Bio 2 Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

What was the primary evidence that led Sherrington to infer the existence of a synapse?
A. The speed of conduction through a reflex arc matched that of a single axon.
B. Reflex responses ceased when the spinal cord was disconnected from the brain.
C. Reflex arcs exhibited a delay inconsistent with the known speed of action potentials along axons.
D. Pinching a dog’s foot caused immediate leg flexion regardless of spinal integrity.

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sherrington noticed that reflex responses were significantly slower than conduction along a single axon, implying an additional process—synaptic transmission—was involved.

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2
Q

Which statement best explains why reflex movements were more consistent after Sherrington severed the spinal cord from the brain?
A. Synaptic communication became more efficient.
B. Brain signals normally inhibit reflexes.
C. Reflex arcs require only brain input.
D. The absence of descending brain input removed variable modulation.

A

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The spinal cord alone controlled the reflexes, and without descending input from the brain, the reflexes were more stable due to the lack of modulation.

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3
Q

What fundamental conclusion about neurons did Cajal’s anatomical work support?
A. That neurotransmitters were responsible for electrical transmission.
B. That electrical conduction happens across one continuous fiber.
C. That neurons are structurally continuous with one another.
D. That neurons are discrete cells separated by a small gap.

A

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Cajal demonstrated that neurons are separate from one another, divided by a small anatomical gap — a foundational idea in neuroscience.

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4
Q

In Sherrington’s view, which property of reflexes most strongly suggested communication between neurons involves a special process?
A. Reflex speed matched motor neuron conduction speed.
B. Reflexes persisted even when the spinal cord was damaged.
C. The combined effect of multiple weak stimuli was stronger than one alone.
D. Motor responses only occurred in response to direct brain commands.

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: This summation effect (temporal or spatial) indicated synaptic integration—an emergent property not present in single-neuron conduction

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5
Q
  1. Why are Cajal and Sherrington considered complementary pioneers in neuroscience?
    A. Both independently discovered the function of glial cells.
    B. Cajal proved that synaptic gaps exist physiologically, while Sherrington proved it anatomically.
    C. Cajal’s anatomical findings supported Sherrington’s physiological inference of synaptic function.
    D. Both measured axonal speeds and deduced the chemical nature of neurotransmission.
A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Cajal showed anatomical separation between neurons; Sherrington demonstrated the physiological significance of this gap, supporting the idea of synapses.

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6
Q

Which of the following best explains why a series of rapid pinches at the same location can produce a reflex when a single pinch cannot?

A. The threshold for the presynaptic neuron increases with repetition.
B. Temporal summation allows subthreshold EPSPs to accumulate, triggering an action potential.
C. Repeated stimulation causes inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) to reverse.
D. Refractory periods shorten with repeated input, enabling continuous firing.

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Temporal summation refers to the additive effect of multiple subthreshold stimuli over time, leading to a postsynaptic neuron reaching threshold.

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7
Q

What did Eccles demonstrate when he recorded two EPSPs in quick succession that together triggered an action potential?

A. Synaptic transmission requires multiple neurons firing in unison.
B. Hyperpolarization events can be reversed with spatial summation.
C. Graded potentials decay slowly, allowing inhibitory signals to dominate.
D. Temporal summation occurs when subsequent EPSPs build on residual depolarization.

A

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Eccles showed that a second EPSP occurring shortly after the first adds to the remaining depolarization, potentially reaching threshold.

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8
Q

Why is spatial summation critical to brain function?

A. It allows subthreshold signals from a single axon to trigger multiple EPSPs in parallel.
B. It enhances inhibitory transmission by separating EPSPs and IPSPs spatially.
C. It enables a neuron to integrate inputs from multiple locations to reach threshold.
D. It allows temporal inputs to bypass refractory periods and build spatial overlap.

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Spatial summation involves multiple presynaptic neurons providing simultaneous input that combines to surpass the postsynaptic threshold

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9
Q

A researcher stimulates two sensory neurons at the same time, neither of which evokes a reflex alone, but together they do. This is best explained by:

A. Decreased synaptic resistance during paired stimuli
B. Spatial summation from converging excitatory inputs
C. Increased frequency of action potentials at the axon hillock
D. Activation of inhibitory interneurons blocking competing reflexes

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Sherrington observed that inputs from separate locations converging on a single postsynaptic neuron can summate and produce a response.

