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Enroute Basics - Kevin's Version > Block 1 > Flashcards

Block 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Who can be delegated to approve LOAs?

A

ATREPs (Air Traffic Representatives)
ATMs
RADLOs (Region Air Defense Liaison Officer)

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2
Q

Second duty priority is given to:

A

Provide support to national security and homeland defense.

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3
Q

A route which crosses each meridian at the same angle, is known as a(n) _____.

A

Rhumb line

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4
Q

A NOTAM related to a TFR would use the keyword of:

A

AIRSPACE

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5
Q

Tower Coordinator Position

A

Performs inter/intra facility coordination, advises the tower positions of actions required
to accomplish objectives

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6
Q

What color are chevrons?

A

Yellow

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7
Q

ATC specialists who are age 40 and above must be scheduled by facility managers for medical examinations every __________ .

A

1 Year

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8
Q

Tunneling

A

Lowering Arrivals Early

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9
Q

When can a pilot interrupt their communications guard?

A

When requested and an agreeable time off frequency is established

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10
Q

When using DME for non-radar longitudinal separation, which aircraft should you obtain a position report from first (the 1st aircraft, or the 2nd)?

A

The first aircraft

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11
Q

The mission of the FAA is

A

To provide the safest most efficient aerospace system in the world

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12
Q

“Need not” or “may” means the procedures is ______

A

Optional

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13
Q

The pitch (angle of attack) of a helicopter rotor blade is controlled by the ________

A

Collective

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14
Q

What type of precipitation occurs when there is a shallow layer aloft with above-freezing temperatures, with a deep layer of below-freezing air based at the surface?

A

ice pellets

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15
Q

What color “H” do hospital heliports have?

A

Red with a large red outlined cross

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16
Q

A type of polarization that will reduce the echo from weather and make targets easier to see

A

Circular Polarization

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17
Q

What does the Inflight position in the FSS do?

A

Anything enroute to assist the pilot

ASSIST in search and rescue missions

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18
Q

Which helicopter control controls the pitch of the rotors?

A

The collective

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19
Q

What are the 6 components that usually make up an LOA?

A 
Purpose
Cancellation
Scope
Responsibility
Procedures
Attachements
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20
Q

PIREPs are used to expedite the traffic flow in the vicinity of an airport by ___________.

A

Towers and TRACONs

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21
Q

Radar Position

A
  • Uses the radar display and comm frequencies to separate and sequence all aircraft in the sector’s airspace
  • Ensure separation
  • Initiate control instructions
  • The CONTROLLER
    Will do the radar associate duties if working alone
  • In the Center: R-side ‘Radar’
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22
Q

When are additional services to be provided?

A

To the extent possible

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23
Q

Aircraft operating at or above FL600 are required to have how much separation?

A

10 miles

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24
Q

On a terminal strip, in which block is the aircraft identification located?

A

Block 1
Terminal Strip
Aircraft Identification

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25
Q

Which type of NOTAM would be issued for arial demonstrations?

A

FDC

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26
Q

Which helicopter control controls the tilt of the rotors?

A

The cyclic

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27
Q

Who is authorized to close a portion of an airport?

A

The airport manager, or anyone from the list provided by the airport manager

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28
Q

Who issues Pointer NOTAMs, and why?

A

The FSS to refer to another NOTAM

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29
Q

During Anomalous Propagation (AP), the radar beams are bent in the direction of dry dense air, or moist air?

A

Toward dry dense air

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30
Q

Consider that an emergency exists if declared by the ________.

A

Pilot, ATC facility personnel, or aircraft operator

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31
Q

When are automation procedures used in preference to non-automation procedures?

A

When workload, communications, and equipment capabilities permit.

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32
Q

In an FAA Order, “JC” represents ____.

A

The Central Service Area

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33
Q

Counter control is most effective and roll is minimal when the wingspan and the ailerons extend beyond the ________ of the vortex.

A

Outer edges

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34
Q

The vertical dimensions of the jet route system are from _______________.

A

18,000 MSL - FL450

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35
Q

What does the Broadcast position in the FSS do?

A

Compile, evaluate, record and disseminate weather and flight information through TWEB, TIBS and HIWAS broadcasts

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36
Q

The position in direct communication with the aircraft is:

A

Radar Position

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37
Q

The National Weather Service office that issues Central Weather Advisories (CWAs) and Meteorological Impact Statements (MISs) is the ______.

