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MLS Classes > BF U2 > Flashcards

BF U2 Flashcards

1
Q

pleural cavity

A

lungs

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2
Q

pericardial cavity

A

heart

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3
Q

peritoneal cavity

A

abdominal organs

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4
Q

serous fluid

A

fluids that are an
ultrafiltrate of plasma

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5
Q

fluid formation is controlled by what 4 factors?

A

permeability in the parietal membrane
hydrostatic pressure
oncotic pressure in plasma proteins
absorption in the lymphatic system

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6
Q

effusion

A

accumulation of fluid in a cavity and indicates an abnormal or pathologic process

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7
Q

paracentesis

A

the percutaneous puncture of a body cavity for the
aspiration of fluid

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8
Q

thoracentesis

A

puncture of the chest wall into the pleural cavity to collect
pleural fluid

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9
Q

pericardiocentesis

A

puncture of the pericardial cavity to collect pericardial
fluid

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10
Q

peritoneocentesis

A

puncture of the peritoneal cavity to collect peritoneal
fluid/ascitic fluid

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11
Q

ascites

A

effusion specifically in the peritoneal cavity

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12
Q

transudates and exudates are classified as what?

A

pleural and peritoneal effusions

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13
Q

what causes transudates?

A

increased hydrostatic pressure and decreased oncotic pressure

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14
Q

what diseases are transudates seen in?

A

CHF, hepatic cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome

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15
Q

what are some significant characteristics of transudates?

A

looks clear, pale yellow, and no spontaneous clots, <1000 WBCs/ul

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16
Q

what causes exudates?

A

increased capillary permeability and decrease lymphatic absorption

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17
Q

what diseases are exudates seen in?

A

seen in infections, neoplasms, systemic disorders, trauma, and inflammatory conditions

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18
Q

what are some significant characteristics of exudates?

A

looks yellow/green/red/pink, cloudy, and has spontaneous clots, >1000 WBCs/ul

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19
Q

chyle

A

emulsion of lymph and chylomicrons

has a milky appearance

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20
Q

chylous effusion

A

obstruction of or damage to the lymphatic system

has elevated triglyceride levels with present chylomicrons

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21
Q

pseudochylous effusion

A

has high cholesterol content with a similar appearance to cellular breakdown

has low triglyceride levels with NO chylomicrons

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22
Q

traumatic tap

A

blood decreases during collection with small clot formation

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23
Q

hemorrhagic effusion

A

homogenously distributed blood with no clotting

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24
Q

which WBC is predominant in exudates? in effusions caused by TB, neoplasms, and systemic diseases?

A

neutrophils, lymphocytes

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25
Q

what cells are seen in body fluid differentials?

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, lymphocytes, monocytes
small amounts of macrophages, mesothelial cells, plasma cells, and malignant cells

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26
Q

which cells indicate that there is a disease?

A

plasma cells and malignant cells

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27
Q

what are the TP ratio and LD ratio for transudates?

A

<0.5 and <0.6

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28
Q

what are the TP ratio and LD ratio for exudates?

A

0.5> and 0.6>

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29
Q

what level of glucose demonstrates an exudative process?

A

serous fluid of <60 mg/dl and serum fluid of >30 mg/dl

*low glucose levels are significant

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30
Q

what is the triglyceride fluid level that indicates chylous effusion?

A

110 mg/dl >

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31
Q

what is the triglyceride fluid level that rules out chylous effusion?

A

< 50 mg/dl

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32
Q

pseudochylous effusion has the presence of what?

A

cholesterol crystals

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33
Q

what is the fluid-to-serum ratio that indicates pseudochylous effusion?

A

cholesterol ratio 1.0>

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34
Q

parapneumonic effusions

A

exudates caused by pneumonia or lung abscess

has abnormally low pH of pleural fluid

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35
Q

what does a pH of <7.3 indicate?

A

placement of drainage tubes is necessary for resolution of the effusion

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36
Q

what does a pH of 7.3> indicate?

A

effusion will resolve after antibiotic treatment alone

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37
Q

synovial fluid

A

present in areas of the skeleton where friction could develop, such as the joints, bursae, and tendon sheaths

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38
Q

synoviocytes

A

surface of the synovial membrane surrounding the joint consists of numerous microvilli with a layer, 1-3 cells deep of synovial cells

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39
Q

what are the 4 joint disorders?

A

noninflammatory, inflammatory, septic, and hemorrhagic

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40
Q

group I noninflammatory

A

volume: 3.5ml >
color: yellow
WBCs: < 3000
associated disease: osteoarthritis

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41
Q

group II inflammatory

A

volume: 3.5ml >
color: yellow-white
WBCs: 2000 - 100000
associated disease: crystal synovitis - gout and pseudogout

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42
Q

group III septic

A

volume: 3.5ml >
color: yellow-green
WBCs: 10000-100000
associated disease: bacterial infection

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43
Q

group IV hemorrhagic

A

volume: 3.5ml >
color: red-brown
WBCs: 5000 >
associated disease: blood disease or tumor trauma

44
Q

arthrocentesis

A

percutaneous aspiration of fluid from a joint using aseptic technique

45
Q

normal volume of synovial fluid in a joint

A

0.1-3.5ml

46
Q

what do all tubes examine?