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10
Q

Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes an EPSP from an action potential?

A. EPSPs are self-propagating and all-or-none, while action potentials are not.
B. EPSPs are graded and decay with distance, while action potentials maintain constant amplitude.
C. EPSPs only occur at the axon hillock, while action potentials occur at the dendrites.
D. EPSPs are inhibitory and result from potassium influx, unlike excitatory action potentials.

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: EPSPs are local, graded depolarizations that diminish over time and space, unlike the all-or-none nature of action potentials

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11
Q

If a postsynaptic neuron fails to fire despite receiving rapid input from one axon and simultaneous input from another axon, the most likely explanation is:

A. The neuron lacks sufficient myelination for summation.
B. The EPSPs did not reach the axon terminal.
C. The inputs were asynchronous and failed to summate effectively.
D. The refractory period prevented IPSPs from converting to EPSPs

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Both temporal and spatial summation depend on the timing and coordination of inputs. Asynchronous signals may not summate to reach threshold.

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12
Q

During Sherrington’s experiment, when one of a dog’s legs was raised due to a pinch, the extensor muscles of the stimulated leg were inhibited. Which of the following best explains the neural mechanism responsible for this inhibition?

A. Direct synaptic activation of the extensor muscle motor neurons
B. Hyperpolarization of interneurons in the stimulated leg
C. Inhibitory input from an interneuron to the extensor motor neurons
D. Simultaneous excitation of all muscle groups by the sensory neuron

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sherrington inferred that interneurons in the spinal cord inhibit specific motor neurons—such as those controlling the extensor muscles of the pinched leg—by sending inhibitory signals to reduce their activity.

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13
Q

What ionic movement primarily causes an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) in a neuron?

A. Sodium ions enter the cell, depolarizing it
B. Potassium ions enter the cell, hyperpolarizing it
C. Chloride ions exit the cell, increasing internal negativity
D. Potassium ions leave or chloride ions enter, hyperpolarizing the cell

A

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: IPSPs occur when potassium leaves the neuron (taking positive charge out) or when chloride enters (bringing negative charge in), both of which make the interior more negative and move it away from the action potential threshold.

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14
Q

Which of the following best describes why inhibition was a controversial concept during Sherrington’s time?

A. Electrical stimulation could only excite neurons, not inhibit them
B. There was no anatomical evidence of inhibitory neurotransmitters
C. Scientists did not yet understand how action potentials were generated
D. No physiological mechanism had yet been discovered to explain inhibition

A

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: At the time, inhibition was a theoretical idea—no one had discovered the physiological process (like hyperpolarization via IPSPs) to support it. Sherrington’s work provided the first inferred evidence for it.

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15
Q

In a neural circuit where neuron 1 excites both neuron 2 and neuron 3, and neuron 2 inhibits neuron 3, what would be the likely outcome for neuron 3?

A. Continuous excitation due to reinforcement from both neurons
B. A delayed IPSP followed by an EPSP
C. A brief EPSP followed by inhibition from neuron 2
D. No change in membrane potential due to cancellation

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The excitatory signal from neuron 1 reaches neuron 3 quickly, causing an initial EPSP. However, the pathway to neuron 2 takes longer (an extra synapse), so the inhibition from neuron 2 slightly lags and suppresses further excitation in neuron 3.

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16
Q

A neuron has a spontaneous firing rate of 10 action potentials per second. If it receives a stream of strong IPSPs, what is the most likely outcome?

A. The neuron will fire more frequently, reaching 15 spikes/sec
B. The neuron will cease firing action potentials altogether
C. The neuron’s firing rate will decrease below 10 spikes/sec
D. The neuron will maintain its spontaneous firing rate unchanged

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: IPSPs hyperpolarize the neuron, making it less likely to reach the threshold. This reduces the frequency of its spontaneous action potentials, but doesn’t necessarily stop firing completely unless inhibition is extremely strong.

