Block C Flashcards

(269 cards)

1
Q

renin is secreted by

A

juxtaglomerular cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how does urinary system regulate blood calcium

A

hydroxylation of vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

inner layer of kidney capsule consists of mainly

A

myofibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

between medullary rays are

A

cortical labyrinths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

kidney lobule consists of

A

single medullary ray plus adjacent 1/2 of the cortical labyrinth on each side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

a kidney lobule consists of

A

all nephrons associated with a single medullary duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

papillary duct of bellini opens into the

A

minor calyx at the renal papilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

where are thin parts of juxtamedullary nephron?

A

on ascending and descending sections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

mid-cortical nephron extends to

A

inner stripe of outer medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

where are thin parts of mid cortical nephron?

A

only the descending section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is contained in outer stripe of outer medulla?

A

only thick tubular segments and outer medullary collecting ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is contained in the inner stripe of outer medulla?

A

thick and thin tubular segments and outer medullary collecting ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

uriniferous tubule =

A

nephron + collecting ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

numerous uriniferous tubules are associated with a papillary duct, which makes up a

A

kidney lobule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the initial formed urine in bowman’s space is called

A

ultrafiltrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

_______ lie outside the glomerulus between arterioles and help maintain strucutre

A

extraglomerular mesangial cells/Lacis cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

do podocytes regenerate?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the basement membrane of the proximal convoluted tubule is continuous with the

A

basal lamina of the glomerular capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

glomerular basement membrane-

A

fused membrane with three layers representing the fusion of the basal lamina of the endothelial cells and the podocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3 layers of glomerular basement membrane-

A

lamina rara externa, lamina densa, lamina rara interna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

pedicels limit molecular passage by

A

slit size and anionic charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

filtration slit diaphragm is anchored into the pedicels via

A

nephrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

components of the glomerular basement membrane- (5)

A

type 4 collagen, laminin, fibronectin, heparin sulfate, proteoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

