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1
Q

What distinguishes the central nervous system (CNS) from the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

A) The CNS includes all sensory receptors and motor nerves, while the PNS includes only the brain.
B) The CNS comprises the brain and spinal cord; the PNS connects them to the rest of the body.
C) The PNS controls all voluntary movements, while the CNS only manages involuntary actions.
D) The CNS is responsible for reflex arcs; the PNS is responsible for cognition.

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The CNS includes the brain and spinal cord, while the PNS links the CNS to the body, including sense organs and muscles. The PNS is further divided into the somatic and autonomic systems.

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2
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the somatic nervous system?

A) It regulates heartbeat, digestion, and involuntary responses.
B) It connects sensory organs and muscles to the central nervous system.
C) It contains cell bodies primarily located within the brainstem.
D) It supports communication between the two cerebral hemispheres.

A

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The somatic nervous system is part of the PNS and is responsible for voluntary control, relaying sensory information to the CNS and carrying motor commands to muscles.

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3
Q

Which best describes the orientation term “ventral” in human neuroanatomy?

A) Toward the top of the head.
B) Toward the back in upright humans.
C) Toward the stomach or underside.
D) Toward the center or midline.

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: “Ventral” means toward the stomach. In four-legged animals, this aligns with the belly. In humans, despite the upright posture, we continue using the same term relative to brain structure, which can create a right-angle shift between brain and spinal cord axes.

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4
Q

In human brains, how does the dorsal–ventral axis differ between the brain and the spinal cord?

A) The axis is reversed entirely due to upright posture.
B) It remains aligned as in four-legged animals.
C) It is rotated 45 degrees from the original spinal orientation.
D) It forms a 90-degree angle between brain and spinal cord orientation.

A

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In upright humans, the dorsal–ventral axis of the brain is at a right angle (90 degrees) to that of the spinal cord. This results from changes in posture during evolution but the naming conventions are preserved for consistency.

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5
Q

Which of the following imaging “planes” best corresponds to slicing the brain from front to back, like a loaf of bread?

A) Sagittal
B) Horizontal
C) Coronal (Frontal)
D) Oblique

A

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The coronal (or frontal) plane slices the brain from front to back, producing vertical sections like a loaf of bread being sliced. Sagittal cuts separate left and right; horizontal cuts separate top and bottom.

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6
Q

What part of the central nervous system (CNS) is housed within the spinal column?
A) Brainstem
B) Cerebellum
C) Spinal cord
D) Autonomic ganglia

A

Correct Answer: C) Spinal cord
Explanation: The spinal cord is the portion of the CNS encased in the spinal column. It connects the brain with the peripheral nervous system and handles sensory and motor communication with the body (excluding the head).

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7
Q

What do the dorsal roots of the spinal cord carry?
A) Motor information
B) Sensory information
C) Digestive commands
D) Hormonal signals

A

Correct Answer: B) Sensory information
Explanation: The dorsal roots contain axons that carry sensory information into the spinal cord from the body. This was one of the earliest discoveries in neuroscience.

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8
Q

Where are the cell bodies of sensory neurons located?
A) Ventral horn
B) Brainstem nuclei
C) Dorsal root ganglia
D) Somatic plexuses

A

Correct Answer: C) Dorsal root ganglia
Explanation: Sensory neuron cell bodies are found in the dorsal root ganglia, which are clusters of neurons located just outside the spinal cord.

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9
Q

What kind of matter in the spinal cord contains densely packed cell bodies and dendrites?
A) White matter
B) Neuropil
C) Glial tissue
D) Gray matter

A

Correct Answer: D) Gray matter
Explanation: Gray matter, which appears in an H-shaped formation in spinal cord cross-sections, is made up of neuron cell bodies and dendrites and is the site of synaptic processing.

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10
Q

If the spinal cord is cut at a particular segment, what happens?
A) Only motor control is lost above the segment
B) Both sensation and motor control are lost at and below the segment
C) Sensation is lost, but motor control remains intact
D) Only autonomic functions are disrupted

A

Correct Answer: B) Both sensation and motor control are lost at and below the segment
Explanation: Because the spinal cord transmits both sensory and motor signals, damage at a segment severs communication to and from that point and everything below it.

