Block 4 Flashcards
(631 cards)
1
Q
How many teeth do dogs have?
A
42
2
Q
How many teeth do cats have?
A
30
3
Q
What is the canine tooth?
A
04
4
Q
What is the carnesial on the maxillary?
A
08
5
Q
What is the carnesial on the mandible?
A
09
6
Q
What is normal probe depth in dog?
A
1-3mm
7
Q
What is normal probe depth in cats?
A
0.5-1mm
8
Q
How many molars does a cat have?
A
1 in each arcade
9
Q
What teeth are cats missing on the mandible?
A
05 and 06 of the premolar
10
Q
What does PD stand for?
A
Periodontal disease
11
Q
What is PD stage 0
A
No disease
12
Q
What is PD stage 1
A
Gingivitis (reversible)
13
Q
What is PD stage 2
A
Periodontitis present, attachment <25% loss (unlikely reversible without dedicated owner)
14
Q
What is PD stage 3
A
25-50% loss
15
Q
What is PD stage 5
A
> 50% loss
16
Q
What is open vs closed root planing?
A
Scraping away the bacteria underneath the gingiva
Open: Making a flap to get lower
Closed: Smaller pockets that can be done without a flap
17
Q
What antibiotic can be added to slow progression of PD 2 and PD 3?
A
Doxirobe
18
Q
What is M1-3?
A
Mobility
19
Q
What is M1
A
0.2mm-0.5mm
20
Q
What is M2
A
0.5-1mm
21
Q
What is M3
A
> 1mm
22
Q
What is F1-3?
A
Furcation
23
Q
What is F1
A
<50% under crown
24
Q
What is F2
A
> 50%
25
What is F3
Can push a probe all the way through the furcation
26
What are the 7 scenarios that you remove a tooth?
PD4, M3, F3, abscess, fracture, resorptive lesion, crowding, trauma
27
What is type 1 resorptive lesion?
Roots still present
Whole tooth extraction
28
What is type 2 resorptive lesion
No root left
Crown amputation
29
What is type 3 resorptive lesion?
Mix of both types of lesions
30
What is an uncomplicated fracture?
No pulp exposure
31
What is a complicated crown fracture?
Pulp fracture
32
What is a risk for fractures?
Infection of the pulp
33
What normally causes oral nasal fistulas after canine extraction?
Too much tension on suture
33
What does calicivirus cause?
Tongue ulceration
34
Where is the #1 place for a oral nasal fistula to occur on a dog?
Underneath canine tooth after extraction
35
What opioids can you use for standing equine dentals?
Butorphanol or morphine
35
What number is the wolf tooth?
05 or first premolar
35
Do you need to trim back gingival hyperplasia to reduce bacterial pockets?
Yes!
36
Does a blind woof tooth need to be extracted?
Absolutely!
36
What is the first tooth that you can see in a horse's mouth in the back area?
06
37
Should you extract a lower wolf tooth?
Yes
37
Does a normally formed wolf tooth need to be extracted?
Not necessarily
37
What does a diastama cause?
Fermentation leading to an acidic environment causing an anaerobic bacterial infection
38
When do you extract the wolf tooth?
After it is erupted, not necessarily at castration
SAFER BEFORE 18 MONTHS
39
What is the most common cause of equine periodontal disease?
Diastema
39
What is a transverse ridge?
Like a small mountain in the tooth
39
Is the wolf tooth the same as the canine?
NO!!
39
What is a ramp?
Up slope on the bottom 11s
39
ALWAYS EXTRACT BLIND WOLF TEETH
40
What is a hook?
Top tooth down, usually 06
40
What do you do about a hook?
Grind down 2-3mm at a time, dont want to expose pulp
41
What must you do to a step?
Take it down
42
What does the secondary bacterial infection caused by the diastema cause?
Sinusitis
42
How to treat EOTRH?
Removal of teeth
43
Can you create a deworming protocol without seeing the farm first?
Nope
43
What does EOTRH?
Equine odontoclastic tooth resorption and hypercementosis
44
*******
***** ON EXAM: What is the GI parasite control plan for a dog or cat during first year of life?
2, 4, 6, and 8 weeks, then monthly and fecal recheck (2x or more)
45
Do you deworm at fixed intervals?
No!
45
Should you tailor strongyle control to the active transmission season?
YES!
45
Where is anthelmintic resistance worst in?
Southern US
45
What is refugia?
Parasites that have not been exposed to dewormers
45
Should you use fecal egg counts to diagnose clinical disease in horses?
NO!
45
Does refugia work for all parasites?
NO!
45
What parasites do we consider refugia a part of our management plan?
Food animals or horses only
45
Which hosts should we do efficacy tests on?
Ones that actually are treated on? (dogs for a dog disease)
45
What is the most common reason for oral maxillofacial surgery?
Trauma
45
How do you tell if a drug is effective against parasitic infection?
Fecal egg count reduction test
45
What would the removal of one half of the rostral mandible be called?
Rostral mandibulectomy
45
Where can you go to find reliable recommendations in companion animals?
CapCVet
45
Where does fenbendazole work?
In the intestine
45
During mandibular surgery, they use different terminology than dentistry
They consider each side of the mandible as an individual bone
46
What would the removal of one hand of both sides of the mandible be called?
Bilateral mandibulectomy
46
Where is the caudal inferior alveolar block located?
Near the caudal part of the ramus. inside of the jaw
47
What are the margins for removal of neoplasia on mandibulectomy?
1cm
48
What is the most common complication with mandibulectomy?
Mandibular drift
49
What is tight lip syndrome?
Rostral edge of lip tissue pulled over mandibular dental arcade
50
What does tight lip syndrome inhibit?
Mandibular growth
51
What is tight lip syndrome described most in/
Shar-peis
52
What are important complications of maxillectomy?
Oronasal fistula
53
How long does it take dogs to start eating after surgery?
48hrs
54
How long will it take the majority of dogs to adapt?
2 weeks
55
If a cat is having a hard time eating, what can be done?
Feeding tube
56
Can you remove the whole tongue in dogs? Cats?
Dog: yes
Cat: No
57
What types of cleft palate are there?
Hard palate only
Combo
Soft palate only
58
Is treatment of cleft palate always necessary?
Not if not clinical!
59
How do you diagnose a cleft palate?
Sedated oral exam
Remove any debris trapped in the cleft
60
What can be a sequela of cleft palate?
Aspiration pneumonia
61
Cleft palate can be a multi staged surgery
62
When is the best time to treat cleft palates?
