Bio 12 Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following best summarizes the key difference between classical and instrumental conditioning?

A) In classical conditioning, the learner’s behavior directly influences the outcome, while in instrumental conditioning, the outcome is independent of the learner’s behavior.
B) In classical conditioning, a conditioned stimulus (CS) and unconditioned stimulus (UCS) occur in close temporal proximity, while in instrumental conditioning, reinforcement or punishment follows a response.
C) Classical conditioning involves voluntary responses, while instrumental conditioning involves involuntary responses.
D) In classical conditioning, learning occurs only with external reinforcement, while instrumental conditioning relies on natural reinforcement.

A

Answer: B
Explanation: The primary difference is that in classical conditioning, a conditioned stimulus (CS) and unconditioned stimulus (UCS) are paired together, while in instrumental conditioning, a behavior is followed by reinforcement or punishment, which influences future behavior.

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2
Q

According to Lashley’s principles, which of the following best describes his view on the nervous system’s role in learning?

A) Equipotentiality states that only specific brain regions are responsible for complex behaviors.
B) Mass action suggests that the cortex is specialized for different types of learning and memory.
C) Equipotentiality means that any part of the cortex can substitute for another in complex behaviors like learning.
D) Mass action refers to the idea that more brain activity improves memory but does not correlate with the complexity of the behavior.

A

Answer: C
Explanation: Lashley’s principles of equipotentiality and mass action state that the cortex works as a whole and that any part of the cortex can contribute to learning, with more cortex being better for complex behaviors.

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3
Q

What was the major flaw in Lashley’s assumption about the location of the engram (memory trace)?

A) He assumed the cerebellum was the primary site of learning.
B) He believed that only specific cortical areas contribute to learning.
C) He assumed the cerebral cortex was the best or only place to search for the engram.
D) He did not account for the role of the hippocampus in learning.

A

Answer: C
Explanation: Lashley assumed that the engram was located in the cerebral cortex, a viewpoint later revised when researchers found that the engram could exist in other brain regions.

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4
Q

What was the conclusion of Thompson and colleagues regarding the engram in the study of classical conditioning in rabbits?

A) Learning occurs in the cerebral cortex, not the cerebellum.
B) The lateral interpositus nucleus (LIP) of the cerebellum is essential for learning.
C) Learning does not depend on any specific brain area but is instead distributed across the brain.
D) The red nucleus plays a critical role in the storage of learned responses.

A

Answer: B
Explanation: Thompson’s research demonstrated that the lateral interpositus nucleus (LIP) in the cerebellum is essential for learning the conditioned response, while areas after the LIP (like the red nucleus) are not required for learning.

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5
Q

Which of the following statements best reflects Lashley’s mass action principle?

A) Brain activity is more effective for learning when a specific region is activated.
B) More cortex activity is better for learning complex behaviors.
C) Learning occurs only in regions that are directly involved in the sensory or motor processes.
D) Only cortical areas associated with memory are important for learning.

A

Answer: B
Explanation: Lashley’s mass action principle suggests that the cortex works as a whole, and the more cortex involved in a behavior, the better the learning outcomes.

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6
Q

What does Thompson’s experiment with the red nucleus imply about the role of the red nucleus in classical conditioning?

A) The red nucleus is critical for storing the learned response but not for initiating it.
B) Suppressing the red nucleus prevented learning entirely, indicating its essential role in memory formation.
C) The red nucleus is important for the actual conditioned response, but not for the learning process.
D) Learning can occur without the red nucleus, as long as other brain regions are intact.

A

Answer: D
Explanation: Thompson’s research showed that while suppressing the red nucleus temporarily blocked the conditioned response, it did not prevent learning itself, suggesting the red nucleus is not essential for learning but is involved in the expression of the learned response.

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7
Q

Which of the following best describes the conclusion of Thompson’s study regarding learning in the cerebellum?

