Block B Flashcards
(650 cards)
1
Q
Hematocrit:
A
% volume of packed erythrocytes
2
Q
buffy coat
A
layer of leukocytes and platelets
3
Q
unformed elements-
A
liquid part of blood
4
Q
is plasma acidic or basic
A
slightly alkaline
5
Q
plasma is ___% water
A
90
6
Q
the most abundant leukocyte is:
A
neutrophils
7
Q
the second most abundant leukocyte is:
A
lymphocytes
8
Q
agranulocytes consist of:
A
lymphocytes and monocytes
9
Q
granulocytes consist of:
A
neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
10
Q
platelets are aka:
A
thrombocytes
11
Q
platelets are more numerous than ___ but less numerous than ____
A
WBC’s
RBC’s
12
Q
how do you isolate plasma:
A
add an anticoagulant and centrifuge
13
Q
if an anticoagulant is added before centrifugation, what layers will form from centrifugation?
A
plasma, buffy coat, packed RBC’s
14
Q
if no anticoagulant is added before centrifugation then what layers will you get?
A
serum and a blood clot
15
Q
what is difference between serum and plasma?
A
serum lacks fibrinogen
16
Q
the main protein constituent of unformed blood components is:
A
albumin
17
Q
name 3 proteins of unformed blood:
A
albumin, globulin, and fibrinogen
18
Q
all WBC’s have ____ granules, but only granluocytes have ______ granules
A
- primary/azurophilic
- secondary/specific
19
Q
Total erythrocyte count of adult-
A
4-6 million per cubic mm
20
Q
total leukocyte count of adult-
A
5-9 thousand per cubic mm
21
Q
if total leukocyte count is higher than ____, infection is indicated
A
10 thousand per cubic mm
22
Q
during infection, total leukocyte count can reach as high as ______
A
40 thousand per cubic mm
23
Q
differential leukocyte count
A
percentages of 5 given WBC/total leukocyte count
24
Q
if neutrophil count is high, _____ infection is indicated
A
bacterial
25
if eosinophil count is high, _____ is indicated
parasitic infection, allergic reaction, or chronic infection
26
total lymphocyte count of adult-
2500/ cubic mm
27
total monocyte count of adult-
300 cubic mm
28
total neutrophil count of adult-
4400 cubic mm
29
total eosinophil count of adult-
200 cubic mm
30
total basophil count of adult-
5 cubic mm
31
life span of RBC's
120 days
32
hemopoiesis-
generic name for the process that includes both red and white blood cell production
33
in sickle cell disease, misshapen RBC's last _____ days
30-40
34
erythrocyte composition:
water-
lipids, carbs, etc-
hemoglobin-
66%
1%
33%
35
each hemoglobin molecule consists of ___ protein subunits
4
36
most prevalent type of hemoglobin in adults-
HbA
37
HbA is __% of hemoglobin in adults
96%
38
HbA2 is ___ % of hemoglobin in adults
1.5-3%
39
HbA is composed of what subunits
2 alpha and 2 beta
40
HbA2 is composed of what subunits?
2 alpha and 2 delta chains
41
HbF is composed of what subunits
2 alpha and 2 gamma chains
42
_____ is an important marker of diabetes
HbA1c
43
HbA1c is HbA irreversibly bound to _____
glucose
44
an HbA1c count greater than ____% over the last 3 months is indicative of diabetes
7%
45
What kind of hemoglobin is present in sickle cell anemia and what is its subunit composition?
HbS and it is 2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains in which position 6 has a valine substituted for a glutamic acid
46
Sickle cell RBC's alter cell shape at _________
low oxygen concentrations
47
RBC diameter on a blood smear
8.2 micrometers
48
RBC diameter on tissue section
7 micrometers
49
tissue sectioned RBC diameter less than 6 micrometers is called a
microcyte
50
tissue sectioned RBC diameter greater than 8 micrometers called a
macrocyte
51
if you increase RBC size, it is less efficient at oxygen transport because:
you decease SA/V ratio, which means you decrease surface area available for gas exchange
52
if you decrease size of RBC, it is less efficient at oxygen transport because
you decrease oxygen carrying capacity of individual RBC's
53
RBC's biconcave disc shape adds ___% more surface area
20-30%
54
total RBC surface area is ______ times surface area of exterior body
2,000
55
circulating erythrocyte:
diameter-
central thickness-
edge thickness-
7.8 micrometers
.8 micrometers
2.6 micrometers
56
crenation-
spiky appearance of RBC's caused by decreased ATP, lysolecithin, and some fats in cell membrane. not necessarily due to hypertonicity
57
all humans have enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of the ___ antigen, but the enzymes that alter glycosylation of this antigen vary
O
58
someone with blood type AB has __ antigens that are glycosylated with _______
O
| A and B antigens
59
when mother is Rh- and fetus is Rh+, ______ can occur
erythroblastosis fetalis
60
______ is a structural protein that keeps RBC's distinctive shape
spectrin
61
spectrin is an accessory protein for _____
actin
62
deficiencies in spectrin can cause RBC morphological alterations like (2)
hereditary ellipsocytosis and hereditary spherocytosis
63
3 surface associated proteins of RBC's
spectrin, Band 3, and Glycophorin
64
Band 3 is a _________ channel
anion transporter
65
Band 3 does what?
allows HCO3- to cross plasma membrane in exchange for Cl-. this exchange facilitates the release of CO2 in the lung
66
_________ are the 2 main transmembrane proteins exposed to the outer surface of the red blood cell
glycophorin C and Band 3
67
ankyrin-
anchors spectrin scaffold to band 3
68
anisocytosis-
change in RBC size
69
poikilocytosis-
change in RBC shape
70
hypochromia-
decrease in hemoglobin content (cells appear lighter because there is less iron)
71
hypochromic microcytic anemia-
smaller cell and decreased hemoglobin content
72
hyperchromia-
increase in hemoglobin content (cells appear darker because there is more iron)
73
hyperchromic macrocytic anemia-
larger cell with increased hemoglobin content
74
anemia-
clinically, a decrease in normal hemoglobin content; hence, RBC's are not providing adequate oxygen to body tissues
75
primary anemia-
RBC count is down
76
secondary anemia-
RBC count is constant, but Hb concentration is down
77
macrocytic anemia-
RBC count is down, and RBC size is larger
78
difference between hypoxia, anemia, and ischemia:
hypoxia refers to low levels of oxygen in tissues, anemia is a reduction in ability to transport oxygen to tissues, and ischemia is a reduction of blood flow
79
are leukocytes in circulation differentiated?