Early (3-4 months age)
63
What is the artery that needs to be protected in cleft palate surgery?
Palatine artery
64
What is important post-op in cleft palate surgery?
Nothing hard PO for 4 weeks, including toys
65
What is the most common salivary gland for disease?
Sublingual
66
What is magic mouth wash made up of?
Lidocaine, Maalox (aluminum), benadryl
67
What is the most common disease of the salivary gland?
Sialadenitis (inflammation of gland)
68
In a parotid sialocele surgery, what must be avoided
Facial nerve
68
What is the most common type of sialocele?
Cervical sialocele
69
What is the second most common type of sialocele?
Sublingual/RanulaI
70
How to you cure a cervical sialocele?
Removal of BOTH mandibular and sublingual salivary gland
Something about lingual nerve
71
Why must mandibular and sublingual glands be removed?
They share the same duct
71
Does how much protein matter?
Less of how much, more of the type of protein
71
What is like the #1 takeaway from a lot of Rudinsky's lectures?
Dont jump to a liver diet
72
What should you keep in mind about protein content in growing animals?
Higher protein in kidney diet, worry more about where the protein is coming from
72
What are 7 things that make up a "typical" liver diet?
Reduced/modified protein
Reduced copper content
Increased zinc
Decreased sodium
Increased soluble fiber protein
L-carnitine fortified
Anti-oxidant enriched
73
What liver diseases are copper and zinc content specific for?
Copper hepatopathies
74
What does increased copper cause/
Oxidative stress
75
What does increased zinc do?
Zinc reduces the intestinal absorption of copper
76
What is the metabolism of copper?
Absorbed in intestine
Stored in liver
Secreted in bile
77
What should zinc supplementation not be combined with?
d-penicillamine
Decreases effect of both
78
What is the reason for decreased sodium content?
Avoids contributing to formation of portal hypertension and ascites
78
Reasons to modify protein?
Hepatic encephalopathy
79
Reason to decrease sodium?
Ascites/portal hypertension
79
Reason to reduce copper and increase zinc?
Copper hepatopathy
79
79
Why enrich with anti-oxidants?
Allergies
80
Reason to increase soluble fiber?
Hepatic encephalopathy
80
Why fortify with L-carnitine?
Increased L-carnitine to potentially aid in fatty acid oxidation
80
What is the threshold for copper hepatopathy?
400 (800 is bad)
80
What is a useful copper chelator?
Penicillamine
81
What supplement can give to a copper hepatopathy dog?
Zinc
82
What are the top 4 things to do for a copper hepatopathy dog?
Low copper diet
Copper chelator (penicillamine)
Zinc supplement
Anti-oxidant diet
82
What are 2 low copper proteins?
Eggs
White meat
83
What is a low copper diary product?
Cottage cheese
83
Where can you go to find copper concentration?
USDA website
83
What does a portosystemic shunt cause?
Heptaoencephalopathy (HE)
83
What is high in HE?
ammonia
83
What is medical therapy for portosystemic shunt?
Lactulose
Antibiotics
Anti-epileptic
84
Do you reduce protein in a PSS animal?
Not unless symptomatic
84
How do you treat lymphocytic disease?
Immunosupression
84
**Are elevate liver enzymes an indication for the use of a liver diet?
NO!!
84
What is copper needed for?
Normal METABOLISM
85
What does high amounts of copper cause?
Oxidative stress
85
What 2 molecules carry copper?
Albumin
Transcuprein
85
How is copper excreted?
through bile
85
What are the 5 treatments to copper hepatopathy?
Low copper diet
Copper chelation
Decrease inflammation
Zinc supplement
Anti-oxidant
85
*Typical Liver Diet
*Modified protein content
*Reduced copper content
*Increased zinc
*Decreased sodium
*Increased fiber
*L-carnitine
*Anti-oxidant
86
What is copper chelation?
Medications utilized to increase mobilization of copper out of body
86
Beside penecillamine, what is the other copper chelator that can be used?
Tridentine hydrochloride
86
Can zinc supplement and copper chelator be combined?
NO!!
86
What is a copper specific anti-oxidant?
Vitamin E
87
What is a classic anti-oxidant to be used with Cu hepatopathies?
Denamarin
87
Should you use colchicine?
No!!
87
What are the 2 reasons not to use it?
1. Documented to cause decreased copper excretion
2. High side effect profile
87
What is a nutraceutical?
food that has pharmaceutical benefit
88
What is s-adensyl-methionine (SAMe)
glutathione donor (aka an anti-oxidant donor)
88
Where is glutathione found (GSH)
Synthesized and found in almost every cell type
(Hepatocytes have higher levels)
88
What is something that you can prescribe to every liver patient?
Glutathione (GSH)
88
What is glutathione?
I think it is an antioxidant
88
What is another heptatoprotectant that can be prescribed?
N-acetylcysteine
88
What does cysteine do?
Increases glutathione levels
89
Where is cysteine best characterized?
Acetaminophen toxicity
89
What is a better home treatment for a hepatoprotectant than the IV acetylcystein?
S-adenosylmethionine (SAMe)
89
What are 2 brands of SAMe?
Denamarin
Denosyl
89
What is silymarin?
Milk Thistle
90
What is silymarin (milk thistle) specifically known to inhibit the uptake of?
Amanita mushrooms
91
What does silymarin specifically affect?
P450 metabolism
91
What is ursodiol?
Bile acid of chinese black bear
91
What does ursodiol cause?
Stimulates bile flow
91
What type of disease is ursodiol (bear bile) most useful in?
Liver cirrhosis (inability for bile to leave)
92
What are the 2 reasons to not use hepatoprotectants?
Tolerance
Finances
92
With necroinflammatory disease, what should you use?
SAMe +/- ursodiol
92
Which cholestatic disease, what should you use?
Ursodiol +/- SAMe
92
What is the first line of defense against immunomodulatory chronic hepatitis?
Corticosteroids there are others if the side effects are too high
92
What are the top 4 drugs for immunomodulatory chronic hepatitis?
Corticosteroids
Azathioprine
Mycophenalate
Cyclosporine
93
What are the top 2 drugs in cats for immunomodulatory chronic hepatitis?
corticosteroids
Cyclosporine
94
What is an iatrogenic side effect of prednisone (corticosteroid)?
Iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism
94
What are the 3 types of hepatic encephalopathy?
Type A - Acute liver failure associated
Type B - PSS associated
Type C - Chronic liver disease associated
95
What are the 4 components to treatment of hepatic encephalopathy?
