Block 1 Flashcards
(226 cards)
1
Q
Who can be delegated to approve LOAs?
A
ATREPs (Air Traffic Representatives)
ATMs
RADLOs (Region Air Defense Liaison Officer)
2
Q
Second duty priority is given to:
A
Provide support to national security and homeland defense.
3
Q
A route which crosses each meridian at the same angle, is known as a(n) _____.
A
Rhumb line
4
Q
A NOTAM related to a TFR would use the keyword of:
A
AIRSPACE
5
Q
Tower Coordinator Position
A
Performs inter/intra facility coordination, advises the tower positions of actions required
to accomplish objectives
6
Q
What color are chevrons?
A
Yellow
7
Q
ATC specialists who are age 40 and above must be scheduled by facility managers for medical examinations every __________ .
A
1 Year
8
Q
Tunneling
A
Lowering Arrivals Early
9
Q
When can a pilot interrupt their communications guard?
A
When requested and an agreeable time off frequency is established
10
Q
When using DME for non-radar longitudinal separation, which aircraft should you obtain a position report from first (the 1st aircraft, or the 2nd)?
A
The first aircraft
11
Q
The mission of the FAA is
A
To provide the safest most efficient aerospace system in the world
12
Q
“Need not” or “may” means the procedures is ______
A
Optional
13
Q
The pitch (angle of attack) of a helicopter rotor blade is controlled by the ________
A
Collective
14
Q
What type of precipitation occurs when there is a shallow layer aloft with above-freezing temperatures, with a deep layer of below-freezing air based at the surface?
A
ice pellets
15
Q
What color “H” do hospital heliports have?
A
Red with a large red outlined cross
16
Q
A type of polarization that will reduce the echo from weather and make targets easier to see
A
Circular Polarization
17
Q
What does the Inflight position in the FSS do?
A
Anything enroute to assist the pilot
ASSIST in search and rescue missions
18
Q
Which helicopter control controls the pitch of the rotors?
A
The collective
19
Q
What are the 6 components that usually make up an LOA?
A
Purpose Cancellation Scope Responsibility Procedures Attachements
20
Q
PIREPs are used to expedite the traffic flow in the vicinity of an airport by ___________.
A
Towers and TRACONs
21
Q
Radar Position
A
- Uses the radar display and comm frequencies to separate and sequence all aircraft in the sector’s airspace
- Ensure separation
- Initiate control instructions
- The CONTROLLER
Will do the radar associate duties if working alone - In the Center: R-side ‘Radar’
22
Q
When are additional services to be provided?
A
To the extent possible
23
Q
Aircraft operating at or above FL600 are required to have how much separation?
A
10 miles
24
Q
On a terminal strip, in which block is the aircraft identification located?
A
Block 1
Terminal Strip
Aircraft Identification
25
Which type of NOTAM would be issued for arial demonstrations?
FDC
26
Which helicopter control controls the tilt of the rotors?
The cyclic
27
Who is authorized to close a portion of an airport?
The airport manager, or anyone from the list provided by the airport manager
28
Who issues Pointer NOTAMs, and why?
The FSS to refer to another NOTAM
29
During Anomalous Propagation (AP), the radar beams are bent in the direction of dry dense air, or moist air?
Toward dry dense air
30
Consider that an emergency exists if declared by the ________.
Pilot, ATC facility personnel, or aircraft operator
31
When are automation procedures used in preference to non-automation procedures?
When workload, communications, and equipment capabilities permit.
32
In an FAA Order, "JC" represents ____.
The Central Service Area
33
Counter control is most effective and roll is minimal when the wingspan and the ailerons extend beyond the ________ of the vortex.
Outer edges
34
The vertical dimensions of the jet route system are from _______________.
18,000 MSL - FL450
35
What does the Broadcast position in the FSS do?
Compile, evaluate, record and disseminate weather and flight information through TWEB, TIBS and HIWAS broadcasts
36
The position in direct communication with the aircraft is:
Radar Position
37
The National Weather Service office that issues Central Weather Advisories (CWAs) and Meteorological Impact Statements (MISs) is the ______.
Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU)
38
What kind of cloud produces little or no turbulence, but can produce icing?
Stratiform
39
Which type of jamming is achieved by electronically disrupting the radar operating frequency which results in a clutter pattern similar to radar interference.
Active Radar Jamming
40
JO 7340.2 is for
Contraditions
41
An unusable portion of the runway which appears usable and is marked with large yellow chevrons identifies a
blast pad
42
The major components of the pitot-static system are the ________.