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17
Q

Why did most scientists initially dismiss T.R. Elliott’s suggestion that sympathetic nerves stimulate muscles by releasing adrenaline?

A. His experiments failed to show consistent physiological effects
B. The technology to measure chemical release was unavailable
C. The idea contradicted Sherrington’s widely accepted electrical theory of synapses
D. Adrenaline was not known to affect human organs at the time

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sherrington’s electrical model of synaptic transmission was so dominant that scientists largely ignored Elliott’s chemical hypothesis, even though adrenaline mimicked sympathetic effects.

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18
Q

Otto Loewi’s experiment involving two frog hearts demonstrated chemical transmission by:

A. Directly stimulating the second heart with electricity
B. Using adrenaline injections to mimic neural stimulation
C. Showing that fluid from a stimulated heart could alter another heart’s rate
D. Measuring the electrical activity in both hearts simultaneously

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Loewi transferred fluid from one frog’s heart (after stimulating its vagus or accelerator nerve) to another, showing that the fluid carried a chemical that influenced heart rate.

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19
Q

What was the key factor that made Loewi’s experiment conclusive evidence for chemical synaptic transmission?

A. It demonstrated that nerve signals could bypass the synapse entirely
B. It isolated and identified adrenaline as the primary neurotransmitter
C. It showed that a chemical, not electricity, mediated effects between hearts
D. It used two different species of frogs for increased generalizability

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The experiment proved that a chemical substance, not electrical impulses alone, was responsible for transmitting signals between neurons and organs.

20
Q

Which sequence best describes the chemical events at a synapse?

A. Action potential → neurotransmitter release → calcium influx → postsynaptic activation
B. Neurotransmitter synthesis → calcium entry → neurotransmitter release → receptor binding
C. Receptor binding → neurotransmitter release → postsynaptic action potential → synthesis
D. Calcium entry → neurotransmitter degradation → action potential → receptor stimulation

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Neurotransmitters are synthesized first; then action potentials trigger calcium influx, leading to neurotransmitter release and binding to postsynaptic receptors

21
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding neurotransmitter recycling?

A. All neurotransmitters are destroyed after receptor binding
B. Reuptake into the presynaptic neuron is one possible fate of neurotransmitters
C. Neurotransmitters bind permanently to receptors
D. Postsynaptic cells release neurotransmitters to control the presynaptic cell’s activity

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: After binding, neurotransmitters can be taken back into the presynaptic terminal for recycling, diffuse away, or be degraded.

22
Q

Nitric oxide (NO) is a unique neurotransmitter because:

A. It functions only in the peripheral nervous system
B. It is stored in vesicles like other neurotransmitters
C. It is a gas that diffuses directly and also affects blood vessels
D. It causes sedation and euphoria similar to nitrous oxide

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Nitric oxide is a gaseous neurotransmitter that diffuses freely and dilates blood vessels, unlike typical neurotransmitters which are stored in vesicles.

23
Q

Which discovery finally shifted scientific consensus toward chemical rather than electrical synapses?

A. Elliott’s experiments with adrenaline
B. Loewi’s demonstration of fluid-based signal transmission
C. 1950s research showing widespread chemical transmission in the nervous system
D. The isolation of nitric oxide as a neurotransmitter

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Although Elliott and Loewi laid the groundwork, it wasn’t until research in the 1950s confirmed that chemical transmission predominated in the nervous system that scientific consensus shifted

24
Q

Which of the following would most effectively increase serotonin levels in the brain?

A. Eating large amounts of phenylalanine-rich foods
B. Taking L-dopa supplements
C. Eating high-carbohydrate meals while limiting phenylalanine intake
D. Taking MAO to break down serotonin

A

Correct Answer: C. Eating high-carbohydrate meals while limiting phenylalanine intake

Explanation:
Tryptophan, the precursor to serotonin, competes with other amino acids like phenylalanine to cross the blood–brain barrier. High-carb meals trigger insulin, which reduces competing amino acids in the blood, giving tryptophan better access to the brain. Reducing phenylalanine intake also lowers competition. L-dopa is a dopamine precursor, not serotonin-related. MAO breaks down monoamines, so taking MAO (instead of an inhibitor) would decrease serotonin levels.