Correct precipitating event
Modify dietary protein
Decrease ammonia absorption
Modify microbiome
96
Does ammonia or ammonium cross diffuse better?
Ammonia
97
What is the most common precipatiting factor HE?
Infection
98
What can oner restriction of protein have on HE?
Can make it worse!
98
Is organ meet a good protein?
No, very encephalopathic
99
What are 2 ways to reduce circulating ammonia?
Nonabsorbable disaccharides (alter colonic pH)
Oral antibiotics (to reduce ammonia-producing bacteria)
100
What is a non absorbable disaccharide that can be given?
Lactulose
101
What does lactulose do?
In the colon, lactulose is metabolized by gut bacteria into organic acids (like lactic acid and acetic acid), which acidify the intestinal environment.
The acidic pH helps convert ammonia (NH₃) into ammonium (NH₄⁺), a form less readily absorbed into the bloodstream, thus reducing ammonia levels.
101
What are 3 ways that the microbiome can be influenced of HE patient?
Antibiotic
Probiotic
Prebiotic
102
What does the C stand for?
Coagulopathy
102
What is lactulose categorized into?
Prebiotic
102
What is the acronym for liver disease complications?
CANINE
102
What are 3 antibiotics used with HE?
(MAN)
Metronidazole
Amoxicillin
Neomycin
Rifaximin but really expensive
103
What does the N stand for
Ncephalopathy
103
What does the A stand for
anemia
103
What does the I stand for?
Intestinal and gastric ulcers
103
What does the N stand for?
Ndotoxemia and infection
103
What does the E stand for?
effusion
103
What is the downside to omeprazole?
Liver metabolism
103
What is a good H2 blocker?
Famotidine
104
What are 3 acid suppressors for GI ulcers?
H2 blockers
Proton pump inhibitors
Omeprazole
104
What mechanism causes endotoxemia and infection?
Impaired kupffer cell function
104
What causes intra hepatic portal hypertension?
Cirrhosis
104
What type of H2 blocker should be avoided?
P450 inhibitors
104
Why does portal hypertension occur?
Increased pressure due to cirrhosis
104
What are 2 causes of post-hepatic portal hypertension?
Right heart failure
Pericardial effusion
104
What are 4 consequences of portal hypertension?
Ascites
Acquired PSS
Hepatomegaly
Gastric ulcers
104
What are 4 management strategies for ascites and edema?
Sodium restriction
Diuretics
Colloids
Abdominocentesis
105
Why does portal hypertension cause gastric ulcers?
Decreased blood flow makes the stomach more friable
105
What is an acquired shunt secondary to?
Pulmonary hypertension
105
What dog breeds get extra hepatic shunting vessels?
Cats, small dogs
105
What dog breeds get intrahepatic shunting vessels?
Large breed
105
What is a clinical sign of PSS especially in cats?
Hypersalivation
105
What is a clinical sign of PSS?
Urate stones
105
What are the 2 locations that the liver gets blood?
80% portal blood
20% Arterial blood
105
What is seen in RBCs of PSS cases?
Microcytic (small) RBCs
105
What may be seen in urinalysis of PSS cases?
Ammonium crystals
106
What are 2 primary liver function tests?
Serum bile acids
Blood ammonia levels
106
Given a PSS, what type of clearance increases?
Renal clearance over intestinal clearance
106
Serum bile acids increase with _______ types of liver disease
ALL
Hepatocellular dysfunction
Cholestasis
PSS
107
What is a more specific test for PSS?
Blood ammonia
108
What are the 3 medical managements for congenital PSS?
Protein-restricted diet
Lactulose, antibiotics
Correct precipitating events
109
What is the stainless steel ring that is used for constricting PSS?
Ameroid constrictor
110
What is the schedule of ameroid constricting?
Rapid phase - 14d
Gradual - Up to 60d
110
How is hepatic microvascular dysplasia differentiated from PSS?
Protein C
110
What type of PSS can a aneroid constrictor be used on?
Extrahepatic PSS
110
What is an asymptomatic reason for increased SBA?
Hepatic microvascular dysplasia
111
Can you treat hepatic microvascular dysplasia?
No
111
What do all surgical shunt corrections need to be pre-treated with?
Anti-epileptic
111
If dogs have a high protein C activity, >70% what does that likely mean?
MVD (but DOES NOT differentiate)
111
What is the best technique for determining fecal load?
Fecal flotation
112
If protein C is <70%, what does that mean?
It is PSS
113
What are the 3 consequences of PSS?
Hepatic encephalopathy
Urate urolithiasis
Hepatic atrophy
114
What is the least toxic anthelmintic?
Benzimidazoles
114
What do you need to change between large and small animals with fecal floats?
There is a different media
115
What is MOA of benzimidazoles?
Binds to beta-tubulin, disrupts microtubules to kill parasites
115
Why does the MOA work in parasites?
Their higher concentration of beta tubulins
115
What has the fasted rate of absorption of the benzimidazoles?
Liquid
115
What has the best concentration of the benzimidazoles?
Pellets
115
Where do benzimidazoles primarily work?
Within the gut
115
What is an issue with imidazothiazoles?
Narrow margin of safety
115
What does levamisole not work on?
Cestodes or trematodes
115
What is the mechanism of action of imidazothiazoles?
Cholinergic agonist at synaptic acetylcholine receptors on nematode muscle cells
116
What is the main difference between levamisole and pyrantel?
Levamisole has a narrow margin of safety
116
What is a cestodicide?
Praziquantel
116
What are cestodicides effective against?
Cestodes
116
What is the outcome of chronic fascioliasis?
Biliary hyperplasia and fibrosis
116
What is fascioliasis?
A zoonotic fluke
117
What is the life cycle of fascioliasis?
Immature fluke penetrates bowel wall and migrates to liver in 4 days
117
How long does it take for fascioliasis to mature?
8-12 weeks
117
What does acute fascioliasis cause?
Liver failure with jaundice
Clostridial disease
117
Once the fascioliasis is mature, what happens?
Penetrates bile duct leading to chronic fascioliasis
117
What is a bad, common sequela post-choke?
Aspiration pneumonia
117
What are macrocyclic lactones effective against?
BOTH endo and ectoparasites
117
How can you treat adult flukes?
Albendazole and benzensulfonamides
117
What macrocytic lactones are used most commonly world wide?
Avermectins and milbemycins
117
What do macrocytic lactones not work against?
Tapes and flukes
117
What is a drug that kills both endo and ectoparasites?
Endectocides
117
What is a common symptom of choke?
BILATERAL nasal discharge
117
What is the MOA of macrocyclic lactones?