A

Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU)

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38
Q

What kind of cloud produces little or no turbulence, but can produce icing?

A

Stratiform

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39
Q

Which type of jamming is achieved by electronically disrupting the radar operating frequency which results in a clutter pattern similar to radar interference.

A

Active Radar Jamming

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40
Q

JO 7340.2 is for

A

Contraditions

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41
Q

An unusable portion of the runway which appears usable and is marked with large yellow chevrons identifies a

A

blast pad

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42
Q

The major components of the pitot-static system are the ________.

A

Impact and static pressure, chambers, and lines

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43
Q

The purpose of the NFDC (National Flight Data Center) is

A

To collect, validate and disseminate aeronautical data

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44
Q

Aircraft on an IFR flight plan is considered overdue how long after they were supposed to report?

A

30 minutes

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45
Q

What are the 2 disadvantages to Moving Target Indicator (MTI)?

A

Blind speed

Tangential Course

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46
Q

Airmen’s information can be disseminated via aeronautical charts and _______.

A

Flight information publications

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47
Q

The position responsible for compiling statistical data and forwarding flight plan data is:

A

Radar Flight Data Position

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48
Q

A high density altitude indicates ______.

A

Low density (thin) air

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49
Q

What happens to the runway edge lights on instrument approach runways for the last 2000ft, or half of the runway (whichever if less)?

A

Yellow replaces the white

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50
Q

What color are the painted markings for closed and hazardous areas and holding positions?

A

Yellow

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51
Q

First duty priority is given to:

A

Separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts.

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52
Q

Which instrument is designed to receive both VOR and NDB signals?

A

Radio magnetic indicator (RMI)

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53
Q

Normal radar transmission that will cause an echo from anything that has mass

A

Linear polarization

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54
Q

What is the mission of the Traffic Management (TM) System?

A

To balance air traffic demand with system capacity and to ensure maximum efficiency
utilization of the NAS

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55
Q

The FSS that initiates SAR missions is:

A

Flight Data/NOTAM Coordinator

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56
Q

Which 2 parts make up the system used for disseminating aeronautical information?

A

AIS and NOTAMs

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57
Q

The minimum safe altitude for a VFR flight over a congested area is 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a __________ foot radius of the aircraft.

A

2,000ft

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58
Q

Which type of jamming is achieved by dropping large amounts of shredded foil

A

Passive Radar Jamming

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59
Q

What color are runway and taxiway shoulder markings?

A

Yellow

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60
Q

JO 7110.10 is for

A

Flight service

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61
Q

Operational Priority Order:

A
  1. Distress
  2. Air Ambulance (or military air evac/scheduled aircraft with medevac on board)
  3. Search and Rescue
  4. Presidential
  5. Flight Check
  6. Special Military and Civilian Operations
  7. Diversions

Don’t allow stupid people fly sober or drunk.

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62
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring the origination of a NOTAM D concerning NAVAIDs?

A

Tech Ops

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63
Q

Non-radar Longitudinal Separation: Same Course

A

Aircraft whose angular difference is less than 45 degrees

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64
Q

What symbol should be used to delete any unwanted or unused altitude information?

A

X

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65
Q

What processes, stores, verifies and distributes NOTAMs?

A

The United States NOTAM System (USNS)

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66
Q

What color beacon does a heliport have?

A

Flashing white, yellow and green.

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67
Q

How often is the AFD (Airport/facility directory) updated?

A

Every 56 days

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68
Q

At approximately what angle of attack will air no longer flow smoothly over the wing’s upper surface?

A

15-20 degrees

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69
Q

What are the 4 types of NOTAMs?

A
  • NOTAM D
  • FDC NOTAM
  • Pointer NOTAM
  • Military NOTAM
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70
Q

What are the two modes of Polarization?

A

Linear and Circular

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71
Q

Types of Directives:

What are Notices?