no
80
leukocytosis-
pathological increase in WBCs
81
leukopenia-
pathological decrease in WBC's
82
do agranulocytes contain granules?
yes, just primary granules
83
lymphocyte size varies from _____ micrometers
6-18
84
small lymphocytes make up ___% of lymphocytes
90
85
___ and ____ cells are small lymphocytes
T and B
86
NK cells are large/small lymphocytes?
large
87
lymphocytes comprise ___% of circulating WBC's
30
88
cytoplasm is ___philic
baso
89
lymphocytes circulate in blood for ___ hours
8
90
can lymphocytes recirculate?
yes
91
exposure to antigens stimulates ____ in lymphocytes
asymmetric mitosis
92
B lymphocyte:
____ % of circulating lymphocytes
responsible for ____ immune response
has ________ receptors in membrane
- 15
- humoral
- immunoglobulin
93
in connective tissue, B lymphocytes differentiate into ____ cells
plasma
94
T lymphocyte:
____ % of circulating lymphocytes
responsible for _______ immunity
differentiate into ____ and _____ cells
- 80
- cell mediated
- memory and effector
95
T lymphocytes recruit other cells for immune responses via
cytokines
96
T lymphocytes arise from _____ in fetal life
thymus
97
NK cells:
___% of circulating lymphocytes
involved in ______ and ______ response
- 5%
| - antiviral and anti-tumor
98
T lymphocytes differentiate into 4 effector cell types:
cytotoxic CD8 cells, Helper cells (CD4), regulatory/suppressor CD8/CD45RO cells, and gamma/delta cells
99
Cytotoxic CD8 recognizes _____ and does what?
foreign antigen
| lyses cells
100
graft rejections are due to ____ cells
cytotoxic CD8 cells
101
Helper CD4 cells assist ____ cells by _____
- B cells
| - secreting lymphokines to induce immune response
102
HIV targets ____ cells
CD4
103
Suppressor CD8/CD45RO cells do what? (2)
decrease immune response and regulate marrow
104
gamma/delta cells originate in the _____.
| *they are intraepithelial lymphocytes
thymus
105
monocytes spend ___ days in circulation
2
106
monocytes differentiate into ______ in connective tissue, where they can live for _______
- macrophages
| - months-years
107
monocyte cytoplasm is _____, meaning it has a foamy appearance
vacuolar
108
macrophages are involved in ______ healing
bruise
109
osteoclasts-
perform bone resoprtion
110
alveolar macrophages are found where-
in the lung
111
kupffer cells are found in
the liver
112
function of macrophages
bacterial phagocytosis
113
macrophages perform bacterial inactivation via
respiratory burst activity
114
macrophages produce cytokines for:
communication and recruitment of other lymphocytes to area
115
macrophages process and present antigens via formation of
foreign body giant cell
116
monocytes have _____ nucleoplasm
flocculent
117
granulocytes are collectively referred to as ______
microphages
118
granulocytes contain _______ nuclei
heterochromatic
119
how do neutrophil granules stain?
they do not stain
120
how long do neutrophils last in connective tissue?
days
121
finding stab or band form neutrophils in blood smears is indicative of
big infection, because upon infection marrow will pump out lots of neutrophils that havent had time to fully develop yet
122
primary granules are lysosomes that contain-
myeloperoxidase, acid hydrolases, defensins, and cathelicidin
123
secondary granules contain _________, such as: (4)
- antimicrobial agents
| - lysozyme, lactoferrins, phospholipase, and complement activators
124
what is the last granule to be synthesized by neutrophils
tertiary granules
125
tertiary granules contain (3)
gelatinase, phosphatases, and collagenases
126
tertiary granules facilitate:
contact with and phagocytosis of bacteria
127
tertiary granules break down _____ and go through bacterial membranes
glycocalyx
128
list the order of release of neutrophil granules:
tertiary, secondary, primary
129
neutrophils:
| teritiary granules _________, then secondary granules ______, then primary granules ______
identify, kill, and clean up
130
at the site of injury, neutrophils recognize foreign substance. if they cannot recognize it, the substance must be _______. Then the foreign body is _______. After digestion of foreign body, the trash is either ______ or _____
- opsonized
- internalized
- stored in residual bodies or exocytized
131
at the same time that neutrophil granules are killing a foreign body, the neutrophil is synthesizing ______ to recruit other immune cells
leukotrienes
132
usually the first WBC to arrive and kill bacteria
neutrophil
133
after neutrophils kill bacteria, ______ cleans up the debris and _______ repairs the area
- macrophages
| - fibrblasts
134
presence of basophils, eosinophils, and lymphocytes in wounds indicates _______
chronic infection
135
eosinophils:
___% of circulating WBC's
larger/smaller than neutrophil?
- 2-4
| - larger
136
Eosinophil specific granules contain (5):
major basic protein, lysosomal enzymes, collagenase/cathepsins, histaminases, aryl sulfatase
137
major basic protein-
anti-parasitic protein
138
eosinophils counteract the action of ______
basophils
139
aryl sulfatase-
counteracts slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis
140
SRS is produced by _____, and can lead to ____
- basophils
| - anahylactic shock
141
what leukocyte number increases during skin infections?
eosinophils
142
eosinophil levels have a ____ rhythm
diurnal
143
eosinophil numbers increase during ____ and decrease during ____
- day
| - night
144
eosinophils are good at phagocytizing ____ and bad at phagoctizing _______
- antigen-antibody complexes
| - bacteria
145
eosinophils respond chemotactically to ____ and ____
basophils and mast cells
146
eosinophils counteract the effect of ______ and _____ degranulation
basophil and mast cell
147
basophils share lineage with _____ cells
mast cells
148
Basophils:
___% of circulating WBCs
_____ micrometer diameter
- .5-1%
| - 1.8-10
149
basophilic granules have a dark appearance due to
heparin sulfate
150
heparin sulfate is a _______
vasodilator
151
basophil specific granules contain (4):
heparin sulfate, leukotrienes, histamines, and SRS
152
leukotrienes are involved with _______
smooth muscle constriction in airways
153
histamines are a _______
vasodilator
154
SRS is a potent ______
vasodilator
155
SRS can cause anaphylactic shock, which occurs because
rapid peripheral vasodilation causes blood pressure to drop and capillaries to collapse. even if you save person, irreversible damage can be caused to the peripheral body
156
interleukins promote ____ antibodies
IgE
157
Eosinophils and neutrophils produce chemotactic factors such as ____ and _____, which recruit more ____ and ____ to the area. Immune cells that will ______ the response are also recruited.
