Block 2 Flashcards
(147 cards)
1
Q
What is Bernoulli’s Principle?
A
Pressure decreases at points where speed increases
Helps achieve lift
Speed /^\
Pressure \v/
Think of placing thumb over a hose
2
Q
On a wing, the low pressure system is located where?
A
Above the wing
3
Q
What is Newton’s 3rd Law?
A
Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
4
Q
How does Newton’s 3rd Law assist with lift?
A
Acts as a secondary source as an upward force is generated by air striking the underside of an airfoil and being deflected downward.
5
Q
The primary source of lift on an airfoil is created by a differential in _____.
A
Pressure
6
Q
Relative wind for an aircraft flows in which direction?
A
Opposite to the direction of flight
7
Q
What is an airfoil?
A
Anything that helps to produce lift
8
Q
What are the 3 principle airfoils?
A
Wing
Horizontal Tail Surface
Propeller
9
Q
What is the Chord Line?
A
A straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge
10
Q
Define Angle of Attack
A
The acute angle formed between the chord line and the relative wind
11
Q
Define Camber
A
The curvature of the airfoil
12
Q
Name the 3 primary wing platforms
A
Straight/Tapered
Delta
Sweptback
13
Q
Name the 4 forces of flight
A
Lift
Weight
Thrust
Drag
14
Q
What are the 3 key properties of the atmosphere?
A
Temperature
Altitude
Water Vapor
15
Q
As _____ increasese, the temperature decreases on average by ____ degrees F every _____ ft.
A
3.5 degrees Fahrenheit every 1,000ft
16
Q
What is Lapse Rate?
A
A decrease of temperature with height
17
Q
Which air is denser? Warm or cold?
A
Cold air is denser than warm air.
18
Q
As altitude increases, pressure ______.
A
Decreases
19
Q
Lower pressure results in (less or more) dense air.
A
Less Dense Air
for lower pressure
20
Q
The _____ (higher/lower) the temperature, the greater amount of water vapor the air can hold.
A
HIGHER
Water vapor replaces air so more speed is necessary in high temperatures due to less air molecules in the air b/c of the water vapor replacing it.
21
Q
An increase in water vapor causes what?
A
a decrease in air density.
Water Vapor UP
Air Density DOWN
22
Q
define Density Altitude
A
The altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to a particular value of air density
23
Q
define Density
A
The mass of air per unit volume
24
Q
What is an Adjustable Pitch propeller?
A
A prop that can only be adjusted by hand on the ground
25
What is a Fixed Pitch propeller?
A prop that never changes
26
What is a Controllable Pitch propeller?
A prop that can be adjusted in flight
27
What is Adverse Yaw?
The tendency of the nose of the aircraft to yaw in the opposite direction of the turn. Caused by the drag of the "down" aileron.
28
In a helicopter, what does the Collective control?
The pitch of the rotor blades
29
In a helicopter, what does the Cyclic control?
The tilt of the rotor
30
A stall occurs when the airfoil reaches what?
The Critical Angle of Attack (15-20 degrees)
31
The three primary causes of stalls are:
Insufficient Airspeed
Violent Flight Maneuvers
Wind Shear
32
What are the three primary types of icing?
Structural Icing
Pitot Tube Icing
Carburetor Icing
33
What is Structural Icing?
Icing on the airfoil that changes the shape.
34
What is Carburetor Icing?
Icing that reduces the fuel/air flow to the engine.
35
What temperatures is Carburetor Icing likely to occur at?
20-70 degrees F
36
The greatest vortex strength is generated when the aircraft is in what configuration?
Heavy
Clean
Slow
37
What is Wing Loading?
Amount of pounds per square foot the wing that the wing needs to support the aircraft
38
A dirty configuration _______ (increases or decreases) wing loading.
Decreases
because of less pounds per square foot are required to maintain lift due to the increased wing surface from the flaps.
39
Wingtip Vortices spin in which direction?
Over the top, inwards toward the aircraft
40
What rate per minute do vortices sink?
300-500 feet per minute
41
About what altitude do vortices normally level off?
500-1,000ft below the flight path
42
With zero wind close to the ground, how quickly will vortices move outward?
2-3 knots
43
What is induced roll?
The force a wake vortex has on an aircraft. Could roll the aircraft completely spinning it on its longitudinal axis.
44
The ability of an aircraft to counteract the effects of roll are based on two things:
1. Wingspan
| 2. Counter control capability
45
Counter control is most effective and roll is minimal when the vortices extend beyond _______
The outer edges of the vortex
46
Hazardous conditions occur when the induced roll exceeds the level of ______
counter control
47
A hovering helicopter creates a downwash from its main rotors that can travel up to how far?
3 times the diameter of the rotors
48
In order to generate wingtip vortices, a helicopter must be _______.
In forward flight
49
How high does Class C airspace extend up to?
4,000ft above airport elevation
50
How wide is the one circle of a class C airspace?
5 miles
51
The class C's uncharted outer area extends ___ Miles in radius, and extends no lower than _______.