A) Learning depends on the integrity of the entire cerebellum.
B) The cerebellum is primarily involved in the motor aspects of learning but not in storing the memory.
C) The cerebellum is specialized for processing sensory stimuli but not for forming memories.
D) Learning in the cerebellum occurs specifically within the lateral interpositus nucleus (LIP).

A

Answer: D
Explanation: Thompson’s studies revealed that the lateral interpositus nucleus (LIP) of the cerebellum plays a critical role in learning, particularly in the context of classical conditioning.

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8
Q

Which of the following is an example of a type of learning that does not fit neatly into either classical or instrumental conditioning?

A) A dog salivating at the sound of a bell due to repeated pairings with food.
B) A rat learning to avoid a specific area of a maze after receiving a shock.
C) A male songbird imitating its species’ song without reinforcement.
D) A pigeon pecking a button to receive food rewards.

A

Answer: C
Explanation: The songbird’s imitation of its species’ song does not involve a reinforcement or punishment and is not an example of classical or instrumental conditioning. This is an example of a specialized form of learning.

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9
Q

Which of the following best describes the process of consolidation in memory?

A) The immediate storage of sensory input before further processing.
B) The temporary storage of information that eventually decays unless rehearsed.
C) The strengthening of memories through synaptic changes that help convert short-term memories into long-term memories.
D) The retrieval of long-term memories through external cues.

A

Answer: C) The strengthening of memories through synaptic changes that help convert short-term memories into long-term memories.
Explanation: Consolidation refers to the process by which short-term memories are strengthened and stabilized into long-term memories through synaptic changes. This process can be influenced by factors like emotional significance and rehearsal.

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10
Q

In the context of Korsakoff’s syndrome, confabulation most often occurs when the patient:

A) Fills in memory gaps with fabricated details, often related to their own life.
B) Immediately forgets new facts or events after they occur.
C) Forgets procedural knowledge, like how to brush their teeth.
D) Experiences hallucinations that lead to false memories of past events

A

Answer: A) Fills in memory gaps with fabricated details, often related to their own life.
Explanation: Patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome often confabulate, meaning they fill in memory gaps with incorrect details, which they believe are true. This is usually about their personal experiences and is not associated with external facts or new knowledge.

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11
Q

According to Donald Hebb’s theory, which of the following is most responsible for the formation of short-term memory?

A) Long-term potentiation in the hippocampus.
B) The reverberating circuit between neurons.
C) The synthesis of new proteins in the brain.
D) The activation of the prefrontal cortex during problem-solving tasks.

A

Answer: B) The reverberating circuit between neurons.
Explanation: Hebb proposed that short-term memory is formed by a reverberating circuit where neurons repeatedly excite one another, creating a loop that holds the information temporarily until it can be consolidated into long-term memory.

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12
Q

Which of the following is true about flashbulb memories?

A) They form quickly only if the event is related to mundane details.
B) They occur for emotionally significant events and involve enhanced recall of details surrounding the event.
C) They are always perfectly accurate, with no alterations over time.
D) They are a form of procedural memory that requires practice to recall.

A

Answer: B) They occur for emotionally significant events and involve enhanced recall of details surrounding the event.
Explanation: Flashbulb memories are vivid and detailed memories of emotionally significant events. They are often remembered more clearly and accurately due to the emotional arousal that accompanies them, though they are not immune to distortion over time.

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13
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of working memory in cognitive tasks?

A) It serves as a temporary storage system for sensory inputs before they are consolidated into long-term memory.
B) It stores information needed for immediate tasks, such as problem-solving or decision-making.
C) It is primarily involved in recalling information from long-term memory during tasks.
D) It is responsible for retaining information only for a few seconds, such as phone numbers.

A

Answer: B) It stores information needed for immediate tasks, such as problem-solving or decision-making.
Explanation: Working memory is responsible for holding and manipulating information actively as you work with it. It is not just temporary storage but plays a critical role in tasks like reasoning, learning, and decision-making.

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14
Q

The hippocampus is particularly crucial for which type of memory?

A) Procedural memory, such as riding a bike.
B) Working memory, such as remembering a phone number temporarily.
C) Declarative memory, particularly episodic memory.
D) Flashbulb memory, especially for trivial events.