A

Self-canceling temporary directives that expire 1 year from their effective date, or include a cancellation date within the year

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72
Q

Radar Associate Position

A
  • Provides assistance to the radar position by relieving them of duties that distract them
    from communicating with pilots
  • Ensure separation and initiate control instructions
  • If there is only one person at the sector, the controller acts as the radar associate and the radar position
  • In the Center: D-side ‘Developmental’
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73
Q

Flight Service Stations are responsible for:

A

Providing pilot briefings, receiving and processing IFR/VFR flight plans

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74
Q

This phrase is used by a pilot to express an urgent situation, but do not require immediate assistance.

A

Pan-pan.

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75
Q

How are FDC NOTAMs cancelled?

A

By issuing another FDC NOTAM that notes the cancellation

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76
Q

Which of the following is a gyroscopic instrument?

A

Heading Indicator

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77
Q

On an En Route strip, in which block is the aircraft identification located?

A

Block 3
Enroute Strip
Aircraft Identification

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78
Q

What are the 3 types of Notices?

A

GENOTs (General Notices)
RENOTs (Regional Notices)
SERNOTs (Service Area notices)

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79
Q

What are the 4 positions in the Flight Service Station?

A
  1. Flight Data/NOTAM Coordinator
  2. Broadcast
  3. Preflight
  4. Inflight
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80
Q

“Should” means the procedures is ______

A

Recommended

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81
Q

What are the components of secondary radar?

A
  • Interrogator
  • Antenna
  • Transponder
  • Decoder
  • Radar Display
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82
Q

What causes temperature inversion clutter on primary radar systems?

A

Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal

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83
Q

A line or narrow zone along which there is an abrupt change of wind direction defines ______.

A

A sudden wind shift

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84
Q

Occurs when warmer air is trapped on top of cooler air

A

Temperature inversion

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85
Q

What causes anomalous propagation clutter on primary radar systems?

A

Moisture in the air which bends the radar signal

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86
Q

These lights consist of a pair of synchronized white flashing strobe lights located on each side of the runway threshold facing the incoming traffic.

A

Runway End Identifier Lights (REILs)

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87
Q

What color beacon does a water airport have?

A

Flashing white and yellow

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88
Q

Who submits a NOTAM to the USNS?

A

A Certified Source

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89
Q

What two phenomena may cause false targets to appears on a secondary radar display?

A
  • Transponder Operating Near Obstructions

- Ring Around

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90
Q

How often is the AIS (Airmen’s Information System) updated?

A

Every 28 days

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91
Q

Who can edit a NOTAM?

A

The USNOF

FDC NOTAMs can NOT be edited

92
Q

Frequencies placed just above a communication box on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart are used to contact which type of facility?

A

Flight Service Station

93
Q

What does a mandatory instruction sign look like? What are they used for?

A

Red background with white writing.

Used for runway holding position signs & no entry signs

94
Q

A secondary form of lift is an upward force generated by air striking the underside of the airfoil and being deflected __________.

A

Downward

95
Q

In an FAA Order, “JE” represents ____.

A

The Eastern Service Area

96
Q

A pilot must begin using supplemental oxygen for the entire flight when flying at altitudes ________.

A

Above 14,000 MSL

97
Q

FDC NOTAMs are issued about what what?

A

Flight Information that is normally regulatory in nature

Interim IFR flight procedures

TFRs

98
Q

For routine maintenance of a NAVAID, a NOTAM shall be issued at least __ hours in advance.

A

5 hours

99
Q

An aircraft on an IFR flight plan is in VFR conditions when a two-way radio failure occurs. The pilot must ________.

A

Proceed VFR and land as soon as practical.

100
Q

World Aeronautical Charts are used primarily for which type of navigation?

A

Pilotage

101
Q

What letters are used to identify Regional Notices?

A

RENOT

102
Q

What denotes a permanently closed runway?

A

Yellow X’s painted at each end of the runway and in 1,000ft intervals

103
Q

Which National Weather Station (NWS) product contains forecasts of extensive mountain obscurations?

A

AIRMET SIERRA

104
Q

How should air traffic control services be provided?

A

On a first come, first serve basis.

105
Q

T Routes

A

Low Level RNAV routes

SFC-18,000ft

106
Q

Radar Coordinator Position

A
  • Perform interfacility/sector/position coordination of traffic actions
  • Coordinates with other facilities
107
Q

How much vertical separation is required above FL600?

A

5,000ft

108
Q

When air density decreases what occurs?

A

Landing speed is faster and engine power output will decrease

109
Q

What is the standard minima for non-radar longitudinal separation?

