropriate test for galactossaemia?
Red blood cell galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase activity
141
Acidosis and raised ammonia suggests...
Organic aciduria
142
Slightly low factor VIII and raised APTT suggests...
Von-Willebrand disease
143
Which toxin is most involved in bullous impetigo?
Exfoliative toxin A
144
Which toxin is most involved in SSSS?
Exfoliative toxin B
145
What kind of organism is listeria?
Gram positive rod
146
During which embryonic phase do alveoli start to develop?
Saccular
147
Which layer of skin is most affected by epidemolysis bullosa simplex?
Basal epidermis
148
Where is most Vitamin B12 absorbed?
Ileum
149
Which HLA sub-type is most associated with Ankylosing Spondylitis?
HLA-B27
150
Unable to prolong APTT with heparin suggests...
AT III deficiency
151
Where is ADH synthesised?
Hypothalamus