10 miles
1,200ft
52
Class D airspace extends from the surface up to _______ ft.
2,500 ft above airport elevation
53
Victor and Tango Airways are located in which type of airspace?
Class E
54
What are the vertical ranges of Victor and Tango Airways?
Between 1,200ft - Up To but Not Including FL180
55
When should aircraft in class G airspace be vectored?
Only upon request as an additional service.
56
How are TFRs published?
Via an FDC NOTAM
Due to their regulatory nature
57
What is the vertical base/top of Class E airspace?
1,200 AGL - the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
Can extend down to 700 AGL or the surface in some areas
58
What are the vertical limits of Class A Airspace?
18,000 - up to AND including FL600
59
Special Use Airspace (SUA) is designed to accommodate who?
National Defense
Security
Welfare
Military
60
What is the controlling agency?
The ATC facility that controls the airspace when Special Use Airspace (SUA) is not active.
Either Military or FAA ATC can act as the controlling agency
61
What is the using agency?
The military unit or other organization using the Special Use Airspace (SUA)
62
What is a prohibited area?
Aircraft not permitted without approval from using agency
63
What letter is used to name a prohibited area?
P
64
What is a restricted area, and when is it used?
Flight is not totally prohibited, but is subject to restrictions.
Used when occurring activities are considered hazardous to non-participating aircraft
65
What letter is used to name a restricted area?
R
66
Weaponry, shooting or dropping would be classified as a _________ area.
Restricted
Hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft
67
What is a warning area?
Airspace that extends 3 Miles outward over water from the coast line.
68
What is the purpose of a warning area?
To warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger from activities being conducted.
69
What is the letter used to identify a Warning Area?
W
70
What is an Alert Area?
Airspace where a high volume of pilot training or unusual types of activity is conducted.
71
What is the purpose of an Alert area?
To alert pilots of optional dangers. Pilots may fly through at their own risk.
72
What letter is used to identify an alert area?
A
73
When would a controller vector am aircraft in uncontrolled airspace?
Only upon pilot request
74
The special use airspace (SUA) necessary to confine activities considered hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft is called a ________ area.
Restricted Area
75
What type of Special Use Airspace (SUA) is found over international waters?
Warning Area
76
What is the purpose of a Controlled Firing Area (CFA)?
Contains activities that, if not conducted in a controlled environment, would be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.
77
What kinds of activities are appropriate for a CFA?
Activities that can be immediately suspended on notice from the spotter that an aircraft is approaching.
78
What is a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
Vertical and lateral limits established outside Class A airspace.
Separates military training from IFR traffic
79
How do you identify a MOA?
The name of the MOA followed by "MOA"
| i.e. HOLLIS MOA
80
MOAs will never exceed _______ ft.
18,000 ft
81
What is a National Security Area (NSA)?
An area where there is a requirement for increased security
82
What are the pilot restrictions for a National Security Area (NSA)?
Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid the NSA.
Overhead flight is permitted as long as it is not lingering in nature.
83
Prohibited Area vertical separation begins at what altitude?
The surface
84
In what type of airspace would a high volume of pilot flight training or other unusual activities occur?
Alert Area
85
Federal VOR airways are in what airspace?
Class E
86
What type of airspace is found over international waters?
Warning Area
87
What type of special use airspace is over a gunnary range over land?
CFA (Controlled Firing Area)
88
By which authority is the Code of Federal Regulations (CFRs) issued?
The FAA Administrator
89
CFR title 14 is arranged in what 3 sections
Part
Subpart
Section
90
CFRs 91.1 through 91.25 govern water and airspace hoe far from the US Coast?
Water: 3nm
Airspace: 12nm
91
What are the two restrictions for formation flight?
All pilots must agree to it
No paying pax on board
92
What is the right-of-way order from this list?
```
Balloon
Glider
Airship
Towing/refueling
All other aircraft
```
```
Balloon
Glider
Airship
Towing/refueling
All other aircraft
```
93
In terms of having right of way, aside from emergencies, who always has the general right of way at an airport?
A landing aircraft on final
94
Which aircraft operating within the US are subject to CFR Part 91?
All aircraft
95
Aircraft at or below 2500 AGL within 4nm of the primary airport of a class C or D airspace must operate at a speed no more than ______
200 knots
96
By which authority is the Code of Federal Regulations (CFRs) issued?
The FAA Administrator
97
CFR title 14 is arranged in what 3 sections
Part
Subpart
Section
98
CFRs 91.1 through 91.25 govern water and airspace hoe far from the US Coast?
Water: 3nm
Airspace: 12nm
99
What are the two restrictions for formation flight?
All pilots must agree to it
No paying pax on board
100
What is the right-of-way order from this list?
```
Balloon
Glider
Airship
Towing/refueling
All other aircraft
```
```
Balloon
Glider
Airship
Towing/refueling
All other aircraft
```
101
In terms of having right of way, aside from emergencies, who always has the general right of way at an airport?
