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Enroute Basics - Kevin's Version > Block 2 > Flashcards

Block 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Bernoulli’s Principle?

A

Pressure decreases at points where speed increases
Helps achieve lift

Speed /^\
Pressure \v/

Think of placing thumb over a hose

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2
Q

On a wing, the low pressure system is located where?

A

Above the wing

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3
Q

What is Newton’s 3rd Law?

A

Every action has an equal and opposite reaction

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4
Q

How does Newton’s 3rd Law assist with lift?

A

Acts as a secondary source as an upward force is generated by air striking the underside of an airfoil and being deflected downward.

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5
Q

The primary source of lift on an airfoil is created by a differential in _____.

A

Pressure

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6
Q

Relative wind for an aircraft flows in which direction?

A

Opposite to the direction of flight

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7
Q

What is an airfoil?

A

Anything that helps to produce lift

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8
Q

What are the 3 principle airfoils?

A

Wing
Horizontal Tail Surface
Propeller

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9
Q

What is the Chord Line?

A

A straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge

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10
Q

Define Angle of Attack

A

The acute angle formed between the chord line and the relative wind

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11
Q

Define Camber

A

The curvature of the airfoil

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12
Q

Name the 3 primary wing platforms

A

Straight/Tapered
Delta
Sweptback

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13
Q

Name the 4 forces of flight

A

Lift
Weight
Thrust
Drag

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14
Q

What are the 3 key properties of the atmosphere?

A

Temperature
Altitude
Water Vapor

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15
Q

As _____ increasese, the temperature decreases on average by ____ degrees F every _____ ft.

A

3.5 degrees Fahrenheit every 1,000ft

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16
Q

What is Lapse Rate?

A

A decrease of temperature with height

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17
Q

Which air is denser? Warm or cold?

A

Cold air is denser than warm air.

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18
Q

As altitude increases, pressure ______.

A

Decreases

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19
Q

Lower pressure results in (less or more) dense air.

A

Less Dense Air

for lower pressure

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20
Q

The _____ (higher/lower) the temperature, the greater amount of water vapor the air can hold.

A

HIGHER

Water vapor replaces air so more speed is necessary in high temperatures due to less air molecules in the air b/c of the water vapor replacing it.

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21
Q

An increase in water vapor causes what?

A

a decrease in air density.

Water Vapor UP

Air Density DOWN

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22
Q

define Density Altitude

A

The altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to a particular value of air density

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23
Q

define Density

A

The mass of air per unit volume

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24
Q

What is an Adjustable Pitch propeller?

A

A prop that can only be adjusted by hand on the ground

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25
Q

What is a Fixed Pitch propeller?

A

A prop that never changes

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26
Q

What is a Controllable Pitch propeller?

A

A prop that can be adjusted in flight

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27
Q

What is Adverse Yaw?

A

The tendency of the nose of the aircraft to yaw in the opposite direction of the turn. Caused by the drag of the “down” aileron.

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28
Q

In a helicopter, what does the Collective control?

A

The pitch of the rotor blades

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29
Q

In a helicopter, what does the Cyclic control?

A

The tilt of the rotor

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30
Q

A stall occurs when the airfoil reaches what?

A

The Critical Angle of Attack (15-20 degrees)

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31
Q

The three primary causes of stalls are:

A

Insufficient Airspeed
Violent Flight Maneuvers
Wind Shear

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32
Q

What are the three primary types of icing?

A

Structural Icing
Pitot Tube Icing
Carburetor Icing

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33
Q

What is Structural Icing?

A

Icing on the airfoil that changes the shape.

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34
Q

What is Carburetor Icing?

A

Icing that reduces the fuel/air flow to the engine.

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35
Q

What temperatures is Carburetor Icing likely to occur at?

A

20-70 degrees F

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36
Q

The greatest vortex strength is generated when the aircraft is in what configuration?

A

Heavy
Clean
Slow

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37
Q

What is Wing Loading?

A

Amount of pounds per square foot the wing that the wing needs to support the aircraft

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38
Q

A dirty configuration _______ (increases or decreases) wing loading.

A

Decreases

because of less pounds per square foot are required to maintain lift due to the increased wing surface from the flaps.