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11
Q

Which nervous system prepares the body for “fight or flight”?
A) Somatic nervous system
B) Sympathetic nervous system
C) Parasympathetic nervous system
D) Central nervous system

A

Correct Answer: B) Sympathetic nervous system
Explanation: The sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate and respiration and decreases digestion, preparing the body for quick, vigorous action.

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12
Q

What is another name for the parasympathetic nervous system?
A) Cervicolumbar system
B) Ventrodorsal system
C) Thoracolumbar system
D) Craniosacral system

A

Correct Answer: D) Craniosacral system
Explanation: The parasympathetic system originates from cranial nerves and sacral regions of the spinal cord, hence the name “craniosacral.”

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13
Q

Which neurotransmitter is primarily released by parasympathetic postganglionic axons?
A) Dopamine
B) Acetylcholine
C) Norepinephrine
D) Glutamate

A

Correct Answer: B) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Parasympathetic neurons use acetylcholine to communicate with target organs, facilitating “rest and digest” functions like slowing the heart rate and stimulating digestion.

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14
Q

Why do cold remedies often increase heart rate and blood pressure?
A) They stimulate parasympathetic activity
B) They increase sympathetic activity and inhibit parasympathetic activity
C) They inhibit motor neurons
D) They stimulate spinal cord gray matter

A

Correct Answer: B) They increase sympathetic activity and inhibit parasympathetic activity
Explanation: These medications often mimic sympathetic effects and suppress parasympathetic responses, resulting in heightened alertness, increased heart rate, and decreased digestion.

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system?
A) Acts in coordinated chain-like ganglia
B) Increases breathing and heart rate
C) Promotes digestive activity
D) Prepares body for vigorous activity

A

Correct Answer: C) Promotes digestive activity
Explanation: The sympathetic system suppresses digestion to redirect energy to muscles and the brain during stress or emergency responses.

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16
Q

Which of the following structures is NOT part of the hindbrain?
A) Pons
B) Cerebellum
C) Medulla
D) Tectum

A

Correct Answer: D) Tectum
Explanation: The tectum is part of the midbrain, not the hindbrain. The hindbrain includes the medulla, pons, and cerebellum.

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17
Q

Which of the following structures is NOT part of the hindbrain?
A) Pons
B) Cerebellum
C) Medulla
D) Tectum

A

Correct Answer: D) Tectum
Explanation: The tectum is part of the midbrain, not the hindbrain. The hindbrain includes the medulla, pons, and cerebellum.

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18
Q

What does the medulla primarily regulate?
A) Visual processing
B) Vital reflexes like breathing and heart rate
C) Balance and coordination
D) Memory consolidation

A

Correct Answer: B) Vital reflexes like breathing and heart rate
Explanation: The medulla controls vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, vomiting, and coughing

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19
Q

Why can opiates be life-threatening when affecting the medulla?
A) They cause visual hallucinations
B) They overstimulate the cerebellum
C) They reduce dopamine production
D) They suppress vital functions like breathing

A

Correct Answer: D) They suppress vital functions like breathing
Explanation: The medulla contains opiate receptors, and when these are activated, breathing and heart rate can dangerously slow down

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20
Q

What does the Latin term “pons” mean, and what is its functional significance?
A) Wall; it protects the spinal cord
B) Bridge; it connects the two brain hemispheres to the opposite sides of the body
C) Dome; it covers the cerebellum
D) Root; it anchors cranial nerves

A

Correct Answer: B) Bridge; it connects the two brain hemispheres to the opposite sides of the body
Explanation: “Pons” means “bridge” because it contains fibers that cross from one side of the brain to the other, controlling opposite-side muscles.

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21
Q

Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for balance, coordination, and timing?
A) Medulla
B) Pons
C) Cerebellum
D) Tegmentum

A

Correct Answer: C) Cerebellum
Explanation: The cerebellum is crucial for balance, coordination, timing, and even some aspects of learning and sensory attention.

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22
Q

Damage to the cerebellum would most likely impair which of the following?
A) Memory retrieval
B) Emotional regulation
C) Switching attention between visual and auditory stimuli
D) Pain perception

A

Correct Answer: C) Switching attention between visual and auditory stimuli
Explanation: In addition to motor coordination, the cerebellum is involved in shifting attention between sensory inputs.

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23
Q

Which structure gives rise to a dopamine pathway that facilitates movement?
A) Substantia nigra
B) Tegmentum
C) Inferior colliculus
D) Medulla

A

Correct Answer: A) Substantia nigra
Explanation: The substantia nigra is a midbrain structure critical in initiating movement via dopamine production.