Impact and static pressure, chambers, and lines
43
The purpose of the NFDC (National Flight Data Center) is
To collect, validate and disseminate aeronautical data
44
Aircraft on an IFR flight plan is considered overdue how long after they were supposed to report?
30 minutes
45
What are the 2 disadvantages to Moving Target Indicator (MTI)?
Blind speed
Tangential Course
46
Airmen's information can be disseminated via aeronautical charts and _______.
Flight information publications
47
The position responsible for compiling statistical data and forwarding flight plan data is:
Radar Flight Data Position
48
A high density altitude indicates ______.
Low density (thin) air
49
What happens to the runway edge lights on instrument approach runways for the last 2000ft, or half of the runway (whichever if less)?
Yellow replaces the white
50
What color are the painted markings for closed and hazardous areas and holding positions?
Yellow
51
First duty priority is given to:
Separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts.
52
Which instrument is designed to receive both VOR and NDB signals?
Radio magnetic indicator (RMI)
53
Normal radar transmission that will cause an echo from anything that has mass
Linear polarization
54
What is the mission of the Traffic Management (TM) System?
To balance air traffic demand with system capacity and to ensure maximum efficiency
utilization of the NAS
55
The FSS that initiates SAR missions is:
Flight Data/NOTAM Coordinator
56
Which 2 parts make up the system used for disseminating aeronautical information?
AIS and NOTAMs
57
The minimum safe altitude for a VFR flight over a congested area is 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a __________ foot radius of the aircraft.
2,000ft
58
Which type of jamming is achieved by dropping large amounts of shredded foil
Passive Radar Jamming
59
What color are runway and taxiway shoulder markings?
Yellow
60
JO 7110.10 is for
Flight service
61
Operational Priority Order:
1. Distress
2. Air Ambulance (or military air evac/scheduled aircraft with medevac on board)
3. Search and Rescue
4. Presidential
5. Flight Check
6. Special Military and Civilian Operations
7. Diversions
Don’t allow stupid people fly sober or drunk.
62
Who is responsible for ensuring the origination of a NOTAM D concerning NAVAIDs?
Tech Ops
63
Non-radar Longitudinal Separation: Same Course
Aircraft whose angular difference is less than 45 degrees
64
What symbol should be used to delete any unwanted or unused altitude information?
X
65
What processes, stores, verifies and distributes NOTAMs?
The United States NOTAM System (USNS)
66
What color beacon does a heliport have?
Flashing white, yellow and green.
67
How often is the AFD (Airport/facility directory) updated?
Every 56 days
68
At approximately what angle of attack will air no longer flow smoothly over the wing's upper surface?
15-20 degrees
69
What are the 4 types of NOTAMs?
- NOTAM D
- FDC NOTAM
- Pointer NOTAM
- Military NOTAM
70
What are the two modes of Polarization?
Linear and Circular
71
Types of Directives:
| What are Notices?
Self-canceling temporary directives that expire 1 year from their effective date, or include a cancellation date within the year
72
Radar Associate Position
- Provides assistance to the radar position by relieving them of duties that distract them
from communicating with pilots
- Ensure separation and initiate control instructions
- If there is only one person at the sector, the controller acts as the radar associate and the radar position
- In the Center: D-side ‘Developmental’
73
Flight Service Stations are responsible for:
Providing pilot briefings, receiving and processing IFR/VFR flight plans
74
This phrase is used by a pilot to express an urgent situation, but do not require immediate assistance.
Pan-pan.
75
How are FDC NOTAMs cancelled?
By issuing another FDC NOTAM that notes the cancellation
76
Which of the following is a gyroscopic instrument?
Heading Indicator
77
On an En Route strip, in which block is the aircraft identification located?
Block 3
Enroute Strip
Aircraft Identification
78
What are the 3 types of Notices?
GENOTs (General Notices)
RENOTs (Regional Notices)
SERNOTs (Service Area notices)
79
What are the 4 positions in the Flight Service Station?
1. Flight Data/NOTAM Coordinator
2. Broadcast
3. Preflight
4. Inflight
80
"Should" means the procedures is ______
Recommended
81
What are the components of secondary radar?
- Interrogator
- Antenna
- Transponder
- Decoder
- Radar Display
82
What causes temperature inversion clutter on primary radar systems?
Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal
83
A line or narrow zone along which there is an abrupt change of wind direction defines ______.
A sudden wind shift
84
Occurs when warmer air is trapped on top of cooler air
Temperature inversion
85
What causes anomalous propagation clutter on primary radar systems?