Paralytic effects through GABA/glutamate gated Cl- channels
118
What uncommon clinical sing is seen in a guarded prognosis for choke?
Subcutaneous emphysema
118
What is an uncommon motility disorder in horses but is over represented in Friesian horses?
Megaesophagus
118
****What can you NOT use in food animals in the US?
Nitroimidazoles
118
With an esophageal tube, what should you lavage with?
ONLY WATER
118
What is the most common esophageal disorder in horses?
Choke
118
What should you sedate a choke horse with?
Alpha-2 or and opioid
118
What do you want to make sure happens during treatment of choke?
That there is a low head carriage
118
What drug do you use to relax the horse's esophagus during choke?
Buscopan
118
3 ways you can prevent choke?
Soft, good-quality feed
Slower feeding
Adequate dental care
118
What is the most common tumor of the esophagus?
Squamous cell carcinoma
118
What is the volume of an average adult horse's stomach?
8-12L
118
What is a dietary modification used after a choke case?
A mash, soak food in H2O
118
is the squamous or glandular easier to treat?
Squamous is easy to treat, glandular is hard to treat
118
What should you avoid as analgesia for choke cases?
NSAIDs (ulcer)
119
What are the types of equine gastric ulcer syndrom?
Equine squamous gastric disease
Equine glandular gastric disease
119
Why are race horses more at risk of equine squamous gastric disease?
Because the horse is continuously sloshing around the stomach
119
What is EGUS?
Equine gastric ulcer syndrome
119
What are 3 gastric mucosal protective factors?
Mucosal blood flow
Mucus (rich in bicarb to help neutralize acid)
Continuous grazing
120
What are drugs available to reduce pH of stomach
Omeprazole
120
Why does high concentrate feed increase risk of EGUS?
Products of fermentation are acidic
120
Is glandular or squamous on the top?
Squamous
121
Where is the #1 site for ESGD?
Margo plicatus
121
What can be a cause/exacerbate equine glandular gastric disease?
NSAIDs
121
What is ptyalism
Excess salivation
122
What is a diagnosis of EGUS?
Gastroscopy
123
How long do you treat a foal with EGUS?
28 days
124
Does aloe vera work?
YES!
124
What is the limitation to buffers for treatment of gastric ulcers in horses?
Need to be administered every 2 hours
125
What is DGE in foals?
diffuse gastric erosion
125
What should be available at all times to a horse with known EGUS?
Roughage (hay, grass)
125
What "phenomena" is associated with lumpy jaw?
Splendore-Hoeppli
125
How can you treat actinomycosis?
Penecillin, sodium iodide
125
***How do you treat a gastric impaction in horses?
Lavage!!! (Diet coke)
125
What gross looking bug is found in the wall of horse GI?
Gasterophilus intestinalis (ivermectin)
126
What is a common foreign body on the west coast of cows' pharynx?
Foxtails
126
What bacteria is lumpy jaw?
Actinomycosis
127
What is a parasite that causes choke in bovines?
hypoderma esophagitis
127
What is actinomycosis
Hard, non-painful swelling of the bone
128
What bacteria is wooden tongue/
Actinobacillus
129
What is wooden tongue?
Tongue thickened, hard, protrudes from the mouth
129
Where do hypoderma lineatum live?
Migrate around esophagus
129
What is necrotic laryngitis?
Calf diptheria
130
What age does calf diptheria onset?
3-20m
130
What bacteria causes calf ciptheria
Fusobacterium necrophorum
130
Where do hypoderma bovis live?
Along spine
131
What is necrotic laryngitis?
Acute infection of laryngeal mucosa and cartilage of young cattle
132
What is the treatment for necrotic laryngitis?
NSAID
Penecillin
Tracheostomy (if needed)
133
What is the treatment for pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity?
Change in feed (highly palatable feed)
NSAIDs
SAMe
Keep out of sunlight - precent photosensitization
Remove from pasture - prevent continued exposure
133
What is pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity?
Toxin from plant consumption
134
What is treatment for ascending cholangiohepatitis?
Antibiotics
135
What is treatment of hepatic encephalopathy?
Dextrose
Fluid therapy
Mineral oil (intestinal lube)
Oral antibiotics (reduce ammonia production)
Lactulose
136
What is Tyzzer's
Clostridium piliforme
137
How do you treat Tyzzer's?
Euthanasia
138
How can you TRY to treat Tyzzer's?
Penecillin and tetracycline
Plasma infusion
Fluids + dextrose
139
What is the overarching goal of treating hepatic encephalopathy in horses?
Antibiotics to reduce ammonia production (metro)
Lactulose (decrease intraluminal pH)
Cathartics (mineral oil, lactulose, sodium sulfate, magnesium sulfate)
140
What is bilirubin?
Digest heme
141
What is pre hepatic jaundice?
Hemolytic
142
What is anisocytosis?
RBC are different sizes
143
What do different size RBC mean?
It is regenerative
143
Wehre is bilirubin conjugated?
Liver
144
Where is the obstruction in intrahepatic jaundice?
Within the liver
145
Where does conjugated bilirubin go?
Into the intestine
146
Where is urobilirubin excreted?
Either in intestine or renal
147
What does extra hepatic jaundice mean?
Liver is likely fine but obstruction in bile duct
147
Where does conjugated bilirubin go normally?
Out bile duct into urobilirubin
148
What are causes of hepatic jaundice?
Inflammation
Lipidosis
FIP
Lymphoma
Hepatotoxicity
149
What causes post-hepatic jaundice?
Pancreatitis
Cholecystitis
Cholelithiasis
Biliary mass
149
What does a left shift on blood work mean?
Inflammation/infection
150
What is the most liver specific liver enzyme?
ALT
150
If no hemolysis is seen on CBC what will there be a lack of?
Low RBC
151
What is a cholestatic patter?
Increased ALP proportionally to ALT
Normal GGT!
152
What do the RBC look like in hepatic lipidosis?
Poikilocytosis
152
How does the liver appear on ultrasound of a lipidotic cat?
Hyperechoic
153
What are the 3 types of cholangitis?
Neutrophilic
Lymphocytic
Chronic
154
What is neutrophilic chonagitis?
Ascending biliary bacterial infection (anaerobes, G(-))
155
What transitions cholangitis to cholangiohepatitis?
Necrosis of hepatocytes beyond limiting plate (into liver)
156
What is triaditis in cats?
Pancreatitis
IBD
Cholangitis
157
How do you treat neutrophilic cholestatic liver disease in cats?