A landing aircraft on final
102
Which aircraft operating within the US are subject to CFR Part 91?
All aircraft
103
Aircraft at or below 2500 AGL within 4nm of the primary airport of a class C or D airspace must operate at a speed no more than ______
200 knots
104
What is the speed limit below class B airspace?
200 knots
105
What is the speed limit in a VFR Class B corridor?
200 kts
106
What is considered a minimum safe VFR altitude?
An altitude that allows for an emergency landing without injury or damage, should a power unit fail.
107
What are the minimum altitude restrictions above a contested area?
1000 ft above the highest obstacle and 2000ft horizontal distance from any obstacles
108
What are the altitude requirements for non-congested areas?
Must remain 500ft above the surface except over open water or sparsely populated areas
109
What are the VFR altitude restrictions for aircraft above water or sparsely populated areas?
500ft away from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.
110
What are the VFR helicopter restrictions?
Helicopters may operate at any altitude as long as there is no hazard
Also, they must comply with any applicable helicopter routes.
111
What is the standard traffic pattern direction at a class G airport?
Left Traffic
112
At a Class G airport with an operating control tower, pilots must contact the tower ___ Mike's from the airport if ______ft or less AGL
4nm
| 2,500ft AGL
113
What is the pattern altitude for large or turbine-powered jets flying in Class C or D airspace?
1,500ft Above airport elevation
Must maintain 1,500ft until further descent is required to landing
114
CFRs govern aircraft operating in the airspace within how many Miles of the US coast?
12 NM
115
CFRs govern aircraft operating in the waters within how many Miles of the US coast?
3 NM
116
For controllers age 40 or older, how often must they renew their medical?
Every 1 year
117
For controllers 39 or younger, how often must they renew their medical?
Every 2 years
118
What are the 3 types of flight plans?
IFR
VFR
DVFR
119
When is it mandatory to file a VFR flight plan?
When filing a DVFR flight plan, operating in an ADIZ or a DEWIZ
120
What is the primary reason for filing a VFR flight plan?
For search and rescue
121
At a Class G airport with an operating control tower, pilots must contact the tower ___ Mike's from the airport if ______ft or less AGL
4nm
| 2,500ft AGL
122
CFRs govern aircraft operating in the airspace within how many Miles of the US coast?
12 NM
123
What is the standard traffic pattern direction at a class G airport?
Left Traffic
124
What is the pattern altitude for large or turbine-powered jets flying in Class C or D airspace?
1,500ft Above airport elevation
Must maintain 1,500ft until further descent is required to landing
125
CFRs govern aircraft operating in the airspace within how many Miles of the US coast?
12 NM
126
CFRs govern aircraft operating in the waters within how many Miles of the US coast?
3 NM
127
For controllers age 40 or older, how often must they renew their medical?
Every 1 year
128
For controllers 39 or younger, how often must they renew their medical?
Every 2 years
129
When is it mandatory to file a VFR flight plan?
When filing a DVFR flight plan, operating in an ADIZ or a DEWIZ
130
What is the primary reason for filing a VFR flight plan?
For search and rescue
131
Who is responsible for closing a DVFR flight plan?
The pilot
132
How is a SVFR clearance cancelled?
When the pilot lands or leaves the surface area
133
SVFR may only be conducted below what altitude?
10,000ft MSL
134
Even Cruise Altitudes are for cruise headings of ___ - ____ degrees.
180-359
| EVEN Altitudes
135
Odd Cruise Altitudes are for cruise headings of ____ - ____ degrees
360-179
| ODD Altitudes
136
True/False: VFR-On-Top is an IFR clearance
True
137
Standard takeoff minimums for revenue flights for aircraft with two engines or less are:
1 SM visibility
138
Standard takeoff minimums for revenue flights for aircraft with more than 2 engines are:
1/2 SM Visibility
139
What are the altitude restrictions for areas with mountainous terrain?
2,000ft above the highest obstacle
140
What is the lateral restriction for areas with mountainous terrain?
4 miles horizontal from the highest obstacle.
141
What are the altitude restrictions for areas with non-mountainous terrain?
1,000 ft above the highest obstacle
142
What is the lateral restriction for areas with non-mountainous terrain?
4 miles
143
What is the minimum visibility for an IFR departure when the takeoff minimum at a civil airport is NOT prescribed for a twin-engine aircraft?
1 mile
144
If an IFR aircraft loses comms in IMC, what should they do upon reaching the clearance limit?
If given an EFC, leave the clearance limit at the EFC.
If not given an EFC, begin the approach from an IAF at the aircraft's ETA.
145
What are the oxygen requirements for flights above 12,500 - 14,000ft?
Pilots need oxygen if the flight will remain above 12,500 - 14,000 for more than 30 min.
146
What are the oxygen requirements for flights above 14,000ft?
Pilots need oxygen for the entire flight.
147
What are the oxygen requirements for flights above 15,000ft?
Pilots and pax need oxygen for the entire flight