pedicels are anchored to the basal laminae by

A

integrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
_____ forms the core of the pedicels
actin
26
what 4 molecules join nephrin and actin to make the GFB
neph1, neph2, fat1 and fat2
27
mesangial cells secrete _________ to cause vasoconstriction
prostaglandins and endothelins
28
______ cells control GBM material turnover
mesangial cells
29
mesangial cells respond to _______
angiotensin II
30
lateral cell boundaries of proximal convoluted tubules are indistinguishable because of
lateral infoldings/plicae
31
where is the major site of reabsorption in nephrons?
proximal convoluted tubules
32
transcellular pathway-
main reabsorption pathway
33
what is reabsorbed via transcellular pathway?
Na (actively transported), big molecules, water
34
paracellular pathway is used to reabsorb what?
calcium, K, water, small moleules
35
where do peritubular capillaries come from?
efferent arteriole
36
Type ___ cells are found in short looped nephrons
1
37
type ______ cells are found in long looped nephrons
2, 3, 4
38
loop of henle reabsorbs ___% of water
15
39
distal convoluted tubules stain lighter because
they have less mitochondria
40
distal tubule contains Na sensitive ______ cells at the vascular pole
macula densa
41
distal convoluted tubules have ____ symport at their apical end and ______ pumps and mitochondria at their basal end
- Na+/Cl- | - Na+/K+ ATPase pumps
42
distal tubule reabsorbs ____ % of water
7
43
proximal pars recta of distal tubule is sensitive to
aldosterone (allows for Na reabsorption from urine)
44
distal portion of distal convoluted tubule is sensitive to
ADH, which causes water reabsorption
45
collecting tubule is made of 2 types of cells-
intercalated (dark) and principal (light) cells
46
intercalated cells purpose-
part of buffering system, have a lot of mitochondria
47
principal cells purpose-
respond to aldosterone from the adrenal cortex
48
intercalated cells secrete ___ and reabsorb ___
H+ or HCO3- | K+
49
principal cells reabsorb _____ ad secrete ____
Na+ and water | K+
50
what kind of cells line papillary collecting duct?
columnar
51
lack of ADH can result in
diabetes insipidus
52
renal papilla surface cells-
simple columnar
53
renal calyx surface cells-
transitional epithelium
54
area where papilla meets calyx
area cribosa
55
efferent arterioles of what kind of glomeruli give off vasa recta capillaries?
G3
56
decrease in blood pressure will cause ____ cells to secrete renin
JG cells
57
renin converts _______ to ______
angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
58
_________ (produced by lungs) will convert angiotensin I to angiotensin II
angiotensin converting enzyme
59
angiotensin II is a
vasoconstrictor
60
angiotensin II acts on the adrenal cortex to release
aldosterone
61
aldosterone does what?
acts on collecting tubules and distal tubules to increase Na absorption and water absorption
62
increased blood pressure is detected by
atrial cells of heart
63
atrial cells of hear release ANF which does what?
inhibits adrenal cortex release of aldosterone
64
lining of ureters
transitional epithelium
65
what muscular tunics do ureters have?
inner longitudinal, middle circular, outer longitudinal
66
muscular tunic of bladder is
3 layers of smooth muscle in spirals
67
folded plaques in bladder form
apical vesicles
68
epithelium of prostatic urethra
transitional epithelium
69
epithelium of membranous urethra
stratified or pseudostratified columnar epithelium
70
epithelium of penile urethra
pseudostratified columnar epithelium
71
epithelium of proximal female urethra
transitional epithelium
72
epithelium of terminal female urethra
stratified squamous epithelium
73
APUD-
amine precursor uptake decarboxylation. diffuse endocrine tissue
74
GEP-
gastroenterohepatic tissue. diffuse endocrine tissue
75
steroid hormones are derived from what germ layer
mesenchymal cells of mesoderm
76
protein hormones are derived from what germ layer
endoderm. Exception is that anterior pituitary hormones are from ectoderm
77
where are protein hormones secreted from?
pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, pancreas, gut, lung, and APUD cells
78
amino acid analogues are derived from what germ layer?
neuroectoderm
79
amino acid analogues are secreted from where?
thyroid, parafollicular cells, adrenal medulla
80
the hypothalamus secretes ______ that influences the pituitary to secrete _______
releasing hormones | stimulating hormones
81
parts of posterior pituitary
infundibulum, pars nevosa, and median eminence
82
what develops into anterior pituitary?
oral ectoderm (rathke's pouch)
83
hypophyseal portal system has how many capillary beds?
2
84
blood supply to pars nervosa
inferior hypophyseal artery
85
blood supply to infundibulum and median eminence
superior hypophyseal artery
86
blood supply to pars distalis-
secondary capillary plexus
87
3 cell types of pars distalis-