A

10 minutes or 20 miles

110
Q

The maximum usable range of an “H” class VOR is _______.

A

130nm

111
Q

Who directs the operation of the traffic management system (TM) ?

A

The ATCSCC

112
Q

In the terminal environment, how far from the antenna must an aircraft be in order to use 3 mile separation?

A

LESS than 40 mi

113
Q

The two subsystems for disseminating aeronautical information are

A

AIS and NOTAMs

114
Q

The position responsible for ensuring separation, initiating control instructions, managing flight strip information, and assisting the radar position with coordination is the:

A

Radar Associate Position

115
Q

Requires no equipment in the aircraft

A

Primary Radar

116
Q

What are the 5 lines of authority?

A 
FAA Administrator
ATO COO
Service Areas
Facilities
Controllers
117
Q

When is an aircraft’s TAS is significantly higher than its IAS?

A

At high altitudes

118
Q

The first duty priority of an air traffic controller is

A

separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts

119
Q

What color “H” do civil heliports have?

A

White

120
Q

What is a disadvantage of a secondary radar system?

A

It does not display weather

121
Q

These 9 regions are responsible for placement and staffing

A

Aeronautical Center Operations

122
Q

This technology only allows the radar to show targets which are in motion.

A

Moving Target Indicator (MTI)

123
Q

When shall controllers provide additional services?

A

To the extent possible, contingent only upon higher priority duties and other factors
including limitations of radar, volume of traffic, frequency congestion and workload.

124
Q

Types of Directives:

What are Supplements?

A

Provide additional internal guidence

125
Q

Which of the following is an interagency agreement which provides for the effective use of all available facilities in all types of search and rescue missions?

A

National Search and Rescue Plan

126
Q

What product is for ATC use to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next two hours?

A

CWA (Center Weather Advisory)

127
Q

Which FAA Order explains NOTAMs?

A

JO 7930.2, Notices to Airmen

128
Q

The NOTAM code “U” stands for _____?

A

Unverified aeronautical information (use only if LOA allows)

ie. Airport NOTAMs that haven’t been verified with airport management.

129
Q

A line connecting points of zero variation is called a(n) ________.

A

Agonic line

130
Q

On an En Route Low Altitude chart, prohibited, restricted, and warning areas are shown within ________ boundaries.

A

Blue hatched

131
Q

The three types of temporary or additional instructions to an FAA directive are _______.

A

Changes, notices, supplements

132
Q

When an aircraft is in a hold, when does the outbound leg timer begin?

A

Over/abeam the fix (whichever occurs later)

133
Q

JO 7210.3 is for

A

Facility operations and adminstration

134
Q

Who ensures NOTAM formats and is charged with monitoring the USNS?

A

The United States NOTAM Office (USNOF)

135
Q

What are Traffic Management Initiatives (TMIs)?

A

Techniques used to manage demand with capacity in the NAS

136
Q

A standard holding pattern uses which direction of turns?

A

RIGHT

137
Q

Which FAA document lists the location identifiers?

A

FAA JO 7350.9

138
Q

This phrase is used by a pilot to express that they are in distress and require immediate assistance.

A

MAYDAY!

139
Q

What do Traffic Management Units (TMUs) do?

A
  • Monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with
    traffic management directives
  • All centers have a TMU
  • Only busy towers/TRACONs have a TMU
140
Q

This type of polarization is the normal radar transmission that will cause an echo from anything that has mass.

A

Linear Polarization

141
Q

The NOTAM code “O” stands for ______?

A

Other Aeronautical Information

142
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement for applying visual separation in a radar environment?

A

The pilots of both aircraft have the other aircraft in sight

143
Q

The Radar Coordinator Position is responsible for:

A

Interfacility/interfacility coordination

144
Q

The operation of the TMS is the responsibility of the ________.

A

Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC)

145
Q

In the terminal environment, at what distance from the radar antenna does a controller need to separate an aircraft by 5 miles?

A

40mi or more

146
Q

What is the FAA’s Mission?

A

To provide the safest, most efficient aerospace system in the world.

147
Q

Which type of lighting consists of two rows of lights, one on each side and parallel to the runway centerline lights?