A

Answer: C) Declarative memory, particularly episodic memory.
Explanation: The hippocampus plays a key role in forming and recalling declarative memory, especially episodic memory, which includes memories of personal experiences and events. It is not as crucial for procedural or flashbulb memories.

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15
Q

In Alzheimer’s disease, the accumulation of amyloid-β protein leads to:

A) Enhanced synaptic input and increased plasticity.
B) A reduction in synaptic input and decreased neural plasticity.
C) The formation of flashbulb memories.
D) A temporary enhancement in working memory performance.

A

Answer: B) A reduction in synaptic input and decreased neural plasticity.
Explanation: The buildup of amyloid-β protein in Alzheimer’s disease leads to damage to neurons, impeding synaptic communication and plasticity, which results in memory loss and cognitive decline.

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16
Q

In the context of memory loss, which condition is characterized by the inability to form new long-term memories but the retention of learned skills?

A) Korsakoff’s syndrome.
B) Alzheimer’s disease.
C) Retrograde amnesia.
D) Infantile amnesia.

A

Answer: A) Korsakoff’s syndrome.
Explanation: Korsakoff’s syndrome, caused by severe thiamine deficiency, leads to anterograde amnesia (inability to form new memories) but typically does not affect the retention of previously learned procedural skills, such as how to walk or use utensils.

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17
Q

Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for infant amnesia in humans?

A. Lack of cognitive development
B. Rapid formation and replacement of hippocampal neurons
C. Limited sensory experiences during infancy
D. Inability to form sensory memories during early life

A

Answer: B. Rapid formation and replacement of hippocampal neurons
Explanation: Infant amnesia is explained by the rapid formation of new neurons in the hippocampus early in life. This new learning can displace older memories formed in infancy, making them difficult to recall later.

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18
Q

What is a characteristic of infant amnesia that also occurs in rats?

A. Rats develop advanced reasoning abilities early in life.
B. Memories from infancy can be restored with reminders.
C. Rats have complete memory loss of their early experiences.
D. Rats are unable to form long-term memories during infanc

A

Answer: B. Memories from infancy can be restored with reminders.
Explanation: Just like humans, rats can sometimes have their early memories restored by a reminder (e.g., a shock or returning to the training site), indicating that early memories aren’t completely lost but difficult to recall.

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19
Q

What was the major consequence of the removal of H.M.’s hippocampus?

A. He could no longer form short-term memories.
B. He suffered both anterograde and retrograde amnesia.
C. He had difficulty recognizing his reflection in mirrors.
D. His working memory was severely impaired.

A

Answer: B. He suffered both anterograde and retrograde amnesia.
Explanation: After the removal of his hippocampus, H.M. was unable to form new long-term memories (anterograde amnesia) and had significant memory loss for events before the surgery (retrograde amnesia).

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20
Q

Which type of memory remained intact for H.M. after his surgery?

A. Long-term semantic memory
B. Short-term (working) memory
C. Autobiographical memory
D. Episodic memory

A

Answer: B. Short-term (working) memory
Explanation: Despite severe memory impairment, H.M. was able to maintain short-term or working memory as long as he was not distracted. He could recall simple information for short periods, such as a number, without significant issues.

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21
Q

What does the phenomenon of “semantic memory formation” in H.M. suggest?

A. H.M. could learn new motor skills but not factual information.
B. H.M. could not form any new memories, even weak ones.
C. H.M. could form weak new semantic memories despite his amnesia.
D. H.M. could only recall information from the period before his surgery

A

Answer: C. H.M. could form weak new semantic memories despite his amnesia.
Explanation: H.M. was able to form weak semantic memories for factual information, such as remembering the names of famous people who emerged after his surgery, despite his severe amnesia.

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22
Q

Which of the following best describes H.M.’s inability to remember his favorite uncle’s death?