basophils, acidophils, chromophobes
88
3 types of basophils of pars distalis in descending order of prevalence:
corticotropes 20%, gonadotropes 10%, thryotropes 5%
89
2 types of acidophil cells of pars distalis-
somatotropes 50% and lactotropes 20%
90
chromophobes-
a basophil or acidophil that has secreted its hormones
91
somatotropes secrete
growth hormone
92
lactotropes secrete
prolactin
93
basophils of pars intermedia contain what hormones? | what do they do?
- alpha and beta endorphins | - secrete melanocyte stimulating hormone
94
what cells border colloid in pars intermedia?
folliculostellate cells
95
axons from ________ innervate posterior pituitary
supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei from hypothalamus
96
supraoptic and paraentricular nuclei produce __________ and store it in their axon terminals in pars nervosa for release
ADH and oxytocin
97
herring bodies-
axon terminals of paraverntricular and supraoptic nuclei
98
pineal gland is downward projection of
diencephalon
99
pineal gland is innervated by
postganglionic fibers from superior cervical ganglion
100
brain sand is made of
calcium carbonate deposits
101
pineal gland secretes
melatonin
102
what vessels supply adrenal capsule
capsular arterioles
103
what vessels supply adrenal cortex
fenestrated cortical sinusoidal capillaries
104
what vessels supply adrenal medulla?
medullary arterioles. Important- they bypass cortex to get oxygen rich blood to medulla
105
important concept of adrenal blood supply is
some blood goes through both cortical and medullary capillaries before leaving adrenomedullary vein, but the medulla also gets blood from medullary arterioles that bypass cortex
106
zona glomerulosa produces-
mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
107
zona fasiculata produces-
glucocorticoids (cortisol)
108
zona reticularis produces-
gonadocorticoids (androgens)
109
adrenal medulla prodiuces-
epineph. and norepineph.
110
long term hormonal response of adrenal medulla is to
stimulate hypothalamus to secrete corticotrophin releasing hormone, which induces anterior pituitary to release ACTH, which acts on adrenal cortex
111
Salty, sweet, sex correspond to what layers
3 layers of adrenal cortex
112
adrenal medulla cells function as __________ because they are innervated by _______ sympathetic fibers
- modified sympathetic ganglion | - preganglionic sympathetic fibers
113
how to convert norepinephrine to epinephrine
glucocorticoids induce phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase to convert norep. into ep.
114
Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is stimulated in what 2 situations?
macula densa detects low Na+ or JG cells detect low blood pressure
115
glucocorticoids negatively feedback to stop release of
ACTH
116
androgens negatively feedback to stop release of
CRH
117
thyroid colloid is made of
thyroglobulin
118
parafollicular cells secrete
calcitonin
119
apex of thyroid follicular cells are joined by
junctional complexes
120
big difference between parafollicular and follicular cells?
follicular border colloid and parafollicular have granules
121
____ is most physiologically active form of thyroid hormone but not as prevalent
T3
122
T4 is converted to T3 in the
liver
123
in children, hypothyroidism leads to
cretinism
124
in adults, hypothyroidism leads to
myxedema
125
hyperthyroidism can be caused by
graves disease
126
_______ facilitates thyroglobulin's transport into colloid
thyroid peroxidase
127
how does iodide enter follicular cells?
via ATP pump in basolateral membrane, where it then migrates cell to the colloid
128
TSH dual purpose
stimulate thyroid hormone production and stimulate release
129
iodothyroglobulin is taken up by follicular cells through endocytosis, then _________ fuses with vesicle and cleaves hormone into its 2 active parts
lysosome
130
Graves disease mechanism-
antibodies bind to active site of TSH receptor, leading to unregulated production of iodothyroglobulin
131
which is essential for life, calcitonin or PTH?
PTH
132
2 types of parathyroid cells
chief cells an oxyphil cells | chief are clustered and basophilc, oxyphil are larger and eosinophilic
133
chief cells produce
PTH. contained in granules
134
PTH stimulates osteoblasts to release ______, which converts monocytes into osteoclasts
Macrophage colony stimulating factor (M-CSF)
135
PTH overactivity results in
osteitis fibrosia cystica
136
PTH underactivity results in
tetany = death
137
PTH increases urinary excretion of
phosphate
138
beta cell granule appearance
irregular looking crystalloid surrounded by clear zone
139
Alpha cell granule appearance-
dense circular core surrounded by lighter staining zone
140
delta cell granule appearance-
evenly stained grey color
141
delta cell hormone-
somatostatin
142
somatostatin inhibits secretion of:
insulin, glucagon, and HCL
143
F cells synthesize:
pancreatic polypeptide
144