Antibiotics (ampicillin and metro)
UDCA
SAMe
Vit K (coagulation)
Food
Fluids
158
What do you treat lymphocytic cholestatic disease?
Prednisone (immunosuppression)
UDCA
SAMe
159
How to treat hepatic lipidosis?
Feed
UDCA
SAMe
160
What do you need to do prior to placing feeding tube?
Give Vit K to help with coagulation
161
What does fluid rehydration look like for hepatic lipidosis cats?
No dextrose
No lactate (no LRS)
162
CAN GIVE COBALAMIN TO HEPATIC LIPIDOSIS CATS AS SUPPLEMENT
162
What clotting factors does vitamin K activate?
2, 7, 9, 10
163
Why is there a vitamin K deficiency in liver disease patients?
Intestinal malabsorption
No bile acids for micelle formation and absorption.
164
What route do you need to give vitamin K supplementation?
Parenteral (just not PO)
165
What can be a complication of hepatic lipidosis treatment of cats?
Refeeding syndrome
166
What is refeeding syndrome?
Severe deficiency of electrolytes and fluid shift during refeeding due to insulin release and cell reuptake of glucose, P, K, Mg, and water
167
What to avoid refeeding syndrome?
Feed slowly, monitor closely with electrolytes and fluid
168
What is the affect of glutathione
Hepatoprotectant
Antioxidant
169
Why do we want antioxidant supplementation?
Liver is bombarded with oxidants to filter
170
What is the affect of SAMe
Hepatoprotectant
Antioxidant
171
What is the affect of Ursodiol
Hepatoprotectant
172
What is an extra hepatic biliary obstruction?
Gallbladder mucocele
173
What does a mucocele look like on ultrasound?
Kiwi
174
How can you medically manage mucoceles?
Hepatoprotectants
175
What are the 3 causes of infectious hepatitis in dogs?
Viral
Leptospirosis
Leishmania
176
What 2 drugs can be used to decrease inflammation associated with chronic hepatitis?
Corticosteroids
Azathiaprine
177
What 2 drugs can be used to decrease hepatic copper associated with chronic hepatitis?
Penicillamine
Zinc
178
What 2 drugs can be used to decrease oxidant injury associated with chronic hepatitis?
SAMe
Vit E
179
What drug can be used to promote choleresis associated with chronic hepatitis?
Ursodiol
180
What part of the lab work is increased in Cu associated liver disease?
ALT (hepatocellular injury)
181
What is the difference between acute liver disease and acute liver failure?
Failure includes hepatic encephalopathy and coagulopathy
182
What is the number 1 cause of acute liver injury?
Drugs and toxins
183
What is one of the highest risk drugs of acute liver injury?
Acetaminophen
184
What is the treatment for acute liver injury?
Supportive care
185
What are the 5 lobes of the liver (from left to right)?
Left lobe
Quadrate
Right medial
Right lateral
Caudate
186
What 2 lobes of the liver is the gallbladder located between?
Quadrate and right medial
187
What are the 2 lobes of the caudate?
Papillary process
Caudate process
188
What are the 2 afferent vessels entering the liver?
Portal vein
Hepatic artery
189
What is the efferent drainage of the liver?
Caudal vena cava
190
What are the 5 ligaments within the liver?
Right and left triangular
Coronary
Hepatorenal
Falciform
Lesser omentum
191
What is the sphincter around the major duodenal papilla?
Sphincter of Oddi
192
Since dogs have major and minor duodenal papilla, what pancreatic duct combines with the common bile duct?
Minor pancreatic duct
193
What are 6 indications for liver surgery?
Portosystemic shunt
Liver torsion
Neoplasia (focal lesion)
Elevated bile acids
Trauma
Hepatopathy
194
What are 6 indications for extra hepatic biliary surgery?
Pancreatic disease (can block duct)
Neoplasia
Gallbladder mucocele
Cholelithiasis
Bile peritonitis
Biliary obstruction
195
What are 2 examples of topical hemostatics?
Gelatin (foam)
Cellulose (mesh)
196
What are ways to take a biopsy of the liver?
TruCut
Laparoscopically
Guillotine
Punch
Lobectomy
197
What should you avoid when dealing with liver biopsies or surgeries?
NSAIDs
198
What should be done after hepatic surgeries?
NG tube places for feed
199
How often do you check weights post liver surgery?
Every 8 hours
200
What is the #1 cancer of the pancreas?
Insulinoma
201
Why would you perform surgery in a pancreatitis case?
To confirm diagnosis
Often to treat local complications, not primary disease
202
When would you consider surgery for pancreatic pseudocysts?
If persistent clinical signs and failure of other techniques
203
What is the significance of the blood supply to the pancreas?
There is common bloody supply to both the pancreas and duodenum so compromise to it may require resection of duodenum
204
What is the surgery for rerouting the biliary duct?
Cholecystoenterostomy
205
What is an important peri-operative concern for insulinoma surgery?
Hypoglycemia
206
3 Main pancreatic surgeries?
Mass enucleation
Pancreatic biopsy
Partial pancreatectomy
207
***What limb of the pancreas is preferred if needing a biopsy?
Distal right limb
208
What is the distal right limb preferred for biopsy?
Readily accessbile
Avoids pancreatic duct
Vascular supply to other organs is preserved
209
What 2 techniques are there for pancreatic biopsy?
Blunt dissection
Suture fracture
210
REASONS FOR PANCREATECTOMY: NEOPLASIA, ABSCESS, PSEUDOCYST
UP TO 90% OF PANCREAS CAN BE REMOVED
211
What is most common complication associated with pancreatic biopsy?
Pancreatitis
212
Is surgical intervention of insulinoma usually curative?
No (metastasis)
213
What will damage to pancreatic duct cause?
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
214
What can be a complication associated with glucose regulation of insulinomas?
Can quickly switch from hypoglycemia is hyperglycemia (diabetes mellitus!!!!)
215
What is a risk factor for constipation to keep in mind?
Electrolyte derangements
(hypokalemia / hypercalemia)
216
What is most important factor of constipation?
Water intake
217
What are a couple other contributing factors to constipation?
Medications affecting GI motility
Pain
Dont use opioids
217
What is the hardest/driest score on fecal scoring?
1
218
What is cisapride?
Medication used to increase GI motility
219
What is the initial treatment for megacolon?
Manual deobstipation
220
What is an alternative treatment to megacolon?
NG tube with CRI of Go-Lytely
221
What needs to be given in addition to Go-Lytely?
Cerenia
Causes nausea!