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39
Q

Wingtip Vortices spin in which direction?

A

Over the top, inwards toward the aircraft

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40
Q

What rate per minute do vortices sink?

A

300-500 feet per minute

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41
Q

About what altitude do vortices normally level off?

A

500-1,000ft below the flight path

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42
Q

With zero wind close to the ground, how quickly will vortices move outward?

A

2-3 knots

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43
Q

What is induced roll?

A

The force a wake vortex has on an aircraft. Could roll the aircraft completely spinning it on its longitudinal axis.

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44
Q

The ability of an aircraft to counteract the effects of roll are based on two things:

A
  1. Wingspan

2. Counter control capability

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45
Q

Counter control is most effective and roll is minimal when the vortices extend beyond _______

A

The outer edges of the vortex

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46
Q

Hazardous conditions occur when the induced roll exceeds the level of ______

A

counter control

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47
Q

A hovering helicopter creates a downwash from its main rotors that can travel up to how far?

A

3 times the diameter of the rotors

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48
Q

In order to generate wingtip vortices, a helicopter must be _______.

A

In forward flight

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49
Q

How high does Class C airspace extend up to?

A

4,000ft above airport elevation

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50
Q

How wide is the one circle of a class C airspace?

A

5 miles

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51
Q

The class C’s uncharted outer area extends ___ Miles in radius, and extends no lower than _______.

A

10 miles

1,200ft

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52
Q

Class D airspace extends from the surface up to _______ ft.

A

2,500 ft above airport elevation

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53
Q

Victor and Tango Airways are located in which type of airspace?

A

Class E

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54
Q

What are the vertical ranges of Victor and Tango Airways?

A

Between 1,200ft - Up To but Not Including FL180

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55
Q

When should aircraft in class G airspace be vectored?

A

Only upon request as an additional service.

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56
Q

How are TFRs published?

A

Via an FDC NOTAM

Due to their regulatory nature

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57
Q

What is the vertical base/top of Class E airspace?

A

1,200 AGL - the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

Can extend down to 700 AGL or the surface in some areas

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58
Q

What are the vertical limits of Class A Airspace?

A

18,000 - up to AND including FL600

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59
Q

Special Use Airspace (SUA) is designed to accommodate who?

A

National Defense
Security
Welfare
Military

60
Q

What is the controlling agency?

A

The ATC facility that controls the airspace when Special Use Airspace (SUA) is not active.

Either Military or FAA ATC can act as the controlling agency

61
Q

What is the using agency?

A

The military unit or other organization using the Special Use Airspace (SUA)

62
Q

What is a prohibited area?

A

Aircraft not permitted without approval from using agency

63
Q

What letter is used to name a prohibited area?

A

P

64
Q

What is a restricted area, and when is it used?

A

Flight is not totally prohibited, but is subject to restrictions.

Used when occurring activities are considered hazardous to non-participating aircraft

65
Q

What letter is used to name a restricted area?

A

R

66
Q

Weaponry, shooting or dropping would be classified as a _________ area.

A

Restricted

Hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft

67
Q

What is a warning area?

A

Airspace that extends 3 Miles outward over water from the coast line.

68
Q

What is the purpose of a warning area?

A

To warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger from activities being conducted.

69
Q

What is the letter used to identify a Warning Area?

A

W

70
Q

What is an Alert Area?

A

Airspace where a high volume of pilot training or unusual types of activity is conducted.

71
Q

What is the purpose of an Alert area?

A

To alert pilots of optional dangers. Pilots may fly through at their own risk.

72
Q

What letter is used to identify an alert area?

A

A

73
Q

When would a controller vector am aircraft in uncontrolled airspace?

A

Only upon pilot request

74
Q

The special use airspace (SUA) necessary to confine activities considered hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft is called a ________ area.

A

Restricted Area

75
Q

What type of Special Use Airspace (SUA) is found over international waters?

A

Warning Area

76
Q

What is the purpose of a Controlled Firing Area (CFA)?

A

Contains activities that, if not conducted in a controlled environment, would be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.

77
Q

What kinds of activities are appropriate for a CFA?

A

Activities that can be immediately suspended on notice from the spotter that an aircraft is approaching.