Moisture in the air which bends the radar signal
86
These lights consist of a pair of synchronized white flashing strobe lights located on each side of the runway threshold facing the incoming traffic.
Runway End Identifier Lights (REILs)
87
What color beacon does a water airport have?
Flashing white and yellow
88
Who submits a NOTAM to the USNS?
A Certified Source
89
What two phenomena may cause false targets to appears on a secondary radar display?
- Transponder Operating Near Obstructions
| - Ring Around
90
How often is the AIS (Airmen's Information System) updated?
Every 28 days
91
Who can edit a NOTAM?
The USNOF
FDC NOTAMs can NOT be edited
92
Frequencies placed just above a communication box on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart are used to contact which type of facility?
Flight Service Station
93
What does a mandatory instruction sign look like? What are they used for?
Red background with white writing.
Used for runway holding position signs & no entry signs
94
A secondary form of lift is an upward force generated by air striking the underside of the airfoil and being deflected __________.
Downward
95
In an FAA Order, "JE" represents ____.
The Eastern Service Area
96
A pilot must begin using supplemental oxygen for the entire flight when flying at altitudes ________.
Above 14,000 MSL
97
FDC NOTAMs are issued about what what?
Flight Information that is normally regulatory in nature
Interim IFR flight procedures
TFRs
98
For routine maintenance of a NAVAID, a NOTAM shall be issued at least __ hours in advance.
5 hours
99
An aircraft on an IFR flight plan is in VFR conditions when a two-way radio failure occurs. The pilot must ________.
Proceed VFR and land as soon as practical.
100
World Aeronautical Charts are used primarily for which type of navigation?
Pilotage
101
What letters are used to identify Regional Notices?
RENOT
102
What denotes a permanently closed runway?
Yellow X's painted at each end of the runway and in 1,000ft intervals
103
Which National Weather Station (NWS) product contains forecasts of extensive mountain obscurations?
AIRMET SIERRA
104
How should air traffic control services be provided?
On a first come, first serve basis.
105
T Routes
Low Level RNAV routes
| SFC-18,000ft
106
Radar Coordinator Position
- Perform interfacility/sector/position coordination of traffic actions
- Coordinates with other facilities
107
How much vertical separation is required above FL600?
5,000ft
108
When air density decreases what occurs?
Landing speed is faster and engine power output will decrease
109
What is the standard minima for non-radar longitudinal separation?
10 minutes or 20 miles
110
The maximum usable range of an "H" class VOR is _______.
130nm
111
Who directs the operation of the traffic management system (TM) ?
The ATCSCC
112
In the terminal environment, how far from the antenna must an aircraft be in order to use 3 mile separation?
LESS than 40 mi
113
The two subsystems for disseminating aeronautical information are
AIS and NOTAMs
114
The position responsible for ensuring separation, initiating control instructions, managing flight strip information, and assisting the radar position with coordination is the:
Radar Associate Position
115
Requires no equipment in the aircraft
Primary Radar
116
What are the 5 lines of authority?
```
FAA Administrator
ATO COO
Service Areas
Facilities
Controllers
```
117
When is an aircraft's TAS is significantly higher than its IAS?
At high altitudes
118
The first duty priority of an air traffic controller is
separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts
119
What color "H" do civil heliports have?
White
120
What is a disadvantage of a secondary radar system?
It does not display weather
121
These 9 regions are responsible for placement and staffing
Aeronautical Center Operations
122
This technology only allows the radar to show targets which are in motion.
Moving Target Indicator (MTI)
123
When shall controllers provide additional services?
To the extent possible, contingent only upon higher priority duties and other factors
including limitations of radar, volume of traffic, frequency congestion and workload.
124
Types of Directives:
| What are Supplements?
Provide additional internal guidence
125
Which of the following is an interagency agreement which provides for the effective use of all available facilities in all types of search and rescue missions?
National Search and Rescue Plan
126
What product is for ATC use to alert pilots of existing or anticipated adverse weather conditions within the next two hours?
CWA (Center Weather Advisory)
127
Which FAA Order explains NOTAMs?
JO 7930.2, Notices to Airmen
128
The NOTAM code "U" stands for _____?
Unverified aeronautical information (use only if LOA allows)
| ie. Airport NOTAMs that haven't been verified with airport management.
129
A line connecting points of zero variation is called a(n) ________.
Agonic line
130
On an En Route Low Altitude chart, prohibited, restricted, and warning areas are shown within ________ boundaries.
Blue hatched
131
The three types of temporary or additional instructions to an FAA directive are _______.