A. A failure of procedural memory
B. Impaired episodic memory
C. Deficit in semantic memory
D. A loss of working memory

A

Answer: B. Impaired episodic memory
Explanation: H.M.’s inability to remember his favorite uncle’s death is a classic example of impaired episodic memory (memory for personal events and experiences), a key deficit after hippocampal damage.

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23
Q

What is the role of the hippocampus in memory formation?

A. It stores all types of memories permanently.
B. It is involved in forming and recalling long-term memories, particularly episodic memories.
C. It is only responsible for sensory memory.
D. It helps with short-term memory retention during distractions.

A

Answer: B. It is involved in forming and recalling long-term memories, particularly episodic memories.
Explanation: The hippocampus is crucial for the formation and recall of long-term memories, especially episodic memories (personal experiences). Damage to the hippocampus, like in H.M., disrupts this process.

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24
Q

Why did H.M. answer “27” and “1953” when asked about his age and the date years after his surgery?

A. His brain had no concept of time.
B. His memory remained locked in the time of his surgery.
C. He forgot the details of his surgery completely.
D. He had no recollection of the events before his surgery.

A

Answer: B. His memory remained locked in the time of his surgery.
Explanation: H.M.’s memory was effectively frozen at the time of his surgery, and he could not remember events or changes that happened after that time, leading him to consistently believe he was 27 years old and that it was 1953.