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24
Q

What is the function of the superior colliculus?
A) Visual processing
B) Auditory processing
C) Hormonal regulation
D) Balance control

A

Correct Answer: A) Visual processing
Explanation: The superior colliculus, part of the midbrain tectum, processes visual stimuli.

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25
What is the function of the inferior colliculus? A) Motor coordination B) Auditory processing C) Blood pressure regulation D) Smell perception
Correct Answer: B) Auditory processing Explanation: The inferior colliculus, also part of the tectum, plays a key role in processing auditory information.
26
Which structure lies just beneath the tectum in the midbrain? A) Medulla B) Substantia nigra C) Tegmentum D) Cerebellum
Correct Answer: C) Tegmentum Explanation: The tegmentum lies directly below the tectum in the midbrain and contains various important structures.
27
Which structure is primarily responsible for processing most sensory information before it reaches the cerebral cortex? A) Hypothalamus B) Pituitary gland C) Thalamus D) Basal ganglia
Correct answer: C) Thalamus Explanation: The thalamus acts as a relay station, processing and directing most sensory input to appropriate areas of the cerebral cortex—except for smell.
28
What structure is crucial for regulating motivated behaviors such as eating, drinking, and sexual activity? A) Basal ganglia B) Hippocampus C) Thalamus D) Hypothalamus
Correct answer: D) Hypothalamus Explanation: The hypothalamus controls various motivated behaviors by sending messages to the pituitary gland and other brain areas
29
The cerebral cortex receives motor and sensory information mainly from which side of the body? A) Ipsilateral B) Contralateral C) Bilateral D) Ventral
Correct answer: B) Contralateral Explanation: Each hemisphere of the forebrain processes sensory and motor input from the opposite (contralateral) side of the body.
30
Which structure is key for arousal, wakefulness, and attention by releasing acetylcholine to the cortex? A) Pituitary gland B) Amygdala C) Nucleus basalis D) Caudate nucleus
Correct answer: C) Nucleus basalis Explanation: The nucleus basalis sends acetylcholine to the cortex, helping maintain attention and alertness.
31
What is the main function of the basal ganglia? A) Processing visual information B) Controlling autonomic functions C) Regulating hormones D) Facilitating movement and habit learningex
Correct answer: D) Facilitating movement and habit learning Explanation: The basal ganglia are involved in movement regulation and play a role in learning motor skills and habits over time.
32
What structure produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? A) Corpus callosum B) Anterior commissure C) Choroid plexus D) Meninges
Correct answer: C) Choroid plexus Explanation: The choroid plexus, found in the walls of the ventricles, produces CSF.
33
What is the primary role of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? A) Transmitting motor signals B) Cushioning and supporting the brain C) Enhancing neural communication speed D) Facilitating muscle contractions
Correct answer: B) Cushioning and supporting the brain Explanation: CSF cushions the brain from mechanical shock, supports its weight, and provides hormones and nutrients.
34
What condition results from an obstruction of CSF flow, causing increased pressure on the brain? A) Meningitis B) Migraine C) Hydrocephalus D) Encephalitis
Correct answer: C) Hydrocephalus Explanation: Hydrocephalus occurs when CSF accumulates due to blockage, increasing pressure and potentially causing an enlarged head in infants.
35
Which part of the brain contains gray matter on its outer surface and white matter inside? A) Thalamus B) Cerebral cortex C) Medulla D) Cerebellum
Correct answer: B) Cerebral cortex Explanation: The cerebral cortex has gray matter (neuron cell bodies) on the surface and white matter (axons) beneath.
36
How many distinct layers (laminae) can the cerebral cortex have? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
Answer: C. 6 Explanation: The cerebral cortex can have up to six layers (laminae), each with different types of neurons and functions.
37
Compared to other mammals of similar size, what brain features do primates (including humans) have? A) Smaller cerebellum and larger thalamus B) Larger, more folded cerebral cortex with more neurons C) Larger ventricles and less folding D) Thinner meninges and less gray matter
Correct answer: B) Larger, more folded cerebral cortex with more neurons Explanation: Primates have a proportionally larger and more folded cortex with a higher neuron density than other mammals.
38
Which lamina is thickest in the motor cortex? A. Lamina I B. Lamina III C. Lamina IV D. Lamina V
Answer: D. Lamina V Explanation: Lamina V is thickest in the motor cortex because it sends long axons to the spinal cord and distant areas for motor control.
39
What is the function of Lamina IV in the cerebral cortex? A. Sending motor commands to the spinal cord B. Integrating emotional responses C. Receiving sensory input from the thalamus D. Controlling voluntary muscle movement