A

Touchdown Zone Lighting (TDZL)

148
Q

Where must military NOTAMs be disseminated?

A

In the civil system as well as the military system

149
Q

What does the Flight Data/NOTAM Coordinator in the FSS do?

A
  • Disseminates IFR and VFR flight plans, disseminates NOTAMs, performs customs notifications
  • INITIATES Search and Rescue missions
150
Q

Who is responsible for observing and reporting the condition of the aerodrome (airport)?

A

Airport management

151
Q

Depicts the position and movemenet of objects that reflect radio energy

A

Radar Display

152
Q

When is non-radar separation used in preference to radar separation?

A

When an operational advantage will be gained.

153
Q

This occurs when warmer air is trapped on top of cooler air.

A

Temperature Inversion

It deflects the radar signal and affects primary radar.

154
Q

The operation of the traffic management system is the responsibility of:

A

The ATCSCC

155
Q

Which weather product is for ATC planning purposes only?

A

Meteorological impact statement (MIS)

156
Q

RVSM Airspace extends up to ____?

A

FL290

157
Q

Category III aircraft generally climb at what rate?

A

2,000ft - 4,000ft per minute

158
Q

Q Routes

A

High level RNAV routes
FL180-FL450
Above FL450, aircraft must fly direct routes

159
Q

Virtually all aircraft fly in which two layers of the atmosphere?

A

Troposphere and stratosphere

160
Q

When the ________ is greater than zero, the air is unsaturated.

A

Temperature-dew point spread

161
Q

Time remaining is expressed in _____.

A

Minutes

162
Q

When issuing a Pointer NOTAM, which part must match the original NOTAM D?

A

the keywords

163
Q

What is the electronic device that permits radar presentations only from targets in motion?

A

Moving target indicator (MTI)

164
Q

The NOTAM code “AD” stands for _____?

A

Aerodrome

165
Q

Non-radar Longitudinal Separation: Crossing Courses

A

Aircraft whose angular difference in intersecting courses is 45-135 degrees

166
Q

In an FAA Order, “JW” represents ____.

A

The Western Service Area

167
Q

The review and approval authority for LOAs is _____

A

The Service Area Office

168
Q

SIDs are listed alphabetically in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publication first under city, then under ________.

A

Airport Name

169
Q

When using non-radar departure divergence ___________.

A

The ATCS must assign courses that diverge by at least 45 degrees

170
Q

The FSS position that issues airport advisories is:

A

Inflight position

171
Q

VFR flyway planning charts are found on _________.

A

VFR Terminal Area Charts

172
Q

A pilot must file a DVFR flight plan if the flight will ________.

A

Enter coastal ADIZ

173
Q

Who is responsible for originating a NOTAM concerning a navigational aid?

A

Facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the navigational aid

174
Q

Enroute Sequencing Program:

A

Assigns departure times that will facilitate integration into the enroute traffic stream

175
Q

How much vertical separation is required In oceanic airspace, above FL450 between a supersonic and any other aircraft?

A

4,000ft

176
Q

What are the 4 components of a primary radar system?

A

Transmitter
Antenna
Receiver
Radar Display

177
Q

A single engine turbojet aircraft weighing less than 12,500 pounds is classified as a ________.

A

Category III

178
Q

On an En Route High Altitude Chart, all NAVAIDs shown are ________ class, unless otherwise identified.

A

High

179
Q

The method of navigation that requires the use of ground-based transmitters is called ________.

A

Radio Navigation

180
Q

Other than the airport manager, which airport personnel are authorized to originate a NOTAM?

A

Anyone from the list provided by the airport manager

181
Q

Types of Directives:

What are Changes?

A

Additions, deletions or modifications to orders

182
Q

Reflected energy from a radar signal is called:

A

an Echo or Target

183
Q

The Chief Operating Officer (COO) oversees _______.

A

The Air Traffic Organization (ATO)

184
Q

JO 7360.1 is for

A

Aircraft type designators

185
Q

What color beacon does a civilian airport have?

A

Flashing White and Green

186
Q

Which type of bulletin uses the alphabetic designators Sierra, Tango, or Zulu to indicate the type of condition being reported?

A

AIRMET

187
Q

The safe, secure and efficient management for the NAS is the responsibility of:

A

Air Traffic Services (AJT)

188
Q

Non-radar Longitudinal Separation: Opposite/Reciprocal Courses

A

Aircraft whose angular difference is 136-180 degrees.