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25
How did H.M. demonstrate the possibility of forming new memories despite his severe amnesia? A. By completing a jigsaw puzzle with no repetition B. By recalling recent episodes of the news C. By learning new labels for shapes after multiple trials D. By recalling complex details from his childhood
Answer: C. By learning new labels for shapes after multiple trials Explanation: H.M. demonstrated the ability to form new semantic memories when he repeatedly labeled shapes, even though the labels were initially vague and imprecise. Over time, he was able to recall and use these labels consistently.
26
Which of the following is a key characteristic of episodic memory impairments observed in patients like H.M. and K.C.? A) Impaired semantic memory B) Ability to recall past personal events C) Impaired ability to imagine future events D) Normal motor skill acquisition
Answer: C) Impaired ability to imagine future events Explanation: Both H.M. and K.C. demonstrated severe impairment in recalling past personal events (episodic memory) and also showed difficulty in imagining future events, suggesting a strong connection between episodic memory and future thinking.
27
What difference between explicit and implicit memory is observed in patients with amnesia? A) Implicit memory is more affected than explicit memory B) Both types of memory are equally impaired C) Implicit memory is better preserved than explicit memory D) Explicit memory shows no impairment in amnesia
Answer: C) Implicit memory is better preserved than explicit memory Explanation: Patients with amnesia, such as H.M., show better implicit memory (e.g., familiarity with individuals or skills) compared to explicit memory (e.g., recalling specific events or facts). Implicit memory influences behavior even when the individual is not aware of it.
28
In patients like H.M. and K.C., which type of memory remains largely intact despite severe episodic memory impairments? A) Semantic memory B) Working memory C) Procedural memory D) Implicit memory
Answer: C) Procedural memory Explanation: Procedural memory, which involves the development of motor skills and habits, remains largely intact in patients with amnesia. For example, H.M. was able to learn tasks like reading words written backward, despite having no memory of learning them.
29
Which brain structure is most associated with the ability to form episodic memories, according to Larry Squire’s hypothesis? A) Cerebral cortex B) Hippocampus C) Amygdala D) Prefrontal cortex
Answer: B) Hippocampus Explanation: Larry Squire proposed that the hippocampus is critical for declarative memory, especially episodic memory. Damage to the hippocampus impairs the ability to recall specific events from one's past, as seen in patients like H.M. and K.C.
30
How does the hippocampus contribute to memory retrieval, based on research with episodic memories? A) It stores long-term memories independently of the cortex B) It synthesizes contextual details for memory recall C) It is the primary location for semantic memory D) It exclusively processes spatial memory without the cortex’s involvement
Answer: B) It synthesizes contextual details for memory recall Explanation: The hippocampus plays a critical role in reconstructing the context of episodic memories by integrating various sensory and contextual information. This process is essential for accurate memory retrieval.
31
What is the primary function of place cells in the hippocampus as discovered by O'Keefe and colleagues? A) They are responsible for processing emotional responses to memories B) They help encode specific facts and general knowledge C) They respond to particular locations in space, aiding spatial memory D) They encode visual images for episodic memory
Answer: C) They respond to particular locations in space, aiding spatial memory Explanation: Place cells in the hippocampus are specialized neurons that respond to specific spatial locations. These cells are crucial for navigating and remembering locations in space, as evidenced by the research of O'Keefe and colleagues.
32
In the context of spatial memory, what does research with London taxi drivers suggest about the hippocampus? A) It has no role in spatial memory B) It is involved in processing nonspatial information only C) The posterior hippocampus grows in response to extensive spatial navigation experience D) The hippocampus shrinks with experience in spatial tasks
Answer: C) The posterior hippocampus grows in response to extensive spatial navigation experience Explanation: Research with London taxi drivers showed that the posterior hippocampus is larger in individuals who have extensive spatial navigation experience, suggesting that the hippocampus can grow in response to such learning.
33
What is the key difference between the radial maze and the Morris water maze in terms of spatial memory assessment in animals? A) The radial maze assesses working memory, while the Morris water maze does not B) The radial maze tests the animal's ability to remember spatial locations without visual cues C) The Morris water maze involves visual cues to help with spatial navigation D) The radial maze primarily tests procedural memory, while the Morris water maze does not
Answer: B) The radial maze tests the animal's ability to remember spatial locations without visual cues Explanation: The radial maze tests the ability to remember which arms the animal has already explored, relying on spatial memory. In contrast, the Morris water maze involves swimming and relies more on visual cues to find the platform.