Answer: C. Receiving sensory input from the thalamus Explanation: Lamina IV is prominent in sensory areas and specializes in receiving input from the sensory nuclei of the thalamus.
40
How are cells in the cerebral cortex organized, in addition to laminae? A. In spirals B. In columns C. In clusters D. In nodes
Answer: B. In columns Explanation: Cortical cells are organized into vertical columns where cells respond to similar types of stimuli.
41
Which of the following lobes is primarily responsible for processing visual information? A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Temporal D. Occipital
Answer: D. Occipital Explanation: The occipital lobe at the back of the brain is the primary center for visual processing.
42
If a neuron in a cortical column responds to a horizontal pattern of light, what will other neurons in the same column likely do? A. Respond to random patterns B. Respond to vertical light only C. Respond to similar patterns nearby D. Shut down activity
Answer: C. Respond to similar patterns nearby Explanation: Neurons in the same column share similar response properties, so they often respond to similar stimuli like orientation or location
43
What is the main function of the occipital lobe? A. Hearing and language comprehension B. Movement and decision making C. Visual processing D. Touch and spatial awareness
Answer: C. Visual processing Explanation: The occipital lobe, located at the back of the brain, is the primary center for receiving and interpreting visual information.
44
What is another name for the primary visual cortex? A. Postcentral gyrus B. Prefrontal cortex C. Striate cortex D. Somatosensory cortex
Answer: C. Striate cortex Explanation: The primary visual cortex is also called the striate cortex due to its striped appearance in cross-section.
45
What happens if the striate cortex in the right hemisphere is damaged? A. Blindness in the right visual field B. Complete loss of vision C. Blindness in the left visual field D. No effect on vision
Answer: C. Blindness in the left visual field Explanation: Damage to the right striate cortex leads to loss of vision in the opposite (left) visual field.
46
Which statement about cortical blindness is TRUE? A. It results in abnormal eye structure B. Pupillary reflexes are absent C. Visual dreams and imagery remain intact D. There is no conscious visual perception
Answer: D. There is no conscious visual perception Explanation: In cortical blindness, the eyes may function normally, but the person has no visual awareness due to damage in the visual cortex.
47
The parietal lobe is located between the occipital lobe and which of the following? A. Brainstem B. Temporal lobe C. Prefrontal cortex D. Central sulcus
Answer: D. Central sulcus Explanation: The parietal lobe lies between the occipital lobe and the central sulcus, a deep groove in the cortex.
48
What type of sensory input does the postcentral gyrus primarily receive? A. Auditory information B. Touch and body sensation C. Visual input D. Taste and smell
Answer: B. Touch and body sensation Explanation: The postcentral gyrus is the primary somatosensory cortex and receives input from touch, muscle, and joint receptors.
49
What happens when the postcentral gyrus is lightly stimulated during awake brain surgery? A. Visual hallucinations occur B. Sudden emotional reactions occur C. Tingling sensations are felt on the opposite side of the body D. Muscle spasms occur on the same side
Answer: C. Tingling sensations are felt on the opposite side of the body Explanation: Stimulating this region causes sensations such as tingling on the body’s contralateral side.
50
How many bands of cells are in the postcentral gyrus, and what do they process? A. Two bands for deep pressure B. Four bands for different types of touch C. One band for pain, one for pressure D. Three bands for hearing and sight
Answer: B. Four bands for different types of touch Explanation: There are four bands of cells, each processing different combinations of light touch and deep pressure information.
51
Which lobe integrates touch and spatial information with visual and auditory input? A. Temporal B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Frontal
Answer: B. Parietal Explanation: The parietal lobe helps interpret visual and auditory input using information about body position and movement.
52
The parietal lobe is involved in processing spatial and which other type of information? A. Emotional B. Auditory C. Numerical D. Linguistic
Answer: C. Numerical Explanation: The parietal lobe processes numerical information, likely because of its connection to spatial reasoning and finger counting.
53
Which lobe is the primary cortical target for auditory information? A. Occipital lobe B. Frontal lobe C. Parietal lobe D. Temporal lobe
Answer: D. Temporal lobe Explanation: The temporal lobe is the main area for processing auditory (sound) information and is crucial for language comprehension, especially in the left hemisphere.
54