Changes, notices, supplements
132
When an aircraft is in a hold, when does the outbound leg timer begin?
Over/abeam the fix (whichever occurs later)
133
JO 7210.3 is for
Facility operations and adminstration
134
Who ensures NOTAM formats and is charged with monitoring the USNS?
The United States NOTAM Office (USNOF)
135
What are Traffic Management Initiatives (TMIs)?
Techniques used to manage demand with capacity in the NAS
136
A standard holding pattern uses which direction of turns?
RIGHT
137
Which FAA document lists the location identifiers?
FAA JO 7350.9
138
This phrase is used by a pilot to express that they are in distress and require immediate assistance.
MAYDAY!
139
What do Traffic Management Units (TMUs) do?
- Monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with
traffic management directives
- All centers have a TMU
- Only busy towers/TRACONs have a TMU
140
This type of polarization is the normal radar transmission that will cause an echo from anything that has mass.
Linear Polarization
141
The NOTAM code "O" stands for ______?
Other Aeronautical Information
142
Which of the following is not a requirement for applying visual separation in a radar environment?
The pilots of both aircraft have the other aircraft in sight
143
The Radar Coordinator Position is responsible for:
Interfacility/interfacility coordination
144
The operation of the TMS is the responsibility of the ________.
Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC)
145
In the terminal environment, at what distance from the radar antenna does a controller need to separate an aircraft by 5 miles?
40mi or more
146
What is the FAA’s Mission?
To provide the safest, most efficient aerospace system in the world.
147
Which type of lighting consists of two rows of lights, one on each side and parallel to the runway centerline lights?
Touchdown Zone Lighting (TDZL)
148
Where must military NOTAMs be disseminated?
In the civil system as well as the military system
149
What does the Flight Data/NOTAM Coordinator in the FSS do?
- Disseminates IFR and VFR flight plans, disseminates NOTAMs, performs customs notifications
- INITIATES Search and Rescue missions
150
Who is responsible for observing and reporting the condition of the aerodrome (airport)?
Airport management
151
Depicts the position and movemenet of objects that reflect radio energy
Radar Display
152
When is non-radar separation used in preference to radar separation?
When an operational advantage will be gained.
153
This occurs when warmer air is trapped on top of cooler air.
Temperature Inversion
It deflects the radar signal and affects primary radar.
154
The operation of the traffic management system is the responsibility of:
The ATCSCC
155
Which weather product is for ATC planning purposes only?
Meteorological impact statement (MIS)
156
RVSM Airspace extends up to ____?
FL290
157
Category III aircraft generally climb at what rate?
2,000ft - 4,000ft per minute
158
Q Routes
High level RNAV routes
FL180-FL450
Above FL450, aircraft must fly direct routes
159
Virtually all aircraft fly in which two layers of the atmosphere?
Troposphere and stratosphere
160
When the ________ is greater than zero, the air is unsaturated.
Temperature-dew point spread
161
Time remaining is expressed in _____.
Minutes
162
When issuing a Pointer NOTAM, which part must match the original NOTAM D?
the keywords
163
What is the electronic device that permits radar presentations only from targets in motion?
Moving target indicator (MTI)
164
The NOTAM code "AD" stands for _____?
Aerodrome
165
Non-radar Longitudinal Separation: Crossing Courses
Aircraft whose angular difference in intersecting courses is 45-135 degrees
166
In an FAA Order, "JW" represents ____.
The Western Service Area
167
The review and approval authority for LOAs is _____
The Service Area Office
168
SIDs are listed alphabetically in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publication first under city, then under ________.
Airport Name
169
When using non-radar departure divergence ___________.
The ATCS must assign courses that diverge by at least 45 degrees
170
The FSS position that issues airport advisories is:
Inflight position
171
VFR flyway planning charts are found on _________.
VFR Terminal Area Charts
172
A pilot must file a DVFR flight plan if the flight will ________.
Enter coastal ADIZ
173
Who is responsible for originating a NOTAM concerning a navigational aid?
Facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the navigational aid
174
Enroute Sequencing Program:
Assigns departure times that will facilitate integration into the enroute traffic stream
175
How much vertical separation is required In oceanic airspace, above FL450 between a supersonic and any other aircraft?
4,000ft
176
What are the 4 components of a primary radar system?
Transmitter
Antenna
Receiver
Radar Display
177
A single engine turbojet aircraft weighing less than 12,500 pounds is classified as a ________.
Category III
178
On an En Route High Altitude Chart, all NAVAIDs shown are ________ class, unless otherwise identified.
