biochem: molecular Flashcards

(68 cards)

1
Q

heterochromatic

A

condensed, darker on EM, inactive, inaccessible. e.g. Barr bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

euchromatin

A

less condensed, lighter on EM. active, accessible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DNA methylation

A

template strand cytosine and adenine are methylated in DNA replication, allowing repair enzymes to distinguish old and new strands. methylation at CpG islands represses transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

histone methylation

A

usually reversibly represses transcription, but sometimes activates it (depending on location).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

histone acetylation

A

relaxes DNA coiling, allowing for transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

purines

A

2 rings. A, G. PURe As Gold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

pyrimidines

A

1 ring. C, T, U. CUT the PY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

thymine

A

THYmine has a meTHYl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

deamination of cystosine makes

A

uracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

G-C bond

A

= 3 H bonds = stronger than A-T bond (2 H bonds). so more G-Cs -> higher melting temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

AAs necessary for purine synthesis

A

GAG = gylcine, aspartate, glutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

adenosine deaminase deficiency

A

autosomal recessive cause of SCID. excess ATP and dATP imbalances nucleotide pool via feedback inhibition of ribonucleotide reductase -? prevents DNA synthesis, so decreases lymphocyte count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

lesch-nyhan syndrome

A

defective purine salvage due to avsent HGPRT, which concerts hypoxanthine to IMP and guanine to GMP. results in excess uric acid production and de novo purine synthesis. x-linked recessive. HGPRT: hyperuricemia, gout, pissed off (aggression, self-mutilation), retardation, dysTonia. Tx w/allopurinol or febuxostat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

origin of replication

A

particular consensus sequence of base pairs in genome where DNA replication begins. may be single (prokaryotes) or multiple (eukaryotes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

replication fork

A

y-shaped region along DNA template where leading and lagging strands are synthesized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

helicase

A

unwinds DNA template at replication fork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

single-stranded binding proteins

A

prevent strands from reannealing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DNA topoisomerases

A

create a single- or double-stranded break in the helix to add or remove supercoils. fluoroquinolones inhibit prokaryotic topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

primase

A

makes an RNA primer on which DNA polymerase II can initiate replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

DNA polymerase III

A

prokaryotic only. elongates leading strand by adding deoxynucleotides to the 3’ end. elongates lagging strand until it reaches primer of preceding fragment. 3’->5’ exonuclease activity “proofreads” each added nucleotide. 5’->3’ synthesis, 3’->5’ proofreading.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

DNA polymerase I

A

prokaryotic only. degrades RNA primer, replaces it w/DNA. similar to DNA polymerase II but also excises RNA primer w/5’->3’ exonuclease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

DNA ligase

A

seals = catalyzes the formation of a phosphodiester bond w/in a strand of double-stranded DNA (i.e. joins Okazaki fragments).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

telomerase

A

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase that adds DNA to 3’ ends to avoid loss of genetic material w/every duplication. eukaryotes only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