A tumor in the temporal lobe is more likely to produce which type of experience? A. Cortical blindness B. Loss of touch sensation C. Elaborate auditory or visual hallucinations D. Complete loss of motor control
Answer: C. Elaborate auditory or visual hallucinations Explanation: Temporal lobe tumors can trigger complex hallucinations, while occipital lobe tumors usually cause simpler visual sensations like flashes of light.
55
Klüver-Bucy syndrome is associated with damage to which brain area? A. Frontal lobe B. Precentral gyrus C. Parietal lobe D. Temporal lobe
Answer: D. Temporal lobe Explanation: Damage to the temporal lobes, especially in monkeys, leads to a loss of fear and inhibition, known as Klüver-Bucy syndrome
56
Which function is the precentral gyrus primarily responsible for? A. Hearing B. Fine motor movements C. Emotional regulation D. Visual processing
Answer: B. Fine motor movements Explanation: The precentral gyrus (primary motor cortex) controls voluntary fine motor actions, mostly on the opposite side of the body.
57
The infamous procedure known as a prefrontal lobotomy involved damage to or disconnection of what brain region? A. Temporal lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Prefrontal cortex D. Postcentral gyrus
Answer: C. Prefrontal cortex Explanation: A lobotomy involved severing connections in the prefrontal cortex, aiming to reduce severe psychiatric symptoms but often leading to apathy and poor decision-making.
58
People with damage to the prefrontal cortex often struggle with what kind of task? A. Identifying objects by touch B. Recognizing faces C. Delayed-response tasks D. Detecting light and color
Answer: C. Delayed-response tasks Explanation: The prefrontal cortex supports working memory; damage impairs the ability to hold and act on recent information after a delay.
59
Which zone of the prefrontal cortex is involved in decision-making and evaluating outcomes? A. Posterior zone B. Lateral zone C. Middle zone D. Anterior zone
Answer: D. Anterior zone Explanation: The anterior part of the prefrontal cortex helps assess risks, rewards, and outcomes to guide goal-directed behavior.
60
What kind of memory is the middle zone of the prefrontal cortex mainly involved in? A. Procedural memory B. Semantic memory C. Working memory D. Episodic memory
Answer: C. Working memory Explanation: The middle zone helps you hold and manipulate information in real time, like remembering what you were saying before being interrupted.
61
In humans, the prefrontal cortex is relatively larger in proportion compared to other species. This larger size is mainly linked to what? A. Higher vision processing capacity B. Increased motor coordination C. Advanced decision-making and planning D. Superior hearing
Answer: C. Advanced decision-making and planning Explanation: The prefrontal cortex allows humans to plan, reason, weigh consequences, and exercise cognitive control—key elements of complex behavior.
62
What is the theoretical issue that researchers began considering in the 1990s regarding sensory perception? A. How do we recognize faces? B. How does sensory information get stored in memory? C. How do various brain areas combine to produce a unified experience? D. How do we distinguish between different smells?
Answer: C. How do various brain areas combine to produce a unified experience? Explanation: This question addresses how sensory information from different modalities (e.g., smell, taste, touch, and sound) is integrated into a single, cohesive perception.
63
What is the term used for the problem of combining different sensory inputs into one unified perception? A. Sensory overload B. Perceptual interference C. Binding problem D. Cognitive dissonance
Answer: C. Binding problem Explanation: The binding problem refers to the challenge of how the brain combines inputs from different senses into a unified experience, even when these inputs are processed in different brain regions.
64
How did early researchers believe sensory information was integrated in the brain? A. By the motor cortex B. By the association areas of the cortex C. Through direct nerve connections between sensory organs D. By specialized neurons in the thalamus
Answer: B. By the association areas of the cortex Explanation: Earlier theories suggested that sensory information was integrated in the brain’s association areas, but later research revealed that this is not fully accurate.
65
What has later research revealed about sensory information integration? A. Sensory areas of the cortex work in complete isolation B. Few cells combine different sensory inputs C. Sensory integration occurs only after the brain processes each sense separately D. Neurons never change their sensory properties
Answer: B. Few cells combine different sensory inputs Explanation: Research shows that while some neurons respond to multiple senses (e.g., both sight and sound), this is not the predominant way the brain integrates sensory inputs.
66