25
What do dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine all have in common structurally? A. They all require choline for synthesis B. They are all derived from tryptophan C. They are classified as catecholamines D. They are stored outside the presynaptic terminal in vesicles
Correct Answer: C. They are classified as catecholamines Explanation: Dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine all contain a catechol group and an amine group, which is why they’re categorized as catecholamines. They are synthesized from the amino acid tyrosine (not tryptophan). They are stored inside vesicles, not outside.
26
What is the function of monoamine oxidase (MAO) in the presynaptic terminal? A. It stimulates the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft B. It converts phenylalanine into tyrosine C. It stores neurotransmitters for rapid release D. It breaks down serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine
Correct Answer: D. It breaks down serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine Explanation: MAO is an enzyme in the presynaptic terminal that breaks down excess monoamines (serotonin, dopamine, norepinephrine) to prevent harmful accumulation. It doesn’t play a role in synthesis or release.
27
Which of the following best describes how neurotransmitters are released from the presynaptic terminal? A. A direct effect of the action potential on vesicles B. Through voltage-dependent sodium gates triggering exocytosis C. Via calcium influx leading to exocytosis within milliseconds D. From vesicles by osmosis across the presynaptic membrane
Correct Answer: C. Via calcium influx leading to exocytosis within milliseconds Explanation: An action potential opens calcium channels in the presynaptic terminal. Calcium influx triggers vesicle fusion with the membrane, releasing neurotransmitter (exocytosis) within 1–2 ms. Sodium is not the key ion here, and osmosis is not involved in this process.
28
What is one way researchers can experimentally reduce dopamine levels in the brain? A. Administer L-dopa B. Inhibit serotonin synthesis C. Use AMPT to block dopamine synthesis D. Administer insulin to decrease dopamine competition
Correct Answer: C. Use AMPT to block dopamine synthesis Explanation: AMPT (alpha-methyl-para-tyrosine) blocks the production of dopamine by inhibiting tyrosine hydroxylase. This is used in research, not therapy. L-dopa increases dopamine. Insulin affects tryptophan competition, not dopamine.
29
Which of the following best distinguishes ionotropic and metabotropic receptors in terms of their structure and function? A. Ionotropic receptors activate second messengers, while metabotropic receptors directly open ion channels. B. Ionotropic receptors rely on voltage-gated channels, while metabotropic receptors rely on ligand-gated channels. C. Ionotropic receptors directly open ion channels when a neurotransmitter binds, while metabotropic receptors initiate a signaling cascade involving G proteins and second messengers. D. Metabotropic receptors open chloride channels exclusively, while ionotropic receptors open sodium channels exclusively.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Ionotropic receptors directly open ion channels when neurotransmitters bind to them, allowing ions like sodium or chloride to pass through. In contrast, metabotropic receptors do not open ion channels directly. Instead, they initiate a signaling cascade involving G proteins and second messengers like cyclic AMP, resulting in more widespread and longer-lasting effects within the cell.
30
Which of the following neurotransmitters is most associated with inhibitory ionotropic synapses in the brain? A. Glutamate B. Dopamine C. GABA D. Acetylcholine
Correct Answer: C Explanation: GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain and works by opening chloride channels at ionotropic synapses. This causes hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell, making it less likely to fire an action potential.
31
Why do researchers consider neuropeptides to be more similar to hormones than to traditional neurotransmitters? A. They are synthesized in the axon terminal and released in response to single action potentials. B. They bind only to voltage-gated channels to exert fast and localized effects. C. They are released in large quantities after repeated stimulation and diffuse widely, affecting distant cells over longer periods. D. They act exclusively on ionotropic receptors to create rapid responses in postsynaptic neurons.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Neuropeptides are synthesized in the cell body, require repeated stimulation for release, and then diffuse widely in the brain—often affecting multiple neurons far from the release site. Their effects resemble those of hormones because they are long-lasting and involve broad signaling, often through gene activity.
32
In what way does a metabotropic receptor influence cellular processes differently than an ionotropic receptor? A. It binds neurotransmitters more rapidly, causing an immediate influx of ions. B. It uses G proteins to activate second messengers that can alter ion channel function or gene expression. C. It prevents the release of neurotransmitters by depolarizing the presynaptic neuron. D. It only allows calcium ions to enter the cell, influencing muscle contraction.