- cytokines and chemokines
- eosinophils and neutrophils
- balance or terminate
158
when mast cells and basophils bind with IgE's they become ________. Reexposure to antigens for the IgE's attached to these cells leads to _______.
- sensitization
| - degranulation
159
platelets are fragments of
megakaryocytes
160
shape of platelets
biconvex disc
161
circulation time for platelets
10 days
162
platelets develop where?
in bone marrow
163
a platelet is divided into the ______ and ______
granulomere and hyalomere
164
hyalomere-
peripheral region of platelet that contains a ring of microtubules to maintain shape and stiffness. also contains microfilaments for clot contraction
165
granulomere-
center region of platelet that has specific granules and membranous organelles
166
what are granules of granulomere for?
| what's in them?
- the create the clotting cascade
| - alpha-fibrinogen, clotting factors, gamma-ADP, ATP, serotonin, histamine, and gamma-hydrolytic enzymes
167
alpha-fibrinogen and clotting factors-
initiate clotting cascade and initiate production of fibrin to make a clot
168
gamma-ADP, ATP, serotonin, and histamine from platelets do what?
facilitate adhesion of clot formation and constriction of blood vessels
169
gamma-hydrolytic enzymes do what?
involved in production and resorption of clot
170
platelet organelles (2)
dense tubular system and open canalicular system
171
dense tubular system is similar to
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
172
dense tubular system sequesters
Ca2+
173
is dense tubular system connected to surface?
no
174
is open canalicular system connected to surface?
yes
175
open canalicular system is important in interacting with
plasma
176
open canalicular system is similar to
T tubule system in muscle
177
Degranulation of platelets is stimulated by
contact with collagen fibers in connective tissue
178
after platelet degranulation there is a multistep conversion of _____ to _____ to ______
thromboplastin to prothrombin to thrombin
179
thrombin catalyzes conversion of _____ into _____
fibrinogen into fibrin
180
white thrombus-
platelets only (primarily fibrinogen)
181
red thrombus-
platelets + fibrin
182
______ initiates thrombus breakdown
plasmin
183
4 phases of hemopoietic development
yolk sac phase, liver phase, spleen phase, and adult phase
184
duration of yolk sac phase-
conception-3 months
185
duration of liver phase
1-9 months
186
duration of spleen phase-
adult phase
187
in the yolk sac phase, cells from _____ form _______ in wall of yolk sac and seed numerous CFUs
embryonic mesoderm
| blood islands
188
during development, erythrocytes remain nucleated until
birth
189
is the liver still hemopoietic in adults?
not normally, but can in some cases
190
in the spleen, ________ continues postnatally
lymphopoiesis
191
myeloid tissue-
tissue in bone supporting RBC and WBC development
192
lymphoid tissue-
tissue supporting lymphocyte development
193
3 locations of lymphoid tissue
thymus, GALT (gut associated lymphatic tissue), and lymph nodes
194
CFUs are derived from
mesenchymal reticular tissue
195
name the 5 types of CSFs we must know
GM-CSF, G-CSF, M-CSF, EPO, TPO
196
GM-CSF
granulocyte/monocyte CSF
197
G-CSF
granulocyte CSF
198
M-CSF
monocyte CSF
199
EPO
erythropoietin
200
TPO
thrombopoietin
201
what organ produces EPO
kidneys
202
renal failure can lead to anemia because
the kidneys will stop producing EPO
203
CFU makes up 1/_______ nucleated marrow cells and 1/________ nucleated peripheral cells
- 1,000
| - 1,000,000
204
potency-
potential of given cell to differentiate into other cell types
205
Hematopoietic Stem cell--> _________--> ______--> _________--> Mature blood cell
Hematopoietic stem cell--> multipotential HSC (myeloid)--> porgenitor cell (CFU)--> Precursor cell--> Mature Blood cell
206
progenitor cells:
Multipotential or unipotential?
self renewing or not?
unipotential and self renewing
207
precursor cells:
multi or unipotential?
self renewing or not?
unipotential and not self renewing
208
medullary cavities of bone-
site of normal adult hemopoiesis
209
red marrow-
hemopoietically active
210
Yellow marrow-
reduced hemopoietic activity; adipocytes dominate
211
transient cells-
developing blood cells in interstitial spaces between fixed cells and fibers; these cells move in and out of sinusoids
212
sinuses/sinusoids-
spaces in the discontinuous epithelium of the marrow where cells can enter circulation
213
erythroblastic islets-
clusters of CFUs that give rise to a particular lineage
214
most predominant cell type being produced in marrow
neutrophils
215
second most predominant cell type being produced in marrow
RBCs
216
common progenitor of neutrophils and monocytes
CFU-GM
217
granulocyte stages of development:
myeloblast--> promyelocyte--> myelocyte--> metamyelocyte--> band cell--> mature cell
218
granulocytes differentiate at the _____ stage
myelocyte
219
during granulocyte differentiation, the amount of nuclear heterochromatin decreases/increases?
increases
220
CFU get larger/smaller when they develop into myeloblast?
larger
221
do myeloblasts have azure granules?
no
222
should you see myeloblasts in the periphery?
no
223
the first granulocyte identifiable in lab
promeyelocyte
224
what kind of granules does a promyelocyte have?
azure granules
225
do promyelocytes have nucleoli?
yes
226
why is there a decline in azure granule amount from promyelocyte to myelocyte?
azure granule production has stopped but mitosis continues
227
do myelocytes have golgi?
yes, white area near nucleus
228
do myelocytes have nucleoli?
no
229
myelocyte nucleus shape
slightly indented and eccentric
230
what is the first granulocyte stage where mitosis ceases
metamyelocyte
231
Band/stab cells are a type of
metamyelocyte
232
granulocyte development time
14 days
233
Describe development of macrophage
CFU--> lymphoblast--> lymphocyte--> promonocyte--> macrophage
234
what cells are the progenitors for mature erythrocytes?
megakaryocyte/erythrocyte progenitor
235
during development of erythrocytes, what increases and decreases:
heterochromatin
cytoplasmic organelles
cytoplasmic hemoglobin
incerases
decreases
increases
236
low levels of iron can lead to
microcytic anemia
237
vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to
pernicious anemia
238
increased peripheral RBC count decreases
EPO synthesis
239
Development sequence of erythrocytes
CFU--> proerythroblast-->basophilic erythroblast--> polychromatic erythroblast--> orthrochromatiophilic erythroblast--> polychromatophilic erythrocyte--> erythrocyte
240
does basophilic erythroblast have nucleolus?
yes, usually
241
last stage of erythrocyte development to divide:
polychromatophilic erythroblast
242
mixed staining of polychromatophilic erythroblast leads to a _____ color cytoplasm in polychromatophilic erythroblast
grey
243
howell-Jolly Body-
nuclear DNA remnant appears as a basophilic spot on the otherwise eosinophilic erythrocyte.