34
Which brain area is primarily responsible for learning gradual habits and probabilistic decisions? A) Hippocampus B) Amygdala C) Striatum D) Anterior Temporal Cortex
Answer: C) Striatum Explanation: The striatum, which includes the caudate nucleus and putamen, is crucial for learning gradual habits and probabilistic decisions, as described in the task of predicting the weather based on cues. The hippocampus is more involved in declarative memory.
35
What is the main reason people with Parkinson’s disease struggle with tasks that require gradual, probabilistic learning? A) Impairment in the hippocampus B) Impairment in the striatum C) Damage to the amygdala D) Damage to the anterior temporal cortex
Answer: B) Impairment in the striatum Explanation: Parkinson's disease impairs the function of the striatum, making it difficult for patients to gradually learn habits or make probabilistic decisions, despite having intact hippocampal function for declarative memory.
36
What would be a characteristic of someone with damage to the parietal lobe in terms of episodic memory? A) Inability to remember semantic facts B) Impaired ability to elaborate on memories spontaneously C) Inability to form new declarative memories D) Difficulty recognizing faces
Answer: B) Impaired ability to elaborate on memories spontaneously Explanation: Damage to the parietal lobe impairs the ability to spontaneously elaborate on episodic memories, although the basic memory for events may still be intact.
37
What is the main role of the anterior temporal cortex? A) Storing episodic memories B) Facilitating complex motor tasks C) Storing and processing semantic memory D) Regulating emotional responses
Answer: C) Storing and processing semantic memory Explanation: The anterior temporal cortex is responsible for processing and storing semantic memory, helping to form concepts and integrate information from various brain regions.
38
Which of the following is most likely to occur in patients with hippocampal damage when performing a complex probabilistic learning task? A) Immediate improvement in task performance B) Gradual improvement after many trials C) Random performance with no improvement D) Complete inability to learn the task
Answer: B) Gradual improvement after many trials Explanation: Patients with hippocampal damage do not perform well initially on tasks requiring memory formation, but over time, they may still improve in probabilistic learning through gradual habit formation, relying on the striatum.
39
What was the main flaw in Penfield’s early theory that each neuron stores a specific memory? A) He focused only on motor memories B) The memories evoked were often vague or incorrect C) He believed memories were stored in the cerebellum D) The patients could not recall any memories
Answer: B) The memories evoked were often vague or incorrect Explanation: Penfield’s stimulation studies showed that evoked memories were often not specific and sometimes fabricated or incorrect, challenging the idea that individual neurons store specific, detailed memories.
40
What does the principle "cells that fire together wire together" refer to in learning? A) Neurons that are active together strengthen their connections B) Neurons always fire together during learning C) Learning requires repeated activation of the same neurons D) Only sensory neurons participate in memory formation
Answer: A) Neurons that are active together strengthen their connections Explanation: The phrase, coined by Donald Hebb, suggests that when two neurons are repeatedly activated together, their synaptic connection strengthens, facilitating learning and memory.
41
How does the striatum support the learning of complex motor tasks over time? A) By immediately enabling automatic responses B) By gradually forming habits after repeated practice C) By storing declarative memories of the task D) By enhancing the hippocampus’s function
Answer: B) By gradually forming habits after repeated practice Explanation: The striatum plays a key role in the gradual formation of motor habits after extensive practice, turning conscious, step-by-step actions into automatic behaviors.
42
What is the primary mechanism responsible for habituation in Aplysia? A) A decrease in motor neuron response B) A reduction in sensory neuron responsiveness C) Changes at the synapse between sensory and motor neurons D) Muscle fatigue due to repeated stimulation
Answer: C) Changes at the synapse between sensory and motor neurons Explanation: Habituation in Aplysia occurs due to synaptic changes between the sensory and motor neurons, leading to a reduced response even though the sensory neuron still functions normally.
43
In Aplysia, what triggers sensitization at the synaptic level? A) Continuous stimulation of the motor neurons B) The release of serotonin onto presynaptic terminals of sensory neurons C) Increased potassium ion flux D) Fatigue of the motor neurons
Answer: B) The release of serotonin onto presynaptic terminals of sensory neurons Explanation: Sensitization in Aplysia occurs when strong stimulation releases serotonin onto sensory neurons, which in turn alters potassium channel behavior, allowing neurotransmitter release to last longer, intensifying the withdrawal response.
44
Which of the following properties of long-term potentiation (LTP) in vertebrates allows for a stronger response to simultaneous stimuli from multiple axons? A) Specificity B) Cooperativity C) Associativity D) Retrograde signaling