What must occur for sensory binding to take place? A. Sensory inputs must occur at different times B. The senses must be processed by the same brain hemisphere C. The sensations must occur at the same time and in the same location D. Sensory inputs must come from different objects
Answer: C. The sensations must occur at the same time and in the same location Explanation: Binding occurs when sensory inputs (e.g., sight and sound) are experienced simultaneously and in close spatial proximity, as seen in ventriloquism or synced video demonstrations.
67
In the ventriloquist illusion, why do people perceive the sound as coming from the dummy’s mouth? A. The sound is altered to match the visual image B. The brain ignores the sound and focuses on the visual cue C. The visual stimulus influences the auditory cortex to synchronize with the mouth movement D. The brain processes the sound in the frontal cortex
Answer: C. The visual stimulus influences the auditory cortex to synchronize with the mouth movement Explanation: The brain binds the visual and auditory inputs together because they occur at the same time and in the same location, creating the illusion that the sound comes from the dummy.
68
What happens when you see a light flash once and hear two beeps at the same time? A. You think you saw the light flash twice B. You think you heard one beep instead of two C. You perceive the light and sound separately D. You ignore the auditory cue altogether
Answer: A. You think you saw the light flash twice Explanation: The near simultaneity of the light and sound causes the brain to bind the sensory inputs, resulting in the perception that the light flashed twice.
69
What is the outcome of the experiment where a participant sees a video of their back and feels a touch on it simultaneously? A. They feel that the touch is coming from behind them B. They fail to perceive the touch altogether C. They perceive their body as being displaced 2 meters in front of them D. They cannot perceive the touch as being connected to the video
Answer: C. They perceive their body as being displaced 2 meters in front of them Explanation: The integration of visual and tactile inputs leads to the illusion that the person’s body is shifted, as the two senses are bound to one location
70
In the rubber hand illusion, why do participants feel that a rubber hand is their own? A. They recognize it as their hand because of visual cues B. They perceive it as their hand due to sensory conflict C. They bind the visual and tactile sensations from both hands D. They experience a memory of having two hands
Answer: C. They bind the visual and tactile sensations from both hands Explanation: When the real hand is hidden and the rubber hand is stroked, participants perceive the rubber hand as part of their own body due to the simultaneous visual and tactile sensations.
71
What happens if sensory inputs are flashed too briefly or the viewer is distracted during the binding process? A. The brain fully integrates the sensory inputs B. Binding occurs more strongly C. Binding often fails D. The sensory inputs are perceived separately without integration
Answer: C. Binding often fails Explanation: Brief flashes or distractions prevent the brain from properly binding the sensory inputs, leading to a failure in perceiving them as a unified experience.
72
73
Paul Broca's discovery in 1861 supported the idea that: A. All parts of the brain have the same function B. Brain functions are not localized C. Specific brain areas are responsible for specific functions D. The brain is incapable of recovering from damage
Correct answer: C Explanation: Broca found that damage to a particular area (now known as Broca’s area) impaired speech, supporting localization of function.
74
What is an ablation in neuroscience research? A. A chemical that temporarily disables neurons B. A gene knockout mutation C. Surgical removal of a brain area D. Magnetic stimulation of the brain
Correct answer: C Explanation: Ablation refers to surgically removing a brain region, usually with a knife.
75
Why are sham lesions used in experiments? A. To damage only the axons, not neurons B. To ensure the animal remains awake during surgery C. To control for effects of the procedure itself D. To verify the location of brain damage after death
Correct answer: C Explanation: Sham lesions include all steps of the procedure except the damaging current, isolating the effects of the lesion itself.
76
A major limitation of electric lesions is that they: A. Only work on the surface of the brain B. Do not cause any real damage C. Only damage specific types of neurons D. Also damage axons passing through the area
Correct answer: D Explanation: Electric lesions are crude; they affect not only neurons at the site but also axons passing through, reducing specificity.
77
Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS) can: A. Remove brain tissue precisely B. Create a permanent lesion C. Temporarily activate or inactivate a brain area D. Selectively damage only axons
Correct answer: C Explanation: TMS can either stimulate or inhibit brain areas temporarily, allowing reversible study of function.
78