244
howell-Jolly bodies will persist in people with
functional hyposplenia or asplenia
245
1% of circulating erythrocytes will contain residual RNA. these cells are called
polychromatophilic erythrocytes
246
iron in hemoglobin is retrieve by spleen as
ferritin
247
heme secreted from body by gall bladder as
bilirubin
248
Platelet development sequence
MEP--> megakaryocyte progenitor--> megakaryoblast--> megakaryocyte--> platelets
249
what stage of platelet development is released into the bloodstream?
mature platelets
250
megakaryocyte size
30-100 micrometers
251
megakaryocytes have a lobed, polyploid nucleus (32-64N) generated by
endomitosis
252
______ form in the cytoplasm of megakaryocytes, defining boundaries
demarcation channels
253
megakaryocyte cytoplasm protrudes into membrane channels, which go into _____ cavity and shed platelets
marrow
254
hair can stand up due to
erector pili
255
endocrine function of skin
production of Vitamin D
256
derivatives of the integumentary system project into the ______ but originate in the _____
dermis
| ectoderm
257
skin's thickness is determined by _______, not overall thickness
epidermis
258
dermis is composed of what kind of tissue
irregular fibroelastic connective tissue
259
dermis is derived from what germ layer
mesoderm
260
hypodermis-
subcutaneous CT that is looser than dermis
261
what layer allows for mobility of skin
hypodermis
262
skin has ___ layers in thick skin and ___ layers in thin skin
5
| 4
263
stratum basale-
single layer of cells resting on the basal lamina
264
stratum basale is attached to basal lamina via
hemidesmosomes
265
the only mitotically active epidermal layer
stratum basale
266
stratum basale contains what 2 types of cells
stem cells and keratinocytes
267
melanin is contained within what cells?
keratinocytes
268
_______ anchor keratinocytes to each other
desomosomes
269
epidermolysis bullosa-
defect in anchoring fibrils that anchor the epidermis to the dermis. friction leads to separation of epidermis
270
thickest layer of epidermis
stratum spinosum
271
stratum spinosum cells are called
prickle cells
272
prickle cells are large because
they make lots of keratin
273
stratum granulosum is more basophilic than other layers because of
keratohyalin granules
274
release of _____ by stratum granulosum into cytoplasm of keratinocytes results in cornification of keratinocytes
filaggrin
275
keratinization takes about _____ hours
2-6
276
stratum granulosum undergoes specialized apoptotic nuclear changes that do what?
breaks down nucleus but does not fragment cell
277
________ creates the intracellular watertight barrier that exists in the stratum corneum from membrane bound production of ________ within the kerationocytes
- stratum granulosum
| - lamellar bodies
278
this layer is only found in thick skin
stratum lucidum
279
stratum lucidum has lighter appearance due to
eleidin
280
stratum corneum keratinocytes are ___ % filled with keratin
85
281
what integumentary layer thickens in response to friction?
stratum corneum
282
what does big sexy girls love cake stand for?
stratum basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
283
what cells form the epidermal water barrier?
keratinocytes
284
melanocytes have ______ cell origin
neural crest
285
melanocytes are in constant ratio with
keratinocytes
286
do melancytes have desmosomes?
no
287
how are melanocytes attached to basal lamina?
hemidesmosome-like attachments
288
what epidermal cells have very slow replication times?
melanocytes
289
to produce melanin, melanocytes oxidize ______ to ______ using the enzyme ______
tyrosine to DOPA using tyrosinase
290
Melanocytes transform DOPA to
melanin
291
within a melanocyte, the synthesis of melanin occurs within
premelanosomes
292
premelanosomes are derived from
golgi
293
pigment donation-
the melanin moves to cytoplasmic finger-like projections where a keratinocyte eats the projection, taking along melanin and cytoplasm
294
if number of melanocytes are the same in light and dark skin, how can one be darker?
light skin melanin is degraded rapidly by lysosome activity and melanin is mostly found in the basal layer of the skin. melanin is distributed throughout the epidermis of dark skin
295
the antigen presenting cells of epidermis
langerhans cells
296
origin of langerhans cells-
lymphoid progenitor
297
langerhans cells are activated by-
contact with antigens
298
very mobile cells of epidermis
langerhans cells
299
tactile receptor cells of epidermis
merkel cells
300
where are merkel cells located?
they sit on the basal lamina
301
these epidermal cells have neurosecretory granules
merkel cells
302
although this epidermal cancer is rare, it spreads quickly and deeply
merkel's cell cancer
303
3 kinds of nerves found in the dermis
postganglionic fibers of sympathetic ganglia around hair follicles, encapsulated sensory receptors, and free nerve endings
304
dermis is a derivative of
dermomyotome/para-axial mesoderm
305
2 layers of dermis
outermost papillary layer and reticular layer
306
outermost papillary layer is composed of 5 components
loose CT, type 1 and 3 collagen, blood vessels, nerves, and elastics
307
dermal papillae-`
projections formed by the dermis that extend up into the epidermis
308
hemidesmosomes from keratinocytes in stratum basale anchor epidermis to
papillary layer of dermis
309
reticular layer of dermis contains what kind of CT
irregular dense
310
reticular layer contains lots of _____ fibers
elastic
311
ehlers-danos syndrome-
collagen deficit makes skin loose
312
cutis laxa-
impaired elastic recoil (elastic fiber deficit)
313
superficial plexus (blood)-
located between papillary and reticular dermal layers
314
superficial plexus supports (blood)-
overlying epidermis
315
deep plexus (blood) is located
between the dermis and hypodermis
316
which is larger, superficial or deep plexus?
deep plexus
317
how do the 2 skin plexuses commuicate with each other and why do they do this
- shunts
| - to facilitate heat loss and retention
318
is the hypodermis considered skin?