222
What is Go-Lytely?
Osmotic laxative solution (PEG)
223
Does exercise stimulate peristalsis?
yes
224
What do laxatives do to electrolytes in bowel?
Move fluids into intestine to promote motility
225
How does fiber increase bowel movement?
Considered a bulk-forming laxative, stimulates intestinal motility
226
How can lubricant laxatives be given?
Per rectum
227
What mechanism of laxative does Go-Lytely and Miralax use
Hyperosmotic laxative
228
What is hyper osmotic laxative?
Transitions fluid across gradient into intestines to promote motility
229
What drug is most commonly used for colonic motility?
Cisapride
230
What is proctitis?
Inflammation of rectal mucosa
231
How to treat proctitis?
Dietary changes, steroids
232
How do you treat a perineal hernia?
Surgical correction
233
What causes rectal prolapse?
Chronic tenesmus (straining)
233
What is the treatment for rectal prolapse?
Manual reduction + purse string
234
What is treatment for rectoanal stricture?
Balloon dilation
235
What is perianal fistula?
Gross rectal disease with holes
236
What dog breed gets perianal fistulas the most?
German shephards
237
What is the treatment for perianal fistulas?
Oral cyclosporine
Antibiotics if secondary infection
Increase fiber diet
238
How to treat anal sac abscess?
Clip, clean, flush
Antibiotic therapy
238
What is cyclosporine?
an immunosuppressive agent
239
Is constipation and obstipation the same thing?
NO!
240
What is a true hernia?
Through a natural opening
241
What is a false opening?
Traumatic/paramedian
Not a natural opening
242
Where does a hiatal hernia come through?
Esophageal hiatus
243
What is type 1 hiatal hernias
Intermittent movement of gastroesophageal junction into thoracic cavity
244
Is a hiatal hernia true and congenital?
Yes
245
When do you most often see type 1 hernias?
BOAS
246
What is type 1 hernia?
Sliding hiatal hernia
247
What is the medical management of hiatal hernia?
Reduce gastric acid secretion and protect esophageal mucosal protection
248
What can be surgical management of type 1 hiatus with BOAS?
Tie back (unilateral arytenoid lateralization)
248
Is surgical or medical management chosen first?
Medical management
249
What are the 3 surgeries for hiatal hernias?
Diaphragmatic hiatal reduction
Esophagopexy
L sided gastropexy
249
When is surgical management considered?
When medical management fails
250
What are the 3 phases of gastric acid secretion?
Cephalic
Gastric
Intestinal
251
What is secreted in gastric phase?
Histamine (stretch receptors)
251
What is secreted in the cephalic phase and what secretes it?
Acetylcholine
Parasympathetic
252
What is secreted in intestinal phase?
Gastrin (G cells, peristalsis to intestines)
253
What inhibits gastrin acid secretion (G cells)
Somatostatin
254
What cell is involved in gastric phase of gastric acid secretion?
ECL cells
255
What are 3 receptors that are targeted by antacids?
Histamine - H2 receptor antagonists
Prostaglandin - Misoprostol
ATPase - Proton pump inhibitor
256
What are some examples of antacids?
Aluminum hydroxide
Calcium carbonate
Magnesium hydroxide
257
What is the mechanism of action of antacids?
Decrease pepsin, stimulates local prostaglandin
258
What is the clinical efficacy and use of antacids
Rapid onset but short acting
Insufficient evidence for GUE or GERD
259
What is an adverse effect of antacids?
Interferes with PO drug absorption
260
What do the H2 receptors secrete?
Gastric acid
261
What is the mechanism of action of H2 blockers
Block histamine receptor so no gastric acid can be secreted by the parietal cells
261
What is the onset/resistance of H2 blockers?
Works 3-13 days before tolerance is built up
262
What are 3 examples of H2 receptor blockers?
Cimetidine
Ranitidine
Famotidine
263
Which of the H2 receptor blockers are resistant in dogs and cats?
Ranitidine
263
Are H2 receptor antagonists or PPIs better?
PPIs
264
What are 4 PPIs?
Omeprazole
Pantoprazole
Esomeprazole
Lansoprazole
265
When are PPIs most effective?
When taken shortly before a meal of with a meal
266
What is the MOA of PPIs?
Targets final pathway by binding the PPI and inhibiting it from releasing hydrogen, thus increasing pH
267
How often must a PPI be taken?
2x/day
267
Does administration of both an H2 receptor antagonist and PPI help?
No, may make it WORSE
268
What is an adverse affect of PPIs?
Intestinal dysbiosis
269
What is misoprostol?
A prostaglandin analog
270
Does prostaglandin increase or decrease gastric acid secretion?
Decrease
271
What are 3 adverse affects of misoprostol?
Abdominal pain
Diarrhea
Abortion
271
What is misoprostol good for?
Effective at decreasing gastric lesions association with high aspirin dosage
272
How do you give sucralfate?
Slurry
273
What does sucralfate do?
Interferese with pepsin (acidic)
274
When should you not give sucralfate?
To a consipated patient (aluminum)
275
WHAT IS SOMETHING TO BE REALLY AWARE OF WITH SUCRALFATE?
DECREASED BIOAVAILABILITY WITH MANY DRUGS
276
What does GUE stand for?
Gastroduodental ulceration and erosion
277
What is the standard of care for GUE?
PPIs
278
Is there evidence for prophylactic use of gastroprotectants in dogs and cats with non erosive gastritis?
No
279
Does hepatic disease cause GUE?
yeah
280
When should you start gastroprotectants?
With it is associated with GI bleeding
281
What is SRMD?
Stress-related mucosal damage
282
What is beneficial to working dogs?
They have SRMD and use of PPIs may benefit to decrease SRMD
283
Can renal disease cause GUE?
Yes, rarely
284
Is there evidence to support prophylactic use of gastroprotectants in kidney disease animals (IRIS 1-3)?
No
285
Same thing goes with pancreatitis. Basically dont use gastroprotectants unless there is evidence of GUE
286
GI bleeding is common with immune thrombocytopenia
287
How do PPIs help with reflux esophagitis?
Doesn't decrease amount of pepsin but just increases the pH
288
Why is IVDD associated with GI issues?
Because of the high use of steroids
289
Basically, use PPIs with GUE, SRMD, reflux esophagitis otherwise there is no reason to treat prophylacticly treat (hepatic is a maybe)
290
What does GERD stand for?
Gastroesophageal reflux disorder
291
What are the 3 options for treatment of GERD?
Acid suppression
Close LES
Promote gastric emptying
292
What is the best treatment of GERD?