78
Q

What is a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

A

Vertical and lateral limits established outside Class A airspace.

Separates military training from IFR traffic

79
Q

How do you identify a MOA?

A

The name of the MOA followed by “MOA”

i.e. HOLLIS MOA

80
Q

MOAs will never exceed _______ ft.

A

18,000 ft

81
Q

What is a National Security Area (NSA)?

A

An area where there is a requirement for increased security

82
Q

What are the pilot restrictions for a National Security Area (NSA)?

A

Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid the NSA.

Overhead flight is permitted as long as it is not lingering in nature.

83
Q

Prohibited Area vertical separation begins at what altitude?

A

The surface

84
Q

In what type of airspace would a high volume of pilot flight training or other unusual activities occur?

A

Alert Area

85
Q

Federal VOR airways are in what airspace?

A

Class E

86
Q

What type of airspace is found over international waters?

A

Warning Area

87
Q

What type of special use airspace is over a gunnary range over land?

A

CFA (Controlled Firing Area)

88
Q

By which authority is the Code of Federal Regulations (CFRs) issued?

A

The FAA Administrator

89
Q

CFR title 14 is arranged in what 3 sections

A

Part
Subpart
Section

90
Q

CFRs 91.1 through 91.25 govern water and airspace hoe far from the US Coast?

A

Water: 3nm
Airspace: 12nm

91
Q

What are the two restrictions for formation flight?

A

All pilots must agree to it

No paying pax on board

92
Q

What is the right-of-way order from this list?

Balloon
Glider
Airship
Towing/refueling 
All other aircraft
A 
Balloon
Glider
Airship
Towing/refueling 
All other aircraft
93
Q

In terms of having right of way, aside from emergencies, who always has the general right of way at an airport?

A

A landing aircraft on final

94
Q

Which aircraft operating within the US are subject to CFR Part 91?

A

All aircraft

95
Q

Aircraft at or below 2500 AGL within 4nm of the primary airport of a class C or D airspace must operate at a speed no more than ______

A

200 knots

96
Q

By which authority is the Code of Federal Regulations (CFRs) issued?

A

The FAA Administrator

97
Q

CFR title 14 is arranged in what 3 sections

A

Part
Subpart
Section

98
Q

CFRs 91.1 through 91.25 govern water and airspace hoe far from the US Coast?

A

Water: 3nm
Airspace: 12nm

99
Q

What are the two restrictions for formation flight?

A

All pilots must agree to it

No paying pax on board

100
Q

What is the right-of-way order from this list?

Balloon
Glider
Airship
Towing/refueling 
All other aircraft
A 
Balloon
Glider
Airship
Towing/refueling 
All other aircraft
101
Q

In terms of having right of way, aside from emergencies, who always has the general right of way at an airport?

A

A landing aircraft on final

102
Q

Which aircraft operating within the US are subject to CFR Part 91?

A

All aircraft

103
Q

Aircraft at or below 2500 AGL within 4nm of the primary airport of a class C or D airspace must operate at a speed no more than ______

A

200 knots

104
Q

What is the speed limit below class B airspace?

A

200 knots

105
Q

What is the speed limit in a VFR Class B corridor?

A

200 kts

106
Q

What is considered a minimum safe VFR altitude?

A

An altitude that allows for an emergency landing without injury or damage, should a power unit fail.

107
Q

What are the minimum altitude restrictions above a contested area?

A

1000 ft above the highest obstacle and 2000ft horizontal distance from any obstacles

108
Q

What are the altitude requirements for non-congested areas?

A

Must remain 500ft above the surface except over open water or sparsely populated areas

109
Q

What are the VFR altitude restrictions for aircraft above water or sparsely populated areas?

A

500ft away from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

110
Q

What are the VFR helicopter restrictions?

A

Helicopters may operate at any altitude as long as there is no hazard

Also, they must comply with any applicable helicopter routes.

111
Q

What is the standard traffic pattern direction at a class G airport?

A

Left Traffic

112
Q

At a Class G airport with an operating control tower, pilots must contact the tower ___ Mike’s from the airport if ______ft or less AGL

A

4nm

2,500ft AGL

113
Q

What is the pattern altitude for large or turbine-powered jets flying in Class C or D airspace?