no
319
panniculus adiposus
subcutaneous fat cells
320
drugs are absorbed rapidly in what layer?
hypodermis
321
muscles of facial expression are found in what layer?
hypodermis
322
panniculus carnasus-
striated muscle deep to subcutaneous fascia
323
pacinian corpuscles sense
deep pressure
324
pacinian corpuscles:
myelinated or unmyelinated endings?
encapsulated or not?
unmyelinated
| encapsulated
325
what are pacinian corpuscles encapsulated by?
schwann cell lamellae (concentrically arranged)
326
meissner corpuscles detect
light touch
327
how is capsule formed in meissner corpuscles?
horizontally arranged schwann cells
328
where are meissner corpuscles found?
dermal papillae
329
free nerve endings transmit ______ stimuli such as:
- noxious
| - chemical irritants, pain, temperature
330
ruffini's corpuscles-
thin CT capsule enclosing a fluid filled space
331
arborization-
dense branching network of nerve endings after it enters capsule and loses myelin
332
arborization occurs in
ruffini's corpuscles
333
lots of _____ fibers pass through ruffini's corpuscles and distort capsule when pulled on
collagen fibers
334
ruffini's corpuscles detect changes in ______ of the skin
torque/stretching
*they stop signaling once torque has happened, only respond to changes
335
rapidly adapting receptor-
generate short action potentials at the beginning and end of a stimulus
336
example of rapidly adapting receptor-
ruffini's corpuscle
337
ruffinis corpuscles are located
at the junction of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue
338
merkel corpuscles consist of
a merkel cell and associated nerve ending
339
merkel corpuscles penetrate the _______ and associate closely with the _________
- basal lamina
| - base of the merkel cell in the epidermis
340
merkel corpuscles are used for ______ discrimination
tactile
341
keratinocytes in hair follicles produce ____ keratin
hard
342
hair distribution relies on
sex hormones
343
growth of hair from a follicle is not reliant on
sex hormones
344
sebaceous glands-
outgrowths of the external root sheath of the hair follicle
345
arrector pili muscles originate in
subcutaneous tissue
346
arrector pili are ________ innervated
sympathetically
347
mitotically active germinal layer giving rise to hair
stratum basale
348
The ______ gives rise to nail
stratum basale
349
part of nail that is formed but has not yet emerged from under the nail cuticle
nail root
350
invagination of the epidermis that is continuous with the nail matrix
eponychium
351
matrix that is underneath the distal nail
nail bed
352
technical name and part of nail that you see after it has emerged from under the cuticle
nail plate
353
_____ glands are always associated with hair follciles
sebaceous glands
354
connects gland to follicle
pilosebaceous canal
355
isthmus-
segment of follicle extending from infundibulum to level of insertion of arrector pili muscle
356
sebum-
oily substance
357
holocrine secretion-
whole cell becomes filled with product and undergoes apoptosis
358
sebaceous glands secrete sebum by _______ secretion
holocrine
359
cells that make up sebaceous gland are linked by
desmosomes
360
______ layer of sebaceous glands is mitotically active
basal
361
processes from newly formed sebaceous cell to holocrine secretion takes about __ days
8
362
sweat glands are derived from what tissue layer
epithelial
363
sweat glands contain what 3 cells
clear cells, dark cells, myoepithelial cells
364
2 main types of sweat glands
eccrine and apocrine
365
eccrine glands are innervated by
post ganglionic sympathetic fibers
366
eccrine glands are widely distributed in the skin except for 2 places
lips and external genitalia
367
eccrine glands use what NT
acetylcholine
368
sweat glands vs sebaceous glands. which one opens onto surface of skin
sweat glands
369
eccrine glands respond to temperature and stress. with temperature, glands in the _____ become active first. with stress, glands in the ______ become active first
- head/forehead
| - palms/axillary regions
370
function of clear cells in sweat glands
create watery component
371
function of dark cells in sweat glands
create proteinaceous component
372
function of myoepithelial cells in sweat glands
contractile to help expel secretions
373
apocrine sweat glands are located in
axillary and perineal regions. modified apocrine glands in eyelids and ear
374
apocrine sweat glands actually secrete via
merocrine secretion
375
apocrine glands produce what special product
pheromones
376
apocrine glands are inervated by _____ nerve endings that use the NT _______
- adrenergic
| - norepinephrine
377
apocrine glands only respond to _____ and _____ stimuli
sensory and emotional
378
what kind of epithelial cells line apocrine duct?
stratified cuboidal
379
Do the stratified cuboidal cells lining apocrine glands modify or reabsorb secretory products?
no
380
apocrine glands are associated with ________
hair follicles
381
microbial proteins are called _______, whereas non infectious molecules are called _______
- pathogens
| - antigens
382
T lymphocytes can activate cell mediated immunity in what 2 ways?
either kill the infected cell themselves or activate phagocytic cells to phagocytize and destroy a microbe
383
How can T, B, and NK cells be biochemically differentiated?
using their CD markers
384
reticular cells secrete _____ to provide a framework for lymphocytes to live in
type 3 collagen
385
dendritic cells help to do what
antigen presentation
386
langerhans cells-
dendritic cells found in the middle layer of epidermis as dark staining cells with many processes
387
epithelioreticular cells-
similar to reticular cells found in thymus
388
___ cells constitute about 70% of the circulating pool of total lymphocytes
T cells
389
CD4 Helper T cells are subdivided into
TH1 and TH2
390
4 types of cytokines
IFN's, IL's and CSF's and chemokines
391
TH1 cells interact with what cells?
cytotoxic CD8 t cells, NK cells, and macrophages
392
TH2 cells interact with
B cells
393
what cells are largely responsible for transplant rejection
CD8 cytotoxic T cells
394
CD8 cells release _____ and _____ to cause apoptosis of infected cell
perforins and granzymes
395
where do B cells mature?
bone marrow and MALT
396
what are B cell receptors
membrane bound Ig's
397
immature B cells express _____ and mature B cells express ____ as their receptors
- IgM
| - IgD
398
what differentiates the 5 classes of antibodies
different heavy chains
399
most prevalent Ig in body
IgG
400
IgG interatcts with (5)
B cells, NK cells, macrophages, neutrophils, and eosinophils
401
IgG major functions (3)
main Ig in secondary immune response, activates complement and chemotaxis
402
which Ig crosses the placenta?
IgG`
403
which Ig has the longest half life?