Acid suppression
293
What are the 2 options for increasing LES tone and promote gastric emptying?
metoclopramide
cisapride
294
What part of the GI tract does cisapride act on?
The whole thing
295
What part of the GI tract does metoclopramide act on?
Just the pylorus and proximal duodenum
296
what are the 2 affects of misoprostol?
Acid suppression and cytoprotective effects
296
If PPIs are administered for more than 4 weeks, what needs to be done?
Need to taper to prevent a rebound gastric acid hyper secretion
297
What is sucralfate affective at doing?
Adhering to ulcerated/damaged mucosa
298
What is the myenteric reflex?
Intestinal contraction behind bolus and relaxation in front
298
What (again) are the top 2 promotability drug in dogs?
Metoclopramide and cisapride
299
What is the MOA of metacopramide?
Increase release of acetylcholine which increases contraction of circular muscles
299
What is an additional benefit of metoclopramide?
Anti-emetic
300
Can you use metoclopramide in obstructions?
NO!
301
Can you use metoclopramide in vomiting disorders?
Yeah but make sure it isnt an obstruction
302
Is cisapride or metoclopramide more potent?
Cisapride
303
Is cisapride an antiemetic
No
304
Which pro kinetic acts upon the whole GI tract?
cisapride
305
What is a last resort pro motility that can be used?
Erythromycin
306
Does the erythromycin have an antimicrobial effect?
no its at a lower dose than antimicrobial
307
Does erythromycin have an affect on the colon?
YES!!
307
Can you use erythromycin on a cat?
NO!!!
308
What is the MOA of erythromycin?
Binds the motilin receptor
309
What does MrMRE stand for?
Microbiota related modulation responsive enteropathy
309
What was commonly prescribed for decades for acute and chronic diarrhea?
Antibiotics
310
What is the treatment of MrMRE?
Biotic drugs (pre, sym, pro)
311
Do you withhold food doe acute diarrhea?
No!!!
312
What should you be aware of when searching for psyllium supplementation?
No xyllazine in formulation
312
What is her best way to treat diarrhea?
Fiber
313
What modifications can you potentially give for acute diarrhea?
Highly digestable
Low-fat
Fiber-enriched
314
What is the best source of fiber?
Psyllium husk
314
What is a synbiotic?
Synbiotics are mixtures of probiotics (helpful gut bacteria) and prebiotics (non-digestible fibers that help these bacteria grow).
315
What group had the best time to remission of clinical signs after acute diarrhea?
Psyllium group
316
What is pectin?
A prebiotic fiber
317
What does an adsorbent do?
Molecules adhere to surface and eliminate
317
What is koalin?
Aluminum silicate
318
What are kaolin-pectin products used for?
Acute diarrhea
318
What is kaolin considered?
An adsorbent
319
What species should you be cautious using Pepto Bismol in?
Cats (can use in dogs but not best first line)
320
Can you use motility modifiers to decrease diarrhea?
Yes but not first line
320
When a motility modifier is used, what should it be?
Loperamid
Atropine causes ileus!
321
What are the 5 types of infectious diarrhea?
Bacterial
Viral
Protozoal
Fungal
Parasitic
322
What are a couple antibiotic options for parvo?
Metro
Ampicillin
322
***What are the 5 treatment options for parvovirus
IV fluids
Anti-emetics
Antibiotic
Fecal transplant
Nutritional support
323
What do you need to address in IV fluids?
Potassium chloride and hypoglycemia
324
What is a new treatment for parvo?
Canine parvovirus monoclonal antibody (CPMA)
325
What is an antibiotic option for outpatient parvo?
Cefovecin
326
How does CPMA work?
binds virus and doesn't allow entry into cell
327
How long does a parvo pup need to be isolated?
1 week
328
What is FIP mutated from?
Feline coronavirus
329
What rate does coronavirus mutate into FIP?
10%
330
New product may make FIP treatable
331
What is the product that makes FIP treatable?
GS-441524 (GS-44)
331
How is GS-44 given?
Oral preferred but also injectable
332
How effective is GS-44
Nearly 100%
333
What is a side effect of GS-44?
Urolithiasis of stone made from the drug
334
What are the 3 protozoal enteritis?
Giardia
Tritrichomonas
Coccidiosis
335
Does all giardia need treated?
Nope
336
What is treatment for giardia (3 things)
Fenbendazole
Metro
High fiber diet
337
Does the giardia vaccine work?
Unlikely
338
How does tritrichomonas present?
Chronic waxing-waning large bowel diarrhea
339
What off label treatment has been reportable working for tritrichomonas?
Ronidazole
340
What is #1 bacterial cause of diarrhea in cats and dogs?
Histo
341
What are the 2 options to treat histo?
Itraconazole
Fluconazole (both azoles)
341
What are 2 side effects of treating histo?
GI upset
Hepatotoxicity
342
What does itraconazole require?
Needs to be given with food
343
***WHAT IS SUPER IMPORTANT ABOUT WHERE YOU GET ITRACONAZOLE?
MUST BE NAME BRAND OR GENERIC
(not compounded)
344
What is a different treatment if you can't give an azole for histo?
Amphotericin B
344
What are most bacterial etiologies for acute diarrhea?
Self-limiting
345
What is the only acceptable bacterial enteritis to use antibiotics with?
E. coli
345
What is best treatment of E coli?
Enroflaxacin (Baytril)
346
What diet do you provide if it is just mild esophagitis?
Smaller, fat restricted meals
347
How do you treat a moderate to severe esophagitis on top of PPIs?
Prokinetics too
348
After esophageal foreign body, what do you need to treat for?
Stricture
349
How can you treat an esophageal stricture?
Balloon dilation (needed multiple times about every 5 days and average is 3 times)
350
What is a B tube?
Its an indwelling balloon dilation that allows owners to dilate the balloon at home to help fix a stricture
351
What is an option for refractory cases of esophagus stricture?
A stent
351
What is a vascular ring anomaly that causes esophageal obstruction?
Persistent right aortic arch (PRAA)
351
How do you treat persistent right aortic arch?
Surgically
352
Wha tis the second most common cause of megaesophagus (behind myasthenia graves)
Addison's (hypoadrenocorticism)
352
What is the treatment for megaesophagus?
Treat underlying cuase
353
What is treatment of chronic gastritis?
Hypoallergenic diets or hydrolyzed diets
354
What is a bacterial cause of chronic gastritis?
Helicobacter
354
Does helicobacter always cause gastritis?
No! Sometime normal microflora
355
How to treat helicobacter?