pancreatic polypeptide stimulates ______, inhibits ______ and decreases ________
- gastric chief cells - release of somatostatin - bile secretion, gut motility, and acinar pancreas bicarbonate secretion
145
D1 cells secrete:
vasoactive intestinal peptide
146
EC cells are antagonists of
F cells
147
Epsilon cells secrete
ghrelin
148
EC cells secrete:
secretin and motilin
149
what element is found with mature insulin granules?
zinc
150
blood supply to islets of langerhans is via
acinar portal system
151
islet cells have a paracrine effect on ________
pancreatic acinar cells. Via acinar portal system. Insulin stimulates them, glucagon inhibits them
152
insulin receptors are what type?
RTK
153
Type 1 diabetes-
autoimmune, beta cells are killed, no insulin is produced
154
type 2 diabetes-
insulin resistance. not enough receptors to bind with insulin so glucose is not adequately taken up
155
GI mucosa epithelium is usually
squamous or simple columnar
156
mucosal epithelium of stomach, small intestine, and colon is
simple columnar epithelium
157
what nerve plexus is located in submucosa of GI
meissner's plexus (of the enteric nervous system)
158
what nerve plexus is located between inner and outer layer of muscularis externa
Auerbach's plexus
159
what kind of neurons are in auerbach's plexus?
post-ganglionic parasympathetics
160
what parts of GI don't have serosa?
thoracic esophagus, duodenum, ascending and descending colon, rectum
161
esophageal glands are located in what layer?
submucosa
162
pH of esophageal gland secretions:
slightly acidic
163
esophageal cardiac glands are located in what layer?
lamina propria of mucosa
164
pH of esophageal cardiac gland secretion
neutral
165
parietal cells produce
HCl and intrinsic factor
166
chief cells secrete
pepsin
167
enteroendocrine cells secrete
digestive hormones
168
most common site of ulcers in stomach
cardiac region
169
epithelium of small intestine is chiefly
enterocytes
170
4 types of small intestine epithelial cells
absorptive, goblet, endocrine, and paneth
171
Paneth cells release
antibacterial enzymes
172
enterocyte main function
absorb nutrients and transport them to circulation
173
purpose of Brunner's glands-
secrete alkaline mucus to neutralize stomach acid
174
main site of nutrient absorption
jejunum
175
Ileum mainly absorbs
water and electrolytes
176
_______ disease leads to mega colon
Hirschsprung disease
177
Hirschsprung disease is a result of absence of
auerbach and meissner plexi
178
albumins-
regulate plasma volume and maintain colloid osmotic pressure in blood
179
lipoproteins-
transport triglycerides from liver to other organs
180
glycoproteins
proteins involved in iron transport
181
vitamin K important for
prothrombin synthesis
182
liver stores 3 important vitamins
ADK
183
fat soluble toxins are detoxified with
cytochrome p450 enzymes
184
vessels in liver travel in __________
connective tissue stromas
185
spaces between sinusoidal epithelium and hepatocytes
perisinusoidal spaces/space of disse
186
sinusoidal capillaries are lined with
simple squamous epithelium
187
central veins of lobules drain into _______, which then drain into ________
- sublobular veins | - inferior vena cava
188
bile duct composed of
simple cuboidal or columnar epithelium
189
bile canaliculi merge to form ______
bile ductules
190
chronic alcohol exposure can cause what in pancreas?
pancreatitis
191
chronic alcohol exposure can wear out hepatocytes as well as _______ cells
kupffer
192
the sphincter of the gall bladder
sphincter of Oddi
193
invaginations of mucosa extending into muscularis externa of gall bladder
Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses
194
bile contains organic components such as
lecithin, cholesterol, and bilirubin
195
when acidic chyme enters the duodenum, enteroendocrine cells release ______ and ________
- secretin | - cholecystokinin
196
cck and secretin induce the secretion of
pancreatic juices, bicarbonate ions, bile release
197
2 main types of cells in exocrine pancreas
centroacinar and acinar
198
centroacinar cells secrete _____, which neutralizes stomach acid
bicarbonate ions
199
pancreatic acinar cells secrete: (4)
pancreatic amylase, pancreatic lipase, trypsinogen, and chymotrypsinogen
200
exocrine pancreatic secretion: acinar --> intercalated duct--> _______--> _________
- intralobular duct | - interlobular duct
201
cck is released in response to
fatty acids, peptides, and amino acids
202
base of exocrine pancreas cells contain lots of
rER
203
apical portion of pancreatic exocrine cells contains
zymogen secretory granules
204
epilthelium of pancreatic ducts transitions from _____ to _____ down the course of the duct system
low cuboidal to cuboidal to low columnar
205
leptotene-
condensation of chromatin and pairing of sister chromatids
206
the order of steps in prophase 1 of meiosis in males
LZPDD. leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, and diakinesis
207
