BE POSITIVE Flashcards

(103 cards)

1
Q

Glossopharyngeal breathing is used for who

A

People with weakness of the muscles of inspiration

Like a high cervical SCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Prime mover in scapular elevation and upward rotation

A

Upper trap is prime mover!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Prime mover in shoulder retraction and elevation and downward rotation

A

Rhomboids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Best couple for rotating scapular upward

A

Upper trap and SA
Upper trap pulls up
Lower SA pulls out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lower trap function

A

Depress and upwardly rotate the scap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tenderness with palpation
Painful arc with PROM
Protective mm spasms
Empty end feel

A

ACUTE bursitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Volkmann ischemic contracture is what

A

A nerve injury resulting from the compressions of fluid, producing a deformed limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Thrombophlebitis of saphenous vein would produce what s/s

A

Generalized leg pain
Swelling
Increased temp
Bluish discoloration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Anterior compartment syndrome - presentation

A

Blunt trauma is cause

Presents with sensory deficits like numbness, tngling, coolness of exremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What can be done to reduce thickness of hypertrophic scar

A

Pressure garments worn 23 hrs/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Clasp knife occurs as a result of injury to waht

A

Descending motor pathways from cortex or brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cogwheel resistance to passive ROM results from lesions of the

A

BG

Also see tremors with BG issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Neurapraxia =

A

Blockage that stops or slows conduction

Recovery is possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Axonotmesis =

A

Neural tube is intact
Axonal damage has occured and wallerian degeneration
May need surgical intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Neurotmesis involves what

A

Total loss of axonal function
Disruption of neural tube
Surgery usually required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What happens when using intermittent pneumatic compression during the inflation (compression) phase to arterial flow, venous flow and lymphatic pressure

A

Increase in interstitial pressure and venous blood flow

During compression - arterial flow is reduced, but venous and lymphatic are increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tight anterior capsule limits IR or ER

A

ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tight posterior capsule limits IR or ER

A

IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Infraspinatus and __ action

A

Teres MINOR!

ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Liver dysfunction ss

A
Jaundice
Dark urine
Clay colored stool
Easy bruising 
Right shoulder pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pancreatic dysfunction - which shoulder

A

Left shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hinged knee brace- commonly used with

A

MCL or LCL injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Thrust unloader brace is used for what

A

OA to unload the medial femoral and tibial condyles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Infrapatellar strap is used for