Answer: B) Cooperativity Explanation: Cooperativity refers to the principle that simultaneous stimulation of multiple axons leads to a stronger potentiation at the synapse compared to repeated stimulation from just one axon.
45
Which molecule is activated by calcium influx through NMDA receptors and plays a crucial role in long-term potentiation (LTP)? A) CREB B) CaMKII C) BDNF D) Nitric Oxide (NO)
Answer: B) CaMKII Explanation: CaMKII (calcium-calmodulin-dependent protein kinase II) is activated by calcium entry through NMDA receptors and initiates a signaling cascade that contributes to synaptic strengthening, a key process in LTP
46
What is the role of nitric oxide (NO) in the presynaptic changes observed in LTP? A) It stimulates the NMDA receptors to increase calcium influx B) It acts as a retrograde messenger, modifying the presynaptic neuron C) It activates AMPA receptors to enhance glutamate response D) It directly inhibits neurotransmitter release from the presynaptic terminal
Answer: B) It acts as a retrograde messenger, modifying the presynaptic neuron Explanation: Nitric oxide (NO) serves as a retrograde messenger in LTP, traveling from the postsynaptic neuron to the presynaptic neuron, causing changes such as decreased threshold for action potentials and increased neurotransmitter release.
47
What is the significance of AMPA receptors in the process of long-term potentiation (LTP)? A) AMPA receptors allow calcium ions to enter the postsynaptic neuron B) AMPA receptors become more responsive to glutamate following LTP C) AMPA receptors block the NMDA receptor's ion channel D) AMPA receptors inhibit the synthesis of CREB
Answer: B) AMPA receptors become more responsive to glutamate following LTP Explanation: During LTP, AMPA receptors become more responsive to glutamate, which strengthens the postsynaptic response, playing a crucial role in synaptic plasticity and memory formation
48
Which neurotransmitter is most commonly involved in the induction of long-term potentiation (LTP) in glutamatergic synapses? A) Serotonin B) Glutamate C) GABA D) Acetylcholine
Answer: B) Glutamate Explanation: Glutamate is the primary neurotransmitter involved in LTP at glutamatergic synapses. It activates both AMPA and NMDA receptors, triggering the molecular cascades that lead to synaptic strengthening
49
The process of long-term depression (LTD) is best described as: A) A prolonged decrease in the synaptic response due to reduced synaptic activity B) An increase in synaptic responsiveness following intense stimulation C) A brief reduction in the response to a stimulus D) The stabilization of the synaptic response to a stimulus
Answer: A) A prolonged decrease in the synaptic response due to reduced synaptic activity Explanation: LTD refers to a decrease in synaptic strength following less active or weaker stimulation of the synapse, which contrasts with the strengthening process seen in LTP.
50
Which of the following is a key feature of Hebbian synapses, as demonstrated in long-term potentiation (LTP)? A) Only synapses that were weakly activated will become strengthened B) Weak inputs are paired with strong inputs to enhance synaptic response C) Synaptic strength decreases when input from multiple axons is synchronized D) Synaptic activity is unrelated to changes in neuron wiring
Answer: B) Weak inputs are paired with strong inputs to enhance synaptic response Explanation: The Hebbian principle states that synapses strengthen when a weak input is paired with a strong input, which is a hallmark of associative learning mechanisms like LTP.
51
In Aplysia, what accounts for the long-term effects of sensitization? A) Synthesis of new proteins in sensory neurons B) Decreased neurotransmitter release from motor neurons C) Structural changes in the gill motor neurons D) Overactivation of AMPA receptors in the sensory neurons
Answer: A) Synthesis of new proteins in sensory neurons Explanation: In Aplysia, long-term sensitization involves the synthesis of new proteins in sensory neurons, which enables a prolonged increase in synaptic strength and response to mild stimuli.
52
Which of the following substances is most likely to improve memory for below-average students, according to research? A) Ginkgo biloba B) Bacopa monnieri C) Methylphenidate (Ritalin) D) Transcranial direct current stimulation
Correct Answer: C) Methylphenidate (Ritalin) Explanation: Research suggests that stimulant drugs like methylphenidate slightly improve memory and cognition in average or below-average students but provide little benefit to top students (Ilieva, Hook, & Farah, 2015).
53
Which factor has been shown to improve memory in behavioral research? A) Transcranial direct current stimulation B) Increased brain size C) Adequate sleep D) Ginkgo biloba supplements
Correct Answer: C) Adequate sleep Explanation: Behavioral methods such as adequate sleep, good nutrition, physical exercise, and stress management have been found to improve memory (Chapman et al., 2013; Smith & Farah, 2011).
54
Which factor is most likely to explain why men and women have equal IQ scores despite men having larger brains? A) Men have more neurons per unit of brain mass B) Women's brains have more and deeper sulci C) Men have more white matter than women D) Men’s brains are more efficient due to larger size
Correct Answer: B) Women's brains have more and deeper sulci Explanation: Women’s brains tend to have more and deeper sulci, particularly in the frontal and parietal regions, which leads to similar surface area and neuron count, balancing the size differences (Allen et al., 2003).
55
Which brain structure is most strongly associated with intelligence according to recent studies? A) Medulla oblongata B) Cerebellum C) Frontal cortex D) Hippocampus