A

physical features like color, clarity, and viscosity of 1ml

47
Q

what does tube #1 examine? in which tubes?

A

chemicals like glucose, lactate, lipids, protein, and uric acid of 1-3ml

all: red top
glucose specific: gray top

48
Q

what does tube #2 examine? in which tubes?

A

microscopic elements like total cell count, differentials, and crystals of 2-5ml and cytological studies of 5-50ml

all: sodium heparin
total cell, diffs, crystals: liquid EDTA

49
Q

what does tube #3 examine? in which tubes?

A

microbiological studies like cultures of 3-10ml

sterile tube, red top, yellow top, sodium heparin

50
Q

rice bodies

A

white free-floating particles made of collagen, seen commonly in RA

51
Q

ochronotic shards

A

dark pepperlike particles, pieces of pigmented cartilage

52
Q

hyaluronate

A

high concentration of the mucoprotein = high viscosity

53
Q

hyaluronidase

A

depolymerizes hyaluronate, which is present in neutrophils and bacteria

54
Q

what are the normal counts of synovial fluids?

A

RBC = < 2000
WBC = < 200
differentials = 60% mono, 30% lymphs, 10% neutro
no crystals

55
Q

MSU crystals

A

indicates gouty arthritis, looks like a needle with pointy ends, demonstrates a strong negative birefringence

yellow = parallel
blue = perpendicular

56
Q

CPPD crystals

A

indicates pseudogout, looks like a blunt needle and rhomboid, demonstrates a weakly positive birefringence

yellow = perpendicular
blue = parallel

57
Q

birefringence

A

ability of a substance to refract light and split the incident
light into two rays, a fast and a slow ray

58
Q

cholesterol crystals

A

flat, rectangular plates and notched corners with positive birefringence and associated with chronic inflammatory conditions

59
Q

corticosteroid crystals

A

seen after intraarticular injection, looks irregular, jagged, serrated and associated with injection of drug in the joint

60
Q

fasting patients have what glucose P-SF difference?

A

</= 10 mg/dl

61
Q

nonfasting patients have what glucose P-SF difference?

A

10 mg/dl >/=

62
Q

what has a glucose P-SF of </= 20mg/dl?

A

noninflammatory or hemorrhagic conditions

63
Q

what has a glucose P-SF of >20mg/dl?

A

inflammatory conditions

64
Q

what has a glucose P-SF of >40mg/dl?

A

septic conditions

65
Q

what does increased plasma uric acid level with patient symptoms indicate? what presence leads to the diagnosis of the condition?

A

presumptive diagnosis of gout, presence of MSU crystals

66
Q

what organism is the most common cause of septic arthritis?

A

Staph aureus

second most is Streptococcus

67
Q

vaginitis

A

inflammation of the vagina

68
Q

vulvovaginitis

A

inflammation of the vulva and vagina or of the vulvovaginal glands

69
Q

how should vaginal secretions be collected, handled, and stored?

A

collect from a vaginal fornix and pool with a polyester-tipped/Dacron swab with a plastic shaft, transport ASAP after collection, store at room temp and do not refrigerate

cotton tips are toxic to N. gonorrhea
wooden shafts are toxic to C. trachomatis
refrigeration can recover N. gonorrhea and T. vaginalis

70
Q

normal vaginal pH

A

3.8-4.5

pH 4.5> indicates bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis, atrophic vaginitis

71
Q

which bacteria is predominant in a healthy vagina? what do they make?

A

lactobacilli (makes up 50-90%), they create lactic acid and H2O2

large, nonmotile, GPR
H2O2 maintains balance and prevents proliferation of other bacteria

72
Q

which blood cell is normal to see? which is not usually seen and when would they be seen?

A

WBCs are normally seen, RBCs are not, but only during menstruation

73
Q

what other organism is normally seen? which organism in increased presence is abnormally seen? what does it indicate?

A

yeast, hyphae or pseudohyphae, indicates candidiasis/yeast infection

74
Q

what is the purpose of the KOH test? the amine test?

A

KOH identifies fungal elements, amine will release a fishy odor which indicates bacterial vaginosis

75
Q

which cell indicates bacterial vaginosis? what do they look like? how much cell surface should it cover?

A

clue cells, epithelial cells with bearded edges, 75%

76
Q

what are parabasal cells? basal cells?