Antbx
355
What is physaloptera?
Nematode - Stomach worm
356
How to treat physaloptera?
Fenbendazole
357
How do you treat chronic gastritis from bilious vomiting syndrome?
Late night meal
358
What do you want to avoid to avoid gastric ulcers?
Concurrent NSAIDS and Steroids
358
How do you treat hairballs?
Key to treatment is prevention... Manage coat with diets, daily grooming, gastric lubricants, promotability
359
Which radiograph should you take to differentiate food bloat from GDV
Right lateral
360
What is treatment of food bloat?
IV fluids and pain management
360
Is acute gastritis usually self-resolving?
Yes
361
Why do NSAIDs cause ulcers?
They inhibit the production of prostaglandin which is part of the wall
362
What is functional gastric motility disorder considered?
A diagnosis of exclusion
363
What are the 3 key signs of GDV?
Non-productive retching, abdominal distention, and tachycardia
364
How long will food bloat take to resolve?
24-48hrs
365
What are the 4 vomiting centers?
Cerebral cortex
Vestibular
Abdominal Viscera
Chemoreceptor trigger zone
366
What are the receptors of the vomtijgn center?
5-HT3
NK1
Alpha
366
What are the receptors of the viscera?
5HT3 (serotonin)
367
What are the receptors of the CRTZ?
D2 (dopamine) and Norepinpehine (alpha2)
367
What are the receptors of the vestibular apparatus?
Cat: Acetylcholine (M1)
Dog Histamine (H1)
368
What fluids do you want to give with metabolic acidosis?
LRS
369
What fluids do you want to give with metabolic alkalosis?
Sodium chloride
369
What is the drug name of cerenia?
Maropitant
370
What blocks the NK1 (substance P)
Maropitant
371
What blocks the 5-HT3 (Serotonin)
Ondansetron
372
What blocks the D2 (dopamine)
Metaclopramide
373
What blocks the alpha 2 (norepinephrine)
Chlorpromazine
373
What blocks the H1 (histamine)
Diphenhydramine
374
What induces vomiting (agonist) of dopamine in dogs?
Apomorphine
374
What induces vomiting (agonist) of alpha2 - norepinephrine in cats?
Xylazine or dexmedetomidine
375
What induces vomiting (agonist) of histamine?
Hydromorphone (dog)
375
What are 3 common causes of chronic diarrhea?
Parasites
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
Addison's
376
How do you treat EPI?
Pancreatic enzymes
377
Is a specific diet needed in EPI?
No
378
What are the 3 steps for chronic diarrhea?
Diet
Microbiota
Immunomodulation
379
Are all food reactions from food allergies?
NO!
380
What are most common food allergens?
Beef, dairy, chicken, wheat, fish
380
What are hydrolyzed diets?
Reduced protein size -> reduced allergenicity
381
What are options for food trial/treatments?
Limited antigen
Highly digestable
Low fat
Fiber enriched
Home cooked
382
Which disease are low-fat diets especially effective in?
PLE from lymphagectasia
382
What is something that will be noticed when you start feeding a more digestible diet?
Less pooping
383
What needs to be supplemented in diets?
Cobalamin
384
What is insoluble fiber used for?
Bulking agent
384
What will the poop with insoluble fiber look like?
More and harder poop
385
What are the 5 immunomodulatory agents that can be used for treatment of intestinal disease?
Pred
Budesonide
Cyclosporine
Chlorambucil
Mycophenloate mofetil
Azathioprine
386
What is the gastric slip?
Mucosa + submucosa falling away from muscularis and serosa
386
When is tensile strength at its lowest (aka the lag phase)
3-5 days after surgery
387
When is the highest risk of dehiscence?
3-5 days post op
388
What cells produce collagen?
Both fibroblasts and smooth muscles
389
What do gastric surgical patients usually have with their electrolytes?
Low Na, Cl, K due to stomach acid loss
389
What 3 things must be done pre op?
Correct dehydration
Correct electrolytes
Fasting
390
How thick are bites through the stomach?
Full thickness!
391
What type of blade is used for stomach incision?
#11
392
Should you use your hands within the lumen of the stomach?
No, use tools
393
Can you double dip on stomach surgery?
No!
394
What are the 2 options for closure?
single or two layer closure
394
If using a single layer closure, what are the bites?
Full thickness
395
If using a two layer closer, what does it look like
Mucosa and submucosa = simple continuous
Muscular and serosa = inverting pattern (cushings)
396
What NEEDS to be done pre-op for GDV?
Shock dose of fluids
396
Which side of the dog do you stand on for GDV?
Right hand
396
What is the pulling/pushing for GDV?
Grab pylorus with right and pull toward ceiling
Push body to the left with left hand
397
What are the 4 things to evaluate color in GDV surgery?
Color
Thickness
Pulsation
Peristalsis
398
With an incisional gastropexy, where is the cut made?
In the pyloric antrum
398
How deep is the cut?
Partial thickness!
399
Where is the body wall made for incisional gastropexy?
On the RIGHT body wall caudal to 13th rib
400
What are the 5 types of gastropexys?
Incisional
Belt loop
Circum-costal
Incorporating
Laparoscopic
401
Are antibiotics needed post op for GDV?
Not normally
402
What is the largest part of the small intestine?
Jejunum
403
What artery does most all of the blood supply for intestines come from?
Cranial mesenteric artery
403
How do you tell the difference between jejunal and colonic vessels?
Jejunal are web-like
Colonic are parallel
404
Is colonic return of strength slower or faster than small intestine?
Slower
405
What do you increase pre-op as you move more distally?
Use of antibiotics (more bacteria)
406
What antibiotic is good to be used in both stomach and intestinal surgeries?
Cephalosporins
407
Which direction of foreign body do you make the incision?
Aborally
408
What do you do after an enterotomy to ensure adequate closure?
A leak test
408
How do you perform resection and anastomosis?
Isolate bowel with crushing forceps (on inside part)
Occlude bowel with non crushing (on outside part)
409
What clamps are used for non-crushing?
Doyens (one click)
410
What are 5 tips to resolve luminal disparity?
Angling clamps
Suture placement
Spatulate intestine
Luminal reduction
Stapler
410
Where os most common anchor place for a linear foreign body in dog and cat
Dog: Pylorus
Cat: Underneath tongue
410
What are 2 causes of intussusception?
Neoplasia
Parasites
411
What percent results in short bowel syndrome?
50-80%
412
What needs to be done 12-24hrs after surgery?
Feeding (NG or enteral)