DNA damage mutations severity

A

silent«frameshift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
SS mutation
missense (glu-valine)
26
duchenne muscular dystrophy mutation
frameshift
27
lac operon
activated in low glucose conditions when lactose is present, allowing lactose metabolism instead
28
nucleotide excision repair
single strand. specific endonucleases release the oligonucleotides containing damages bases. DNA polymerase fills the gap, DNA ligase reseals it. repairs bulky, helix-distorting lesions. occurs in G1 phase of cell cycle
29
xeroderma pigmentosum error
= error of nucleotide excision repair, pyrimidine dimers are damaged by UV exposure
30
base excision repair
single strand. base-specific glycosylase removes altered base and creates AP site. one or more nucleotides are removed by AP-endonuclease, which cleaves the 5' end. lyase cleaves the 3' end. DNA polymerase-beta fills the gap, DNA ligase seals it. occurs throughout cell cycle
31
repair of spontaneous/toxic deamination
base excision repair
32
mismatch repair
single strand. newly synthesized strand is recognizes, mismatched nucleotides are removed, and the gap is filled and resealed. orrus mostly in G2 phase
33
hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) error
mismatch repair
34
nonhomologous end joining
double strand. brings together 2 ends of DNA fragments to repair double-stranded breaks. no reuirement for homology. some DNA may be lost
35
ataxia telangiectasia and fanconi anemia error
nonhomologous end joining
36
DNA/RNA/protein synthesis direction
both are synthesized 5'->3'. 5' end of incoming nucleotide bears triphosphate, which is the energy source for the bond. protein synthesis occurs from N-terminus to C-terminus
37
chain termination
caused by drugs that blocking DNA replication. modified 3'OH targets triphosphate bond, preventing addition of the next nucleotide
38
mRNA start codons
AUG (or GUG, rarely). AUG inAURGurates protein synthesis
39
mRNA start codon in eukaryotes
codes for methionine, which may be removed before translation is completed
40
mRNA start codon in prokaryotes
codes for N-formylmethionine (fMet), which stimulates neutrophil chemotaxis.
41
mRNA stop codons
UGA, UAA, UAG. UGA = U Go Away. UAA = U Are Away. UAG = U Are Gone
42
promoter
site where RNA polymerase II and multiple other transcription factors bind to DNA upstream from gene locus (AT-rich upstream sequence w/TATA and CAAT boxes).
43
promoter mutation
commonly results in dramatic decrease in level of gene transcription
44
enhancer
stretch of DNA that alters gene expression by binding transcription factors. can be located close to, far from, or even w/in (in an intron) the gene whose expression it regulates.
45
silencer
site where negative regulators (repressors) bind. can be located close to, far from, or even w/in (in an intron) the gene whose expression it regulates.
46
RNA polymerase in eukaryotes
numbered as their products are used in protein synthesis. No proofreading fxn but can initiate chains.
47
RNA polymerase I
makes rRNA. most numerous RNA, rampant.
48
RNA polymerase II
makes mFRNA. largest RNA, massive
49
RNA polymerase III
makes tRNA. smallest RNA, tiny
50
alpha-amanitin MoA
found in amanita phalloides (death cap mushrooms). inhibits RNA polymerase II. causes severe hepatotoxicity.
51
rifampin MoA
inhibits RNA polymerase in prokaryotes
52
Actinomycin D MoA
inhibits RNA polymerase in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
53
RNA polymerases in prokaryotes
1 RNA polymerase (multisubunit complex) makes all 3 kinds of RNA
54
mRNA
= capped, tailed, and spliced transcript of heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA). transported out of nucleus into cytoplasm, where it is translated.
55
cytoplasmic P-bodies
contain exonucleases, decapping enzymes, and microRNAs, providing quality control for mRNA. mRNA can be stored inside for future translation.
56
poly-A polymerase
does not require a template.
57
polyadenylation signal
= AAUAAA. polyadenylation occurs at 3' end (~200 As), forming tail.
58
splicing of pre-mRNA
1: primary transcript combines w/small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (sRNPs) and other proteins to form spliceosome. 2: lariat-shaped (looped) intermediate is generated. 3: lariat is released to precisely remove intron and join 2 exons
59
tRNA
serves as the physical link between the nucleotide sequence of nucleic acids and the amino acid sequence of proteins
60
protein synthesis: initiation
GTP hydrolysis. initiation factors help assemble the 40s ribosomal subunit with the initiator tRNA and are released when the mRNA and the ribosomal 60S subunit assemble with the complex
61
protein synthesis: elongation
1: aminoacyl-tRNA binds to A site (except for initiator methionine). 2: rRNA ("ribozyme") catalyzes peptide bond formation, transfers growing polypeptide to AA in A site. 3: ribosome advances 3 nucleotides toward 3' end of mRNA, moving peptidyl tRNA to P side (translocation)
62
protein synthesis: termination
stop codon is recognized by release factor, and completed polypeptide is released from ribosome
63
eukaryotic ribosome
40S + 60S -> 80S = Even
64
prOkaryotic ribosome
30S + 50 -> 70S = Odd
65
E, P, and A sites
going APE: A site = incoming Aminoacyl-tRNA. P site = accommodates growing Peptide. E site = holds Empty tRNA as it Exits
66
trimming
removal of N- or C-terminal propeptides from zymogen to generate mature protein (e.g. trypsingen to trypsin)
67
covalent alterations
phosphorylation, glycosylation, hydroxylation, methylation, acetylation, and ubiquitination
68
chaperone protein
intracellular protein involved in facilitating and/or maintaining protein folding. for example, in yeast, heat shock proteins are expressed at high temperatures to prevent protein denaturing/misfolding