A

1,500ft Above airport elevation

Must maintain 1,500ft until further descent is required to landing

114
Q

CFRs govern aircraft operating in the airspace within how many Miles of the US coast?

A

12 NM

115
Q

CFRs govern aircraft operating in the waters within how many Miles of the US coast?

A

3 NM

116
Q

For controllers age 40 or older, how often must they renew their medical?

A

Every 1 year

117
Q

For controllers 39 or younger, how often must they renew their medical?

A

Every 2 years

118
Q

What are the 3 types of flight plans?

A

IFR
VFR
DVFR

119
Q

When is it mandatory to file a VFR flight plan?

A

When filing a DVFR flight plan, operating in an ADIZ or a DEWIZ

120
Q

What is the primary reason for filing a VFR flight plan?

A

For search and rescue

121
Q

At a Class G airport with an operating control tower, pilots must contact the tower ___ Mike’s from the airport if ______ft or less AGL

A

4nm

2,500ft AGL

122
Q

CFRs govern aircraft operating in the airspace within how many Miles of the US coast?

A

12 NM

123
Q

What is the standard traffic pattern direction at a class G airport?

A

Left Traffic

124
Q

What is the pattern altitude for large or turbine-powered jets flying in Class C or D airspace?

A

1,500ft Above airport elevation

Must maintain 1,500ft until further descent is required to landing

125
Q

CFRs govern aircraft operating in the airspace within how many Miles of the US coast?

A

12 NM

126
Q

CFRs govern aircraft operating in the waters within how many Miles of the US coast?

A

3 NM

127
Q

For controllers age 40 or older, how often must they renew their medical?

A

Every 1 year

128
Q

For controllers 39 or younger, how often must they renew their medical?

A

Every 2 years

129
Q

When is it mandatory to file a VFR flight plan?

A

When filing a DVFR flight plan, operating in an ADIZ or a DEWIZ

130
Q

What is the primary reason for filing a VFR flight plan?

A

For search and rescue

131
Q

Who is responsible for closing a DVFR flight plan?

A

The pilot

132
Q

How is a SVFR clearance cancelled?

A

When the pilot lands or leaves the surface area

133
Q

SVFR may only be conducted below what altitude?

A

10,000ft MSL

134
Q

Even Cruise Altitudes are for cruise headings of ___ - ____ degrees.

A

180-359

EVEN Altitudes

135
Q

Odd Cruise Altitudes are for cruise headings of ____ - ____ degrees

A

360-179

ODD Altitudes

136
Q

True/False: VFR-On-Top is an IFR clearance

A

True

137
Q

Standard takeoff minimums for revenue flights for aircraft with two engines or less are:

A

1 SM visibility

138
Q

Standard takeoff minimums for revenue flights for aircraft with more than 2 engines are:

A

1/2 SM Visibility

139
Q

What are the altitude restrictions for areas with mountainous terrain?

A

2,000ft above the highest obstacle

140
Q

What is the lateral restriction for areas with mountainous terrain?

A

4 miles horizontal from the highest obstacle.

141
Q

What are the altitude restrictions for areas with non-mountainous terrain?

A

1,000 ft above the highest obstacle

142
Q

What is the lateral restriction for areas with non-mountainous terrain?

A

4 miles

143
Q

What is the minimum visibility for an IFR departure when the takeoff minimum at a civil airport is NOT prescribed for a twin-engine aircraft?

A

1 mile

144
Q

If an IFR aircraft loses comms in IMC, what should they do upon reaching the clearance limit?

A

If given an EFC, leave the clearance limit at the EFC.

If not given an EFC, begin the approach from an IAF at the aircraft’s ETA.

145
Q

What are the oxygen requirements for flights above 12,500 - 14,000ft?

A

Pilots need oxygen if the flight will remain above 12,500 - 14,000 for more than 30 min.

146
Q

What are the oxygen requirements for flights above 14,000ft?

A

Pilots need oxygen for the entire flight.

147
Q

What are the oxygen requirements for flights above 15,000ft?

A

Pilots and pax need oxygen for the entire flight

Enroute Basics - Kevin's Version (6 decks)

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