A

Patellar tendonitis in absence of patellar tracking problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Resistance training programs - frequency
2 to 3 days between session to allow for recovery | 3 days/wk
26
Running phase most likely to aggravate hamstring injury (which part of gait)
Deceleration (terminal swing) | Cx eccentrically
27
Anterior tilting of the scapula is caused by tightness of what muscle
Pec minor!
28
Exertional compartment syndrome - s/s
Subjective = leg pain Dec sensation after exertion Paresthesias
29
Stress fx - important to assess what
Vibration and percussion testing
30
Stress fx = s/s
Insidious onset of pain that correlates with change in equip or training Localized bony tenderness Palpable periosteal thickening Pain at fx site with percussion or vibration at distance from fx
31
Test for upper abdominal strength
Pt supine - if hip flexors are short and prevent post tilt - add a towel under knees to passively flex hips enough for back to be flat Arm position is clasped behind head for highest grade DO NOT hold feet to stabilize (would allow hip flexors to help) Have pt do slow trunk curl If can't with arms clasped behind head, crossed chest is next, and then reaching forward
32
GERD - what sleeping position is recommended for nocturnal reflux
Sleep on left side with pillow to maintain this position Lower esophagus bends to the left so reflux can be minimized Can also use pillows to elevate head
33
Supine with hips and knees flexed to 90 | Deep palpation in RLQ produces pain - what do you think
Iliopsoas mm dysfunction is possible
34
Superficial partial thickness burn characteristics
Wt with shiny weeping surface Mottled red in color Blisters
35
Creep =
Permanent deformation of tissue through application of a low magnitude load over a long period of time Dynamic splint will allow this
36
Postural draininage - sitting leaned back on pillow at a 30 deg angle
Apical segments of upper lobes
37
Postural drainage - supine with pillow under knees
Anterior segment of upper lobes
38
Postural drainage - prone over pillows with feet elevated 20 inches
Bilateral posterior lungs
39
Postural draininage - head down on the right side
Left lingular segment
40
Pt with brainstem infarct resulting in left lateral meduallary syndrome =
Loss of pain and temp in R side of body
41
Corticospinal fibers that supply motor activity are located where
Anteromedial aspect of the entire brainstem
42
CN signs on one side with other deficits (sensory or motor) in body is clear sign of ___ dysfunction
Brainstem
43
Strengthen glut med with
Abduction Extension ER
44
Pupillary reflex - which CN
Oculomotor
45
Trochlear (4) would lead to deficits in looking where
Inferomedially | LR6SO4
46
S/S of UTI in someone with SCI
Spasticity inc Fever Can refer pain to shoulder
47
Fibroma and Chondroma
Benign of CT
48
Fibrosarcoma and Chondrosarcoma
Malignant of CT
49
Papilloma and Adenoma
Benign of epithelial tissue
50
Adenocarcinoma and Basal cell carcinoma
Malignant of epithelial tissue
51
GMFM - validated for
Sensitivity to change in those with CP ages 5 months to 16 yrs
52
Manual lymph drainage and pregnancy
Contraindicated during first months but can be beneficial later to manage edema
53
Manual lymph drainage and acute DVT
CONTRAINDICATED!
54
Actinomycosis = what is it and s/s
Fungal infection | Chest pain, dyspnea, fatigue, fever
55
Osteomalacia = s/s
Painful mm weakness, bone pain and tenderness
56
Alkaline phosphatase is an __
enzyme produced by bone cells
57
Active osteoclasts leads to
elevated alkaline phosphatase
58
Septic arthritis s/s
``` Rapid onset (hrs or days) Monoarthritis with a joint that is swollen, red, tender and warm with limited ROM due to pain ```
59
Inc alkaline phsophatase with local edema, heat, and erythema is indicative of
Heterotopic ossification | ectopic bone formation
60
Head lag with pull to sit test - normal until when
Normal from birth to 3 months
61
Cheyne stokes breathing =
breathing that waxes and wanes cyclically so that periods of deep breathing alternate with periods of apnea
62
Subscap =
IR
63
Supraspinatus Infraspinatus Teres Minor
ER
64
Teres major
IR
65
Cervical hyperextension injury that caused bleeding into central gray matter of lower cervical spinal cord =
Central cord syndrome!
66
Central cord injury - LEs involved?
LEs are often spared | UEs are often affected more
67
Central cord injury - functional level
77% can ambulate 42% will attain hand function Normally some distal arm weakness
68
A sensory nerve conduction test measures what
Distal component of a peripheral nerve | Does NOE detect lesions proximal to DRG
69
EMG changes with only sensory root injury
NONE!
70
Initial exercise for obese indivudals - what is recommended
40-60% max HR Eventually progress to higher intensitiies of 50-75% Freq 5-7 days/wk Duration of 45-60 min
71
Osgood Schlatter disease is common in who
skeletally immature individuals | Pain is over the tibial tubercle
72
Bipartite patella is what
Common in childhood Often bilateraly Manifest in p and tenderness at distal pole of patella
73
Infrapatellar tendonitis is associated with what
Eccentric overloading during deceleration activities and repeated jumping and landing
74
Stress fracture of the patella would present as what
discomfort and point tenderness at the patella and pt would not be able to extend the knee
75
Ankylosing spondylitis = lung values
Decreased TLC, VC, and inspiratory muscle function | THey have chest wall rigidity - incentive spirometry is good
76
Symptoms of reiter syndrome
Urethritis Conjunctivits Arthiritis
77
Mob to increase subtalar inversion
Moving the calcaneus laterally
78
Mob to increase subtalar eversion
Medial glide of the calcaneus
79
Upper trunk of brachial plexus
C5 and C6
80
Middle trunk of brachial plexus
C7
81
Inferior trunk of brachial plexus
C8 and T1
82
Lateral epidcodylitis - which mm
ECRB
83
A pt is at moderate risk for increased morbidity and mortality if functional capacity is less than ___ METs 3 or more wks after clinical event
Lower than 5-6 METs puts them at risk
84
Anterior glide of the tibia on the femur is to increase
knee extension
85
Knee extension mob would help what phase of gait
Heel off | We need 0 deg of knee ext for normal function
86
Knee angle in foot flat phase (loading response)
15 deg
87
Knee angle in toe off phase of gait
40 deg
88
Knee achieves how many deg of flex during swing phase
25 deg
89
Prostate gland provides mechanical support to what
Urethra! Between the bladder neck and the penis
90
Prostatectomy can lead to urinary incontinence for up to 6 wks - why
Urethra loses support from prostate gland
91
Deep partial thickness burn - appears how
Mixed red or waxy white color | Surface is wet from BROKEN blisters and marked edema is hallmark sign
92
Superficial partial thickness burn -a ppears
INTACT blisters | Might be pink, red, or mottled red
93
Full thicknes burn is characterized by what
Hard, parchment like eschar covering the area | Color can be white, charred, tan, mahogany, balck, or red
94
Eschar is associated with
Desiccation (extreme drying) | Using foam will NOT prevent eschar formation and might promote further desiccation
95
Foam dressing and desiccation
Foam dressings are likely to cause desiccation
96
Underlying vascular (arterial or venous) disease s/s
Dry scaly skin Hair loss Color changes
97
Shiny skin = arterial or venous
Arterial
98
What mm is spared with steroid induced myopathy
Distal until late stages Trunk is also not until late progression Often first reports are diff with climbing stairs
99
Pulse duration - comfort
Longer pulse duration when larger mm being stimulated is more comfortable
100
Midstance requires what ankle motion
3 deg of DF
101
If both UE off limits for BP then what
Thigh is appropriate - popliteal artery
102
Complete decongestive therapy consists of what
Restoration of the skin with follow up skin care Manual lymph drainage Compression therapy Decongestive exercise therpay
103
Heat, swelling, erythema and tenderness at fracture site can be a sign of what
nonunion fracture