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Metabotropic receptors activate intracellular G proteins upon neurotransmitter binding. These G proteins can then activate second messengers like cyclic AMP, which go on to affect ion channel activity, enzyme function, or even gene expression—making their effect more complex and longer-lasting than the direct ion flow produced by ionotropic receptors.
33
What is a key reason the nervous system uses so many different neurotransmitters, despite early beliefs that synaptic transmission was a simple on/off mechanism? A. Different neurotransmitters are specialized for either action potentials or resting potentials. B. Each neurotransmitter is capable of transmitting signals only across electrical synapses. C. Neurotransmitters can have different effects depending on the receptor type they bind to, enabling more diverse signaling. D. The abundance of neurotransmitters reduces the energy cost of synaptic transmission.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Although early models suggested a binary excitation/inhibition model, later research showed that neurotransmitters have varied and complex effects depending on the type of receptor they bind to—ionotropic or metabotropic. This variety allows the nervous system to perform a wider range of functions and behaviors.
34
What is the primary reason nicotine is considered rewarding in terms of brain chemistry? A. It increases serotonin in the frontal cortex. B. It stimulates dopamine release by binding to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. C. It inhibits dopamine reuptake, increasing its presence in the synapse. D. It binds to opioid receptors, producing pleasure.
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Nicotine binds to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, which are especially concentrated on neurons that release dopamine. This interaction increases dopamine release, making nicotine use rewarding.
35
Which of the following correctly describes how acetylcholine is inactivated after it activates a receptor? A. It is taken back up into the presynaptic neuron in whole form. B. It diffuses away and is destroyed by glial cells. C. It is broken down into acetate and choline by an enzyme, and choline is recycled. D. It is destroyed by COMT and washed away in the bloodstream.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Acetylcholine is broken down by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase into acetate and choline. Choline is reabsorbed by the presynaptic neuron and reused to make more acetylcholine.
36
Which mechanism explains why stimulant drugs like cocaine and amphetamine produce a "crash" or withdrawal state after use? A. They damage postsynaptic receptors permanently. B. They stimulate excessive reuptake of serotonin, leading to depletion. C. They increase dopamine accumulation initially, but COMT breaks it down faster than it can be replenished. D. They prevent serotonin synthesis, leading to a long-term deficit.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Cocaine and amphetamine block dopamine reuptake, causing a surge in dopamine. COMT then breaks down the excess dopamine, and since it happens faster than dopamine can be replenished, it leads to a withdrawal state with low dopamine levels
37
What makes it possible for drugs to have highly specific effects on behavior through neurotransmitter systems? A. All receptors have the same structure, but different sizes. B. Receptors for a given neurotransmitter are identical across the brain. C. Each receptor type for a neurotransmitter varies in structure, drug responses, and behavioral roles. D. Synaptic proteins are fixed and uniform across all individuals.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Neurotransmitter systems have receptor subtypes that differ in structure, function, and drug sensitivity. This diversity enables drugs to target specific receptors (e.g., serotonin type 3 for nausea) for precise behavioral effects.
38
What distinguishes methylphenidate (Ritalin) from cocaine, despite their similar mechanisms? A. Methylphenidate is an opiate, while cocaine is a stimulant. B. Cocaine binds to serotonin receptors, while methylphenidate does not. C. Methylphenidate’s effects occur more gradually, reducing its addictive potential. D. Cocaine increases acetylcholine release, while methylphenidate does not.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Both drugs block dopamine reuptake at the same receptors. However, methylphenidate, taken in pill form, leads to a slower, sustained increase in dopamine levels, avoiding the rapid rush that contributes to cocaine’s addictive potential.
39