189
Q

What is the order of NOTAMs from top to bottom?

A 
NFDC
USNOF
USNS
Certified Source
Everyone
190
Q

Temporary directions or one-time announcements are made through ________.

A

Notices

191
Q

Basic terrain contour lines on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart are generally spaced at ________ foot intervals.

A

500ft intervals

192
Q

What does the Preflight position in the FSS do?

A

Brief/translate weather, NOTAMs, flow control restrictions or VFR not recommended (VNR) to the pilots

193
Q

Which FAA document contains the approved words and phrase contractions used by personnel in the FAA?

A

FAA JO 7340.2

194
Q

Another name for “thrust stream turbulence” is ______.

A

Jet blast

195
Q

Tower Associate Position

A

Assists the tower positions by performing coordination and helps to ensure separation by
maintaining awareness of tower traffic

196
Q

Jet blast is the greatest hazard when ________.

A

Taxiing

197
Q

How long are standard holding legs? At what altitude does it change, and what does it change to?

A

1 minute legs 14,000 or below

1.5 minute legs above 14,000

198
Q

Convective currents are most active on ________ when winds are light.

A

Warm, summer afternoons

199
Q

Reduces or eliminates echoes from precipitation

A

Circular polarization

200
Q

Center Weather Advisories (CWAs) are issued when?

A

On an unscheduled (as needed) basis

201
Q

When is radar separation used in preference to non-radar separation?

A

When there will be an operational advantage and workload, communications and
equipment permit.

202
Q

Which special use airspace is always located offshore?

A

Warning area

203
Q

JO 7350.9 is for

A

Location Identifiers

204
Q

The Air Traffic Organization (ATO) is managed by a:

A

Chief Operating Officer (COO)

205
Q

Convective currents are most active on ________ when winds are light

A

Warm, Summer afternoons

206
Q

The valid period of a routine TAF beginning at 0000Z on the 10th day of the month would be coded as ______.

A

1000/1024

207
Q

The primary purpose of ATC is:

A

To prevent a collision between aircraft operating in the system and to provide a safe,
orderly and expeditious flow of traffic and to provide support for National Security and Homeland Defense.

208
Q

With zero wind, vortices near the ground will travel laterally at a speed of ________ knots.

A

2-3 knots

209
Q

What color are the painted markings for closed and hazardous areas and holding positions?

A

Yellow

210
Q

The Tower Controller

A

Works to ensure that the overall operation is at its greatest capacity while maintaining
safety standards

211
Q

Appearance of clutter on the radar display caused by moisture in the air bending the radar beam

A

Anomolous Propagation

212
Q

Focuses, broadcasts and collects reflected radio energy

A

Antenna

213
Q

Who is responsible for monitoring and balancing air traffic flows within their area of responsibility?

A

The TMU

214
Q

What is the purpose of a Pointer NOTAM?

A

To highlight or point out another NOTAM

215
Q

What are the 3 types of ATC facilities?

A
  1. Flight Service Station (FSS)
  2. Terminal ATC Facility
  3. ARTCC
216
Q

Secondary radar interference caused by a transponder replying excessively is called ______.

A

Ring Around

217
Q

Who is responsible for issuing a SOP directive?

A

The facility manager

218
Q

100 nautical miles equals ____________ SM.

A

100nm = 115sm

219
Q

In an FAA Order, “JO” represents ____.

A

The entire ATO (Air Traffic Organization) as a whole.

220
Q

During which phenomenon does the radar beam not travel in a straight line?

A

AP (Anomalous Propagation)

221
Q

What kind of lights emit a green or red light at the end of the runway?

A

Threshold lights

222
Q

A NOTAM that is widely disseminated and applies to civil components of the NAS is classified as a _______.

A

NOTAM D

223
Q

Types of Directives:

What are Orders?

A

Permanent directives that stay in effect until canceled

224
Q

Relative wind is ______.

A

The direction of the airflow produced by an object moving through the air

225
Q

Ground Delay Program

A

Aircraft are held on the ground until a specified time

226
Q

Capping

A

Keeping departures low and level until clear of higher traffic

Enroute Basics - Kevin's Version (6 decks)

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