IgG
404
which Ig's only interact with B cells
M, A, D
405
main functions of IgM (4)
main Ig in primary response, fixes complement, activates macrophages, serves as Ag receptor of B lymphocytes
406
what Ig is present in body secretions?
IgA
407
purpose of IgD
acts as antigen receptor for mature B lymphytes
408
what Ig is responsible foranaphylactic hypersensitivity reactions?
IgE
409
NK cells release _________ to cause apoptosis
perforins and granzymes
410
NK cells recognize the ___ portion of an Ig that has tagged a cell
Fc
411
which cell needs an antibody tag to kill a cell, NK or cytotoxic C?
NK
412
diffuse lymphatic tissue is found in the ______ of several tissues
lamina propria
413
diffuse lymphatic tissue contains a large number of _____ and ______ cells
plasma and eosinophil
414
after contact with antigen, lymphocytes will
migrate to lymph node to become competent to initiate reaction against the antigen
415
progeny of an activated lymphocyte will return do the diffuse lymphoid tissue as
effector T and B cells
416
lymphatic nodules are unencapulated but have a
reticular meshwork
417
do lymphatic nodules have vessels to lymph nodes?
no, they must migrate to one
418
what kind of cells occupy the core of a secondary nodule?
B cells and follicular dendritic cells
419
the layer surrounding the core of a secondary nodule is referred to as
mantle zone
420
are tonsils encapsulated organs?
no, they are collections of lymphatic nodules
421
will a secondary nodule regress back to a primary nodule?
no they will just disappear
422
specific collections of B and T lymphocyte rich nodules in the intestinal epithelium are called
peyer's patches
423
reticular cells have ________ that wrap around reticular fibers to protect them from lymphocytes
cytoplasmic processes
424
reticular cells play a supporting role in recruiting ____, ____, ____ cells
B, T, and dendritic
425
what cells are very efficient at antigen presentation to T cells?
dendritic cells
426
which is more efficient at antigen presentation to T cells, dendritic or macrophages?
dendritic
427
follicular dendritic cells mainly interact with ____ cells
B
428
___________ bind antibody/antigen complexes to prevent their degradation
follicular dendritic cells
429
superficial cortex of a lymph node primarily contains ____ cells
B
430
deep cortex of a lymph node mainly contains ____ cells
T
431
where are HEVs located
deep cortex of lymph node
432
individuals who do not have a _______ will lack a deep cortex in lymph nodes
thymus gland
433
main lymphocyte of lymph node medulla
B cells
434
space between medullary cords of lymph node are called
medullary sinuses
435
describe the path of lymph from entry into a node to reaching an efferent vessel
subcapsular sinus--> trabecular sinus--> medullary sinus--> efferent vessel
436
medullary sinuses have discontinuous epithelium in the lymphatic ______
parenchyma
437
HEV's are lined by
cuboidal or columnar endothelial cells
438
90% of lymphocyes enter a node via
HEVs
439
HEVs have aquaporins to help
concentrate lymph
440
lymph flows in one direction because aquaporins create an
ionic gradient
441
thymus is derived from
3rd and 4th pouches
442
Common lymphoid progenitor cells travel to the thymus to become
immunocompetent T cells
443
where else can T cells be educated besides thymus?
bone marrow and MALT
444
does thymus have lymph nodules?
no
445
what lies within dense capsule of thymus?
what doesnt lie within it?!
446
type 1 epithelioreticular cells form the border between ____ and _____
thymic parenchyma and connective tissue
447
type 2 epithelioreticular cells connect to other type 2s via
desmosomes (with intermediate filaments)
448
type 5 epithelioreticular cells connect to other type 5s via
desmosomes
449
hassalls corpuscles contain 3 things
keratinhyalin granules, intermediate filaments, and lipid droplets
450
first T cell selection is positive or negative?
positive
451
T cells in cortex of thymus survive if they
bind self antigen
452
T cells in medulla of thymus survive if they
do not bind self antigen
453
production of antibodies in spleen occurs at
germinal centers
454
what does PALS stand for
periarterial lymphatic sheath
455
what cells surround the central artery
T cells
456
what cells proliferate to displace the central artery to the side of a nodule in the spleen?
B cells
457
red pulp contains large splenic sinuses lined by
long endothelial cells and discontinuous basal lamina
458
outside of splenic sinuses are what 4 things?
reticular cells, neutrophils, platelets, and macrophages
459
splenic cords aka
cords of billroth
460
splenic cords connect
splenic sinuses
461
path of blood through the spleen
splenic artery enters white pulp and sends branches--> splenic artery proper then branches into pnicillar arterioles-->become arterial capillaries surrouned by macrophages--> empty into reticular meshwork of splenic cords-->re enter circulation via splenic sinuses-->leave via trabecular veins and ultimately splenic vein
462
ceruminous glands-
special modified apocrine glands that are in skin of walls of external acoustic meatus
463
ceruminous glands secrete
ear wax
464
external surface of tympanic membrane is composed of
stratified squamous epithelium
465
internal surface of tympanic membrane is composed of
simple cubouidal epithelium
466
between the external and internal surface of tympanic membrane is a little bit of
connective tissue
467
endolymphatic space
within the semicircular and cochlear ducts
468
endolymphatic fluid has high _____ and low _____
potassium
| sodium
469
perilymphatic space is between
bony and membranous labyrinths
470
perilymphatic fluid has high ____ and low _____
sodium
| potassium
471
a true intracellular space of inner ear but has extracellular fluid
cortilymphatic space
472
bony labrynth =
cochlea + vestibule + semicircular canals
473
2 divisions of vestibule
utricle and saccule
474
utricle-
membranous cavity connected to semicircular ducts
475
saccule-
membraous cavity connected to the cochlear duct
476
modiolus-
central core of spongy bone
477
where is sensory ganglion of cochlea?
modiolus
478
the only places where transduction is occurring in inner ear
sensory patches
479
3 types of sensory patches
crista ampullaris, maculae, and spiral organ of corti
480
crista ampullaris reside at the ____ and detect ______
- ampula at the base of each semicircular canal
| - angular motion
481
cupula-
gelatinous protien-polysaccharide mass that covers the hair cells of crista ampullaris
482
where are the 2 maculae?
one in the utricle, one in the saccule
483
maculae sense what?