A

reside below the surface of the vaginal mucosa, indicates atrophic vaginitis and desquamative inflammatory vaginitis

derived from the basal layer of the vaginal
epithelium which indicates inflammatory vaginitis

77
Q

trichomonads

A

flagellated pear shaped protozoans that infect and cause inflammation of the vaginal epithelium, optimal growth at pH of 6.0

identified by flitting or jerking motion

78
Q

bacterial vaginosis

A

most common cause of vaginal infection, important indicator are clue cells which causes complications in pregnant women

significant bacteria: G. vaginalis and Mobiluncus

amine pos
KOH neg

79
Q

candidiasis

A

second most common cause of vaginal infection, seen because of contraceptive use, uncontrolled DM, pregnancy, HIV

significant bacteria: C. albicans

amine neg
KOH pos (budding yeast and pseudohyphae)

80
Q

trichomoniasis

A

most common parasitic gynecologic infection, known as an STD in both women and men, symptoms are asymptomatic with frothy, malodorous yellow-green discharge

amine pos

81
Q

atrophic vaginitis

A

reduced estrogen production with thinning of vaginal epithelium with decrease glycogen production and decreased lactobacilli

amine neg
KOH neg

82
Q

purpose of fFN test? PAMG-1 test?

A

fFN aids in IDing women at risk for preterm delivery, lateral flow of >50 ng/ml (before 37 weeks of gestation)

PAMG-1 deals with cervicovaginal secretions consistent with premature rupture of the membranes (PROM), lateral flow of 5 ng/ml

83
Q

amniotic fluid

A

liquid medium that bathes a fetus throughout gestation

84
Q

amnion

A

membrane composed of a single layer of cuboidal epithelial cells, surrounds the fetus, filled with amniotic fluid

85
Q

purpose of amniotic fluid? what are some indications for amniocentesis?

A

enable antenatal diagnosis of genetic and congenital disorders
assess fetal pulmonary maturity
estimate and monitor the degree of fetal anemia caused by isoimmunization or infection

fetal lung maturity and fetal anemia

86
Q

polyhydramnios

A

abnormally increased amounts of amniotic fluid, 1200 mL>

indicates congenital fetal malformations

87
Q

oligohydramnios

A

abnormally decreased amounts of amniotic fluid, <800 mL

indicates congenital malformation and conditions like PROM

88
Q

indications for amniocentesis

A

mother older than 35 years, previous child with chromosomal abnormality, parent carrier of a metabolic disorder, assessed fetal stress or fetal lung maturity

89
Q

RDS

A

most common cause of death in the newborn, a primary concern when a preterm delivery is imminent

90
Q

which presences indicate urine?

A

no glucose, no protein, high urea, high creatinine

91
Q

which presences indicate amniotic fluid?

A

glucose, significant amount of protein, small urea, creatinine levels similar to plasma

92
Q

what does each color of urine indicate?

A

pale yellow = normal
yellow/amber = presence of bilirubin
green = presence of meconium (baby’s first poo)

93
Q

surfactants

A

prevent alveoli from collapsing during expiration and reduced amount of pressure needed to reopen them during inspiration

94
Q

what does a mature result indicate?

A

strong absence of RDS

95
Q

lamellar bodies

A

alveolar epithelial cells of the lungs produce and secrete
phospholipids (90%) and proteins (10%)

96
Q

L/S ratio

what are lecithin and sphingomyelin?

A

phospholipids required to decrease the surface tension within the alveoli; *assesses the fetal’s lung maturity

L: major pulmonary surfactant
S: phospholipid found in numerous cell membranes

97
Q

which value of the L/S ratio indicates immaturity? maturity? what are the limitations?

A

immature = < 2.0
mature = 2.0 >

blood = false decrease of maturity, false increase of immaturity
meconium = unreliable results

98
Q

phosphatidylglycerol (PG)

A

phospholipid that enhances the spread of surfactants across the alveolar surface

99
Q

what do the PG results mean?

A

negative = immature
low and high positive = mature

100
Q

lamellar body counts

A

rapidly and reliably obtained using the PLT channel of an automated hematology cell counter

101
Q

which value of the LBC indicates immaturity? maturity? what are the limitations?

A

immature = < 15000
mature = 50000

meconium and mucus = false increase

102
Q

foam stability index (FSI), what value results in fetal lung maturity?

A

“shake test,” based on physical characteristics that surfactants impart to amniotic fluid

0.47 >/=

103
Q

change of A 450

A

increased RBC destruction occurs and unconjugated bilirubin enters the amniotic fluid

104
Q

normal amniotic fluid

A

spectral curve is essentially a straight line that gradually
decreases in absorbance between 365 and 550 nm

105
Q

amniotic fluid with bilirubin present

A

detects the amount of bilirubin

increased levels of bilirubin = increased absorbance of the spectral curve at 450 nm

106
Q

liley chart and the 3 zones

A

represent the severity of hemolytic disease the fetus is experiencing in utero; used for gestational age of > 27 weeks

zone I = normal, minimally affected fetus
zone II = moderate hemolysis
zone III = severe hemolysis, will die without intervention

107
Q

queenan chart and the 4 zones

A

used for gestational age of 14-40 weeks

lowest zone = unaffected or mildly affected fetus
indeterminate and affected zones = increasing severity of fetal anemia
uppermost zone = severe hemolytic disease, high risk for mortality

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