zygotene-
synaptonemal complex formation (binds chromosomes together)
208
pachytene-
crossing over
209
diplotene-
synaptonemal complex dissolves, chiasmata forms
210
diakinesis-
nuclear envelope dissolves
211
3 phases of spermatogenesis
spermatogonial, spermatocyte, and spermiogeneis phase
212
spermatogonial phase-
mitotic division of spermatogonia to provide basal cell lineage for spermatocytes
213
spermatoycte phase-
meiotic division to create haploid germ cells
214
spermiogenesis phase-
maturation of spermatids
215
spermiogenesis phase is subdivided into 4 phases
golgi, cap, acrosome, and maturation phase
216
golgi phase-
coalescence of pro-acrosomal granules into the acrosomal vesicle
217
cap phase-
acrosomal vesicle spreads over nucleus
218
acrosome phase-
things that make a sperm look like a sperm happen, minus there still being too much cytoplasm
219
maturation phase-
reduction in cytoplasm and sperm unstick from each other
220
distinguishing feature in EM of leydig cells
crystals of Reinke
221
order from basal lamina to lumen in seminiferous tubules of cell phases is
spermatogonium, primary spermatocyte, early spermatid, late spermatid
222
_______ cells establish blood-testis barrier
sertoli cells
223
sertoli cells contain inclusion bodies of
Charcot-Bottcher (possibly involved in lipid transport)
224
1st stage of human seminiferous development
late spermatids maturing
225
2nd stage of human seminiferous development
late spermatids released
226
3rd stage of human seminiferous development
starting over, spermatogonium begin maturation
227
4th stage of human seminiferous development
spermatogonium become primary spermatocytes
228
5th stage of human seminiferous development
primary spermatocyte becomes early spermatid
229
6th stage of human seminiferous development
early spermatid becomes late spermatid
230
what are halo cells?
lymphocytes in the epidydymis
231
vas deferens is surrounded by what composition of muscular layers?
inner longitudinal, middle circular, outer longitudinal
232
bulbourethral glands resemble _____ glands
mucous
233
layer between germinal epithelium and ovarian cortex
tunica albuginea
234
a primordial, primary, and secondary follicle all contain a _____ oocyte
primary
235
primordial follicles are surrounded by a single layer of
squamous follicle cells
236
FSH stimulates _____ and _____ to begin estrogen secretion
granulosa and thecal cells
237
LH stimulates the release of
progesterone
238
corpus luteum secretes
estrogen and lots of progesterone
239
If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum will secrete estrogen and progesterone until
placenta starts to produce these hormones on its own
240
when a primordial follicle becomes a primary follicle, follicular cells become ______ and are now called _____
- stratified cuboidal cells | - granulosa cells
241
______ begins to develop in a primary follicle
zona pellucida
242
Theca interna-
inner vascularized layer of primary follicle that responds to LH by secreting estrogen precursors
243
theca externa-
made of smooth muscle and collagen
244
ZP-3 function-
sperm binding receptor and inducer of acrosome reaction
245
________ = the stem holding the follicle in place
cumulus oophorous
246
layers of ovum from inside to outside-
zona pellucida, vitelline membrane, corona radiata
247
main ingredient of Plan B
levonorgestrel
248
polycystic ovaries can lead to an endocrine imbalance including:
elevated androgens and decreased estrogens and progesterones. also, problems with diabetes
249
most common cause of female infertility
polycystic ovary syndrome
250
hirstism-
increased hair growth on manly places
251
most common type of follicle cyst
graafian follicle cyst
252
possibly very painful type of ovarian cyst-
hemorrhagic cyst/blood cyst
253
3 layers of oviduct
tunica mucosa, tunica muscularis, and tunica serosa
254
what do peg cells do?
secrete nutrient rich fluid to nourish sperm, eggs, and zygotes
255
what kind of musculature does oviduct have?
inner circular and outer longitudinal layer
256
estrogen increases ______ in oviduct, progesterone increases _______
- ciliogenesis | - peg cell formation
257
2 uterine phases
estrogenic/proliferative and progestational/secretory
258
progestational phase of uterus corresponds to _______ phase of ovary
luteal
259
uterine fibroids aka
leiomyomas
260
uterine fibroids grow in response to
estrogen
261
GnRH agonists are used to treat
fibroids
262
which HPV types cause most nether region cancers
16 and 18
263
which HPV types cause most genital warts?
6 and 11
264
mammary glands are modified
apocrine sweat glands
265
path of milk from boobs
acini-->duct-->ampulla-->nipple
266
non lactating mammary glands have lots of _____ tissue around ducts
adipose and fibrous connective
267
can lipids cross the placenta?
yes
268
what produces hCG for first 2 months of pregnancy
syntrophoblast
269
synctiotrophoblast is lined by
cytotrophoblast