Why was the discovery of endorphins considered a major breakthrough in neuroscience? A. It revealed the brain's capability to generate its own hallucinogens. B. It showed that the brain had developed receptors specifically for external opiate drugs. C. It demonstrated that the brain produces natural painkillers that bind to opiate receptors. D. It proved that all neurotransmitters are derived from amino acids.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: The discovery of endorphins showed that the brain naturally produces neuropeptides that bind to opiate receptors, explaining how opiate drugs relieve pain and highlighting the brain’s internal mechanisms for pain and emotional regulation.
40
Which of the following best describes the function of autoreceptors on presynaptic terminals? A) They stimulate the postsynaptic neuron by increasing neurotransmitter sensitivity. B) They prevent neurotransmitter reuptake into the presynaptic neuron. C) They detect neurotransmitters released and inhibit further release from the presynaptic neuron. D) They bind to retrograde transmitters and trigger more neurotransmitter release.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Autoreceptors are located on the presynaptic terminal and detect the presence of the neurotransmitter the neuron itself has released. When activated, they provide negative feedback by inhibiting further neurotransmitter synthesis and release, helping regulate synaptic activity.
41
What role do cannabinoids such as those in marijuana play at the synapse? A) They enhance presynaptic neurotransmitter release by activating autoreceptors. B) They mimic postsynaptic neurotransmitters to overstimulate the postsynaptic cell. C) They bind to presynaptic receptors and inhibit further neurotransmitter release. D) They block reuptake transporters, increasing synaptic neurotransmitter concentration.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Cannabinoids bind to receptors for anandamide or 2-AG on presynaptic neurons, signaling that the postsynaptic cell “got the message.” This prevents further release of neurotransmitters like glutamate or GABA, leading to temporary suppression of synaptic transmission.
42
What makes electrical synapses different from chemical synapses? A) They rely on neurotransmitters to transmit signals more rapidly. B) They use voltage-gated ion channels across the synaptic cleft. C) They involve direct cytoplasmic connections through gap junctions allowing ions to flow. D) They involve retrograde signaling and inhibition of action potential generation.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Electrical synapses involve gap junctions where membranes of two neurons are connected. Ions flow directly from one cell to the next, enabling faster and synchronized transmission, such as in breathing or escape reflexes.
43
What makes electrical synapses different from chemical synapses? A) They rely on neurotransmitters to transmit signals more rapidly. B) They use voltage-gated ion channels across the synaptic cleft. C) They involve direct cytoplasmic connections through gap junctions allowing ions to flow. D) They involve retrograde signaling and inhibition of action potential generation.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Electrical synapses involve gap junctions where membranes of two neurons are connected. Ions flow directly from one cell to the next, enabling faster and synchronized transmission, such as in breathing or escape reflexes.
44
In terms of hormone function, which analogy best differentiates a hormone from a neurotransmitter? A) Hormones are like messengers on foot, while neurotransmitters are e-mails. B) Hormones are like a targeted phone call; neurotransmitters are a radio broadcast. C) Hormones are like a radio broadcast; neurotransmitters are like a phone call. D) Hormones are like DNA blueprints; neurotransmitters are like protein builders.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Neurotransmitters affect a specific postsynaptic neuron (like a phone call), while hormones are released into the bloodstream and affect any cell with the correct receptor (like a radio broadcast).
45
What happens when thyroid hormone levels in the blood are low? A) The anterior pituitary directly secretes TSH to suppress hormone release. B) The posterior pituitary inhibits the hypothalamus from releasing TSH-releasing hormone. C) The hypothalamus releases TSH-releasing hormone, prompting a hormone cascade. D) The thyroid gland initiates its own hormone production to self-correct.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Low thyroid hormone triggers the hypothalamus to secrete TSH-releasing hormone, stimulating the anterior pituitary to release TSH, which then stimulates the thyroid gland. This is part of a negative feedback loop maintaining hormonal balance.
46
Which best describes the role of peptide and protein hormones? A) They directly alter DNA transcription in the nucleus. B) They bind to ionotropic receptors, causing immediate depolarization. C) They bind to membrane receptors and activate second messenger systems. D) They pass through the membrane to bind intracellular receptors like steroids.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Peptide and protein hormones cannot cross the membrane, so they bind to receptors on the surface, activating second messengers within the cell—similar to metabotropic synaptic transmission.