gravity and linear motion
484
otolithic membrane-
crystalline bodies of calcium carbonate imbedded in a sheet of gelatinous polysaccharide material that covers the maculae
485
sensory portion of cochlea-
spiral organ of corti
486
what are stereo cilia made of
actin
487
hair cells in vestibular sensory patches have one true cilia called a
kinocilium
488
the basal bodies of former kinocilium remain in _____
cochlear hair cells
489
outer rows of hair cells do what?
amplify and adjust sound
490
inner row of hair cells do what?
sound perception
491
supporting cells of cochlear hair cells
phalangeal cells
492
phalangeal cells completely envelop what cells?
inner rows of hair cells
493
apical cuticular plate-
phalangeal cells that seal endolymphatic space from cortilymphatic space
494
cortilympahtic space-
true intracellular space of organ of corti
495
movement of stereocilia away from kinocilium causes MET channels to
close
496
first passageway of vibrations when they enter vestibule through oval window is
scala vestibuli
497
round window is connected to
scala tympani
498
vibrations exit cochlea via
round window
499
helicotrema-
tip of cochlea where scala vestibuli and scala tympani are connected
500
basilar membrane of cochlear duct houses
spiral organ of corti
501
basilar membrane of cochlea separates what from what?
cochlear duct from scala tympai
502
vestibular membrane-
separates scala vestibuli from cochlear duct
503
stria vascularis-
specialized epithelium inside cochlear duct that is vascularized
504
stria vascularis has lots of ______ to control ionic concentration of endolymphatic fluid
K+ channels
505
vestibular ganglion is located in
internal acoustic meatus
506
vestibular ganglion has 2 axons. one recieves info from _______ and one goes to brainstem
vestibular part of inner ear
507
auditory ganglion is situated in the
cochlea
508
auditory ganglion has 2 axons. one that goes to _____ and one that goes to brainstem
hair cells
509
endosteum-
lining cells on inside of marrow cavity
510
in growing bone, the inner layer of the periosteum contains ______ cells
osteoprogenitor cells
511
bone matrix is initially laid down as ______
unmineralized osteoid
512
osteocytes secrete ______`
organic matrix of bone and enzymes responsible for its mineralization
513
bone mineralization begins with the secrition of
alkaline phosphatase
514
alkaline phosphatase acts as the starting point for _____ deposition
calcium and phosphate
515
organic part of bone is mostly
type 1 collagen
516
type 1 collagen in bone is synthesized as _____ then exported
tropocollagen
517
calcium attaches to ________ in bone
hydroxyapatite crystals
518
osteoprogenitor cells are derived from _____ in the marrow and from _____ cells in adults
- mesenchymal stem cells
| - adipose
519
osteoprogenitor cells are activated by _____ to become osteoblasts
CBFA1
520
shallw depression directly below osteoclast
Howship's Lacuna
521
Osteoclasts are derived from the fusion of _______ cells
mononuclear hematopoietic progenitor cells
522
ruffled border-
part of osteoclast in direct contact with bone matrix
523
clear zone-
adjacent to ruffled border, the site of resorption and degradation
524
basolateral region-
exocytosis of digested material from osteoclast
525
digested material from an osteoclast can go to 2 places:
to osteoblasts to make more bone or to the blood stream
526
osteoclasts first demineralize bone matrix by secreting _____. Then they break down the fibrous portion by secreting _______
- hydrogen
| - carbonic anhydrase
527
after resorption is complete, what happens to osteoclasts?
they undergo apoptosis
528
interstitial lamellae-
represent remnants of older haversian systems
529
what hormones increase bone resorption (3)
PTH, glucocorticoids, and thyroid hormone
530
what hormones decrease bone reapsortion (2)
calcitonin and gonadal steroids
531
what hormones increase bone formation (3)
growth hormone, Vitamin D metabolites, and gonadal steroids
532
what hormone decreases bone formation?
glucocorticoids
533
3 things parathyroid hormone does
icrease osteoclast activity, cause kidneys to retain calcium from urine, and cause increased intestinal absorption of calcium
534
ossification begins as blood vessels invade cartilage and bring
osteoprogenitor cells
535
secondary ossification centers form in the
epiphyses
536
what happens to cartilage during ossification?
it is killed off
537
steps of fracture repair:
hematoma formation at fracture site (which also sends out signal for repair)--> fibrocartilaginous callus formation (which holds ends together against pull of muscles)--> bone remodeling occurs (first as spongy bone, then compact)
538
what tissues form the callus over a fractured bone?
Dense CT and cartilage
539
what hormone keeps osteoclasts at bay
estrogen
540
primary risk factor of osteoporosis
family history
541
reduced estrogen causes an increase in ____ expression, which increases osteoclast formation
RANKL
542
hormone therapy can help with osteoporosis, but increases risk of
heart attack
543
bisphosphonates-
stop bone loss (antiresorptive)
544
how do bisphosphonates work?
they bind to hydroxyapatite crystals in bone and inhibit activity of osteoclasts and promote apoptosis
545
name a bisphosphonate drug
Fosamax
546
PTH is usually involved in bone resorption, but intermittent low dose pulses can do what?
cause new bone formation
547
example of PTH drug
forteo
548
you must give patient _____ before putting them on bisphosphonates
PTH therapy
549
if using calcitonin to treat osteoporosis, it must be before the patient is put on _______
bisphosphonates
550
denusomab targets-
RANKL
551
denusomab mimics _____
osteoprotegrin
552
why is osteoporosis worrisome to the growth of cancer?
tumors cause osteoblasts to secrete more RANKL, which stimulates more osteoclasts, which releases more growth hormones from bone matrix, which grows the tumor more
553
gout can be a side effect of treatment with
thiazide
554
rheuatoid arithirits is more common in _____, but more severe in _____
- women
| - men
555
osteoarthritis results in
wearing away articular cartilage
556
rheumatoid arthritis results in
destruction of bone
557
osteogenesis imperfecta is a _____ disorder
type 1 collagen
558
classic symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta-
blue sclera, multiple bone fractures, early hearling loss due to fracture of ossicles, and loose joints
559
gustin-
growth factor for taste buds
560
the 2 kinds of masticatory mucosa
keratinized and parakeratinized
561
locations of masticatory mucosa
gingiva and hard palate
562
where is specialized mucosa located
dorsal surface of tongue
563
the 4 types of papilla
filiform, fungiform, circumvallate, folaite
564
where is alveolar mucosa
mucogingival junction
565
what kind of mucosa covers soft palate
lining mucosa
566
what part of masticatory mucosa adheres to periosteum?
lamina propria
567
what papilla occupy edge of tongue?