High
179
The method of navigation that requires the use of ground-based transmitters is called ________.
Radio Navigation
180
Other than the airport manager, which airport personnel are authorized to originate a NOTAM?
Anyone from the list provided by the airport manager
181
Types of Directives:
| What are Changes?
Additions, deletions or modifications to orders
182
Reflected energy from a radar signal is called:
an Echo or Target
183
The Chief Operating Officer (COO) oversees _______.
The Air Traffic Organization (ATO)
184
JO 7360.1 is for
Aircraft type designators
185
What color beacon does a civilian airport have?
Flashing White and Green
186
Which type of bulletin uses the alphabetic designators Sierra, Tango, or Zulu to indicate the type of condition being reported?
AIRMET
187
The safe, secure and efficient management for the NAS is the responsibility of:
Air Traffic Services (AJT)
188
Non-radar Longitudinal Separation: Opposite/Reciprocal Courses
Aircraft whose angular difference is 136-180 degrees.
189
What is the order of NOTAMs from top to bottom?
```
NFDC
USNOF
USNS
Certified Source
Everyone
```
190
Temporary directions or one-time announcements are made through ________.
Notices
191
Basic terrain contour lines on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart are generally spaced at ________ foot intervals.
500ft intervals
192
What does the Preflight position in the FSS do?
Brief/translate weather, NOTAMs, flow control restrictions or VFR not recommended (VNR) to the pilots
193
Which FAA document contains the approved words and phrase contractions used by personnel in the FAA?
FAA JO 7340.2
194
Another name for "thrust stream turbulence" is ______.
Jet blast
195
Tower Associate Position
Assists the tower positions by performing coordination and helps to ensure separation by
maintaining awareness of tower traffic
196
Jet blast is the greatest hazard when ________.
Taxiing
197
How long are standard holding legs? At what altitude does it change, and what does it change to?
1 minute legs 14,000 or below
1.5 minute legs above 14,000
198
Convective currents are most active on ________ when winds are light.
Warm, summer afternoons
199
Reduces or eliminates echoes from precipitation
Circular polarization
200
Center Weather Advisories (CWAs) are issued when?
On an unscheduled (as needed) basis
201
When is radar separation used in preference to non-radar separation?
When there will be an operational advantage and workload, communications and
equipment permit.
202
Which special use airspace is always located offshore?
Warning area
203
JO 7350.9 is for
Location Identifiers
204
The Air Traffic Organization (ATO) is managed by a:
Chief Operating Officer (COO)
205
Convective currents are most active on ________ when winds are light
Warm, Summer afternoons
206
The valid period of a routine TAF beginning at 0000Z on the 10th day of the month would be coded as ______.
1000/1024
207
The primary purpose of ATC is:
To prevent a collision between aircraft operating in the system and to provide a safe,
orderly and expeditious flow of traffic and to provide support for National Security and Homeland Defense.
208
With zero wind, vortices near the ground will travel laterally at a speed of ________ knots.
2-3 knots
209
What color are the painted markings for closed and hazardous areas and holding positions?
Yellow
210
The Tower Controller
Works to ensure that the overall operation is at its greatest capacity while maintaining
safety standards
211
Appearance of clutter on the radar display caused by moisture in the air bending the radar beam
Anomolous Propagation
212
Focuses, broadcasts and collects reflected radio energy
Antenna
213
Who is responsible for monitoring and balancing air traffic flows within their area of responsibility?
The TMU
214
What is the purpose of a Pointer NOTAM?
To highlight or point out another NOTAM
215
What are the 3 types of ATC facilities?
1. Flight Service Station (FSS)
2. Terminal ATC Facility
3. ARTCC
216
Secondary radar interference caused by a transponder replying excessively is called ______.
Ring Around
217
Who is responsible for issuing a SOP directive?
The facility manager
218
100 nautical miles equals ____________ SM.
100nm = 115sm
219
In an FAA Order, "JO" represents ____.
The entire ATO (Air Traffic Organization) as a whole.
220
During which phenomenon does the radar beam not travel in a straight line?
AP (Anomalous Propagation)
221
What kind of lights emit a green or red light at the end of the runway?
Threshold lights
222
A NOTAM that is widely disseminated and applies to civil components of the NAS is classified as a _______.
NOTAM D
223
Types of Directives:
| What are Orders?
Permanent directives that stay in effect until canceled
224
Relative wind is ______.
The direction of the airflow produced by an object moving through the air
225
Ground Delay Program
Aircraft are held on the ground until a specified time
226
Capping
Keeping departures low and level until clear of higher traffic