Correct Answer: C) Frontal cortex Explanation: Research suggests that intelligence is particularly correlated with the surface area of the frontal and parietal cortex, which is dense with neurons and plays a significant role in cognitive functions (Basten et al., 2015).
56
What is a major drawback of using transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS) to enhance memory? A) It has no effect on memory B) It can impair certain types of memory while improving others C) It is not approved for use in humans D) It requires an invasive surgical procedure
Correct Answer: B) It can impair certain types of memory while improving others Explanation: tDCS has shown promise in improving memory and cognition, but it sometimes improves performance on one task while impairing performance on another (Maslen et al., 2014).
57
What is the likely consequence of severing the corpus callosum in patients with epilepsy? A) It completely prevents seizures by isolating the brain's hemispheres B) It allows the hemispheres to communicate more effectively, reducing seizures C) It reduces the frequency of seizures by preventing abnormal activity from crossing between hemispheres D) It causes a complete loss of motor coordination due to lack of interhemispheric communication
Explanation: The correct answer is C) It reduces the frequency of seizures by preventing abnormal activity from crossing between hemispheres. Severing the corpus callosum in patients with epilepsy prevents the abnormal neural activity that causes seizures from traveling from one hemisphere to the other, thus reducing the frequency of seizures. However, it does not completely prevent seizures, nor does it improve interhemispheric communication (which could be impaired), and motor coordination is generally preserved.
58
What did Norman Geschwind and Walter Levitsky (1968) discover about the planum temporale in human brains? a) It is larger in the right hemisphere for 65% of people. b) It is smaller in the left hemisphere in 12 of 14 brains examined. c) It is larger in the left hemisphere for 65% of people. d) It is symmetrical in both hemispheres in most people.
Answer: c) It is larger in the left hemisphere for 65% of people. Explanation: Geschwind and Levitsky found that the planum temporale, a section of the temporal cortex, is larger in the left hemisphere for 65% of people.
59
What is the primary function of the corpus callosum? a) To connect the spinal cord to the brain. b) To prevent sensory information from reaching the opposite hemisphere. c) To allow communication between the two hemispheres of the brain. d) To regulate motor activity across both hemispheres.
Answer: c) To allow communication between the two hemispheres of the brain. Explanation: The corpus callosum is a bundle of neural fibers that allows communication between the left and right hemispheres of the brain.
60
In the visual system, how does the information from each eye connect to the brain? a) The right eye connects only to the left hemisphere. b) Each hemisphere processes information from both eyes. c) Light from the left visual field strikes the right retina and is processed by the right hemisphere. d) The left visual field is processed by the right hemisphere, and the right visual field is processed by the left hemisphere.
Answer: d) The left visual field is processed by the right hemisphere, and the right visual field is processed by the left hemisphere. Explanation: Each hemisphere processes information from the opposite visual field, with each eye sending data to both hemispheres.
61
Which of the following is true about the auditory system's hemispheric processing? a) Each ear sends information to only one hemisphere. b) Both hemispheres receive information from both ears, but each hemisphere primarily processes information from the opposite ear. c) The right hemisphere processes all auditory information from both ears. d) The left hemisphere processes all auditory information from both ears.
Answer: b) Both hemispheres receive information from both ears, but each hemisphere primarily processes information from the opposite ear. Explanation: The auditory system processes information from both ears in both hemispheres, but each hemisphere is more focused on the ear on the opposite side.
62
How does severing the corpus callosum impact language processing in split-brain patients? a) The right hemisphere takes over language processing. b) Both hemispheres process language simultaneously. c) The left hemisphere controls language processing, but the right hemisphere can sometimes perform limited speech functions. d) The left hemisphere loses all language capabilities.
Answer: c) The left hemisphere controls language processing, but the right hemisphere can sometimes perform limited speech functions. Explanation: In most cases, the left hemisphere controls language processing, but a small amount of information can sometimes be transferred through smaller commissures, allowing limited speech from the right hemisphere in split-brain patients.
63
What is a notable behavior in young children due to the underdevelopment of the corpus callosum? a) Difficulty in recognizing faces. b) Struggles with coordinating two hands simultaneously on unfamiliar tasks. c) Inability to speak. d) A reduced range of vision
Answer: b) Struggles with coordinating two hands simultaneously on unfamiliar tasks. Explanation: Before the corpus callosum matures fully, children (especially around 3 years old) have difficulty coordinating tasks that require both hands simultaneously.