foliate
568
smallest and most numerous papillae
filiform papillae
569
which papillae dont have taste buds
filiform
570
circumvallate papillae are surrounded by ______ glands
von ebner
571
the number of _____ decreases with age
foliate
572
supertasters are homozygous dominant for
tasting receptors (can taste PTC) (heterozygous can also taste PTC)
573
demilune-
artifact of fixation in which serous cell swells around mucous cell
574
which gland has the longest intercalated duct?
parotid
575
intercalated ducts are lined by-
simple cuboidal cells
576
intercalatedd ducts have _______ activity
carbonic anhydrase
577
intercalated ducts are most prominent in
parotid gland
578
striated ducts are lined with _____ cells with central nuclei
columar
579
striated ducts remove ___ from salivary secretions, making it ____tonic
- Na+
| - hypo
580
cells of terminal acini have serous or mucous secretions?
serous
581
pathway of secretions from an acinus cell:
out of acinus-->intercalated duct-->striated duct-->excretory duct
582
enamel rods are 96% ______
calcium hydroxyapatite
583
metals that can be present in enamel (4):
Sr, Mg, Pb, F
584
dentin is first produced by _____
odontoblasts
585
enamel matrix is deposited directly on the surface of previously formed dentin by ______
ameloblasts
586
newly formed dentin is called
predentin
587
dentin grows away from ____, towards _____
- DEJ
| - pulp cavity
588
dentinal tubules-
as odontoblast layer retreats as dentin is laid down, odontoblast processes are embedded in dentin in narrow channels called dentinal tubules
589
odontoblast processes expand entire length of _____
dentin
590
layers of tooth from pulp to enamel:
pulp--> odontoblasts--> predentin--> dentin--> dentinoenamel junction--> enamel
591
nerves from pulp project into _______
dentin tubules
592
cementum is __% mineral and __% collagen
- 60
| - 40
593
periodontal ligament attaches to cementum and bone via _______
sharpeys fibers
594
the eye develops from evagination of
neural ectoderm
595
optic vesicle develops into _____ and _____
choroid and vascular supply
596
outer layer of optic cup becomes
RPE of eye
597
inner layer of optic cup becomes
neural retina
598
uvea is composed of what 4 things
iris, ciliary body, choroid, and lens
599
what germ layer is lens derived from?
ectoderm
600
what is the junction between neural and non photosensitive retina?
ora serrata
601
vitreous body contains collagen and
glycosaminoglycans
602
what cells make up the corneal epithelium?
stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium
603
bowman's membrane-
basement membrane of corneal epithelium
604
which layers of cornea cannot regenerate?
bowans membrane and corneal endothelium
605
corneal stroma is composed of _______
collagen fibrils
606
perpendicular arrangement of collagen fibrils in corneal stroma allows for
transparency of cornea
607
descements membrane-
basement membrane which helps support corneal endothelium
608
cell type of corneal endothelium
simple squamous epithelium
609
corneal endothelium is important for:
modulating metabolic activity of the cornea
610
point where cornea transitions into sclera
corneoscleral limbus
611
stem cells to regenerate corneal epithelium originate in
corneoscleral limbus
612
3 layers of sclera
suprachoroid lamina, substantia propria, and episcleral layer
613
substantia propria aka
tenons capsule
614
suprachoroid lamina aka
lamina fusca
615
what produces aqeuous humor?
ciliary processes
616
where does aqueous humor drain from anterior chamber?
iridocorneal angle
617
describe aqueous humor pathway from iridocorneal angle to opthalmic veins:
iridocorneal angle--> trabecular meshwork (spaces of Fontana)--> into canal of schlemm--> episcleral veins--> opthalmic veins
618
non pigmented ciliar epithelium is a remnant of
inner collar of optic cup
619
zonula fibers are anchored in
basal lamina of non pigmented epithelial cells of ciliary processes
620
ciliary channel separates what 2 layers
non pigmented and pigmented ciliary epithelium
621
what sides of pigmented and non pigmented ciliary epithelium face each other?
their apical sides
622
glaucoma is caused by:
blockage of canal of schlemm
623
anterior pigmented myoepithelium of iris is derivative of
outer layer of optic cup.
| which makes posterior a derivative of inner layer
624
3 layers of lens
thick basal lamina, subcapsular epithelium, and lens fibers
625
germinal zone of lens-
peripheral portion with most cell proliferation
626
lens capsule-
transparent basement membrane like structure enclosing the lens substance
627
2 lens specific cytoplasmic proteins
filensin and crystallin
628
with aging, lens proteins may cause
clouding
629
as you move towards center of lens from periphery, ______ are lost and _____ accumulates
- nuclei
| - collagen fibers
630
cataracts results from-
inadequate nutrients to the lens
631
muscle of ciliary body is smooth/striated?
smooth
632
bruch's membrane-
thin membrane that separates RPE and choriocapillaries. border between uvea and retina
633
drusen-
accumulation of pigments between bruch's membrane and RPE that can cause retinal detachment
634
list the layers of the retina in order
RPE, rods and cones, outer limiting membrane, outer nuclear layer, outer plexiform layer, inner nuclear layer, inner plexiform layer, ganglion cell layer, layer of optic erve fibers, inner limiting membrane
635
the outer and inner limiting membranes of the retina consist of _____ cells
Muller
636
outer plexiform layer contains:
synaptic connections between the bipolar layers and the rods and cones
637
inner nuclear layer of retina contains:
nuclei of bipolar cells, amacrine cells, and horizontal cells
638
why do cones have higher acuity:
photoreceptor:bipolar cell ratio is 1:1
639
discs that hold photopigment are continuous with plasma membrane in rods or cones?
cones
640
pigment of cones
iodopsin
641
pigment of rods
rhodopsin
642
what cells form the scaffolding of the retnia?
Muller's Cells
643
3 kinds of support cells in inner nuclear layer of retina
horizontal cells, amacrine cells, and inter plexiform cells
644
horizontal cells-
modulate signals between bipolar and photoreceptor cells
645
amacrine cells-
modulate signals between bipolar and ganglion cells
646
inter plexiform cells-
send signals from inner plexiform layer to the outer plexiform layer
647
fovea centralis is surrounded by
macula lutea
648
fovea centralis contains RPE through what layer?
outer plexiform layer
649
Lamina Cribosa-
area of transition between retina and optic disc
650
how do axons get through sclera to optic nerve?
sclera is fenestrated at optic disc