What is the main advantage of optogenetics over traditional brain stimulation methods? A. It affects the entire brain at once B. It is cheaper and faster C. It targets specific neurons with precise timing D. It uses electrical currents instead of light
Correct answer: C Explanation: Optogenetics allows researchers to control specific neurons with millisecond precision using light-sensitive proteins.
79
Which step is not part of the optogenetics method? A. Inserting light-sensitive proteins into neurons B. Drilling a hole and applying electric current C. Using viruses to target specific neuron types D. Using optical fibers to shine light on brain areas
Correct answer: B Explanation: Electric current is part of older lesion methods. Optogenetics uses light, not electricity, to control neuron activity.
80
Which of the following methods involves recording electrical activity through electrodes attached to the scalp? A. fMRI B. PET C. EEG D. MEG
Correct Answer: C. EEG Explanation: EEG (electroencephalograph) measures electrical activity via scalp electrodes and is often used to assess sleep stages and diagnose epilepsy.
81
What does a PET scan measure to determine brain activity? A. Hemoglobin with oxygen B. Magnetic fields generated by neurons C. Radioactive glucose uptake D. Electrical activity in response to stimuli
Correct Answer: C. Radioactive glucose uptake Explanation: PET scans use radioactive glucose to identify areas of high metabolic activity in the brain, reflecting neural activity.
82
Which method offers the best temporal resolution, showing changes in brain activity from millisecond to millisecond? A. EEG B. MEG C. fMRI D. PET
Correct Answer: B. MEG Explanation: MEG detects magnetic fields from brain activity with excellent temporal resolution, even better than EEG.
83
Evoked potentials are recorded using which technique? A. MEG B. PET C. fMRI D. EEG
Correct Answer: D. EEG Explanation: Evoked potentials (or responses) are specific types of EEG recordings that capture brain responses to stimuli.
84
What does an fMRI measure to determine brain activity? A. Electrical firing of neurons B. Magnetic field strength C. Changes in oxygenated hemoglobin D. Glucose metabolism rate
Correct Answer: C. Changes in oxygenated hemoglobin Explanation: fMRI detects changes in blood oxygenation levels, which correlate with brain activity.
85
What fundamental assumption made phrenology scientifically flawed? A) Skull thickness varies randomly across individuals B) Brain activity changes constantly C) Brain areas cannot be imaged directly D) The nervous system doesn’t correlate with personality
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Phrenologists wrongly assumed skull shape matched brain anatomy, ignoring natural variation in skull thickness.
86
Which of the following most accurately describes Franz Gall’s reasoning for associating verbal memory with protruding eyes? A) He used CT imaging to observe deep brain structures B) He believed eye protrusion indicated skull deformation C) He thought eye pressure came from overused frontal muscles D) He assumed the brain pushed the eyes forward due to increased size behind them
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Gall inferred that brain regions behind the eyes expanded in people with strong verbal memory, pushing the eyes forward.
87
What is a major methodological limitation common to both phrenology and some modern brain-behavior studies? A) Use of dangerous imaging techniques B) Reliance on large, diverse participant pools C) Failure to include behavioral observations D) Drawing conclusions from small or unrepresentative samples
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Both phrenology and some modern studies suffer from small sample sizes, risking invalid generalizations.
88
Why is MRI more anatomically detailed than CT? A) MRI avoids using any radiation B) MRI relies on metabolic activity instead of structure C) MRI measures electromagnetic energy from atomic nuclei D) MRI uses thicker image slices for better brain coverage
Correct Answer: C Explanation: MRI detects energy released by atoms (like hydrogen) after magnetic manipulation, allowing fine anatomical resolution.
89
Which brain imaging method is better for identifying tumors and major structural damage? A) EEG B) fMRI C) CT D) PET
Correct Answer: C Explanation: CT (or CAT) scans are commonly used to detect structural abnormalities such as tumors.
90
Which personality trait has been linked to the size of certain cortical areas? A) Creativity B) Agreeableness C) Neuroticism D) Self-efficacy
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Neuroticism (along with extraversion and conscientiousness) correlates with specific cortical region sizes
91
A study finds adolescents with large vocabularies have more gray matter in a certain brain area. Which area is this? A) Amygdala B) Temporal lobe C) Parietal lobe D) Occipital lobe
Correct Answer: C Explanation: More gray matter in part of the parietal lobe has been associated with larger vocabularies in adolescents.

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