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Physiology > Blood > Flashcards

Blood Flashcards

1
Q

What are the physiological functions of blood?

A

Transportation medium:

  • Blood gases
  • Nutrients
  • Metabolites
  • Information
  • Heat
  • Defense mechanism
  • Haemostasis
  • Homeostasis
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2
Q

Give the total buffer capacity for a bicarbonate buffer

A

53%

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3
Q

Give the total buffer capacity for non bicarbonate buffer

A

47%

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4
Q

Haemostasis

A

Coagulation

Reactions after vessel injuries

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5
Q

Effect of blood on homeostasis

A

Promotes:

  • Isovolemia
  • Isotonia
  • Isoionia
  • Isohydria
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6
Q

What proportion of blood is water?

A

90%

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7
Q

Composition of blood

A
  • Plasma
  • RBCs
  • WBCs
  • Thrombocytes
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8
Q

Blood + Anticoagulation and Centrifugation →

A

Plasma (with fibrinogen) + Cellular elements

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9
Q

Blood + long resting period

A

Serum (no fibrinogen)

Blood clot (fibrin-web)

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10
Q

Hematocrit

A
  • Diagnostic parameter
  • Shows the proportion of corpuscular elements to the whole volume
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11
Q

Average hematocrit value

A

40% or 0.4

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12
Q

Average hematocrit value for dogs

A

0.46

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13
Q

Average hematocrit value for hens

A

0.32

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14
Q

What does the hematocrit show us?

A

The veloicty of sedimentation corpuscular elements

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15
Q

Blood cell sedimentation rate for horses

A

60-70 mm/hour

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16
Q

Blood cell sedimentation rate for dogs

A

5-10 mm/hour

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17
Q

Blood cell sedimentation rate for swine

A

1-14 mm/hour

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18
Q

Blood cell sedimentation rate for hens

A

1-4 mm/hour

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19
Q

Blood cell sedimentation rate for ruminants

A

0-2 mm/hour

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20
Q

Blood cell sedimentation rate for human

A

3-10 mm/hour

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21
Q

pH of blood

A

7.35 - 7.45

pHvenous <pHarterial

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22
Q

Give the relative viscosity of:

  • Total blood
  • Plasma
  • Water
A
  • Total blood: 4 (max 5.6)
  • Plasma: 2
  • Water: 1
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23
Q

Give the density of plasma

A

1020 g/l

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24
Q

Give the density of total blood

A

1052 g/l

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25
Q

Give the density of blood cells

A

1090 g/l

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26
Q

Give the freezing point of blood

A

-0.56°C

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27
Q

Give the total osmotic pressure of blood

A

700 kPa

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28
Q

Give the colloidosmotic/oncotic pressure of blood

A

2.7-4kPa

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29
Q

Give the osmolarity of blood

A

300 mmol/l

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30
Q

Give the blood volume of the body

A

80 ml/bwt

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31
Q

Give the plasma volume of the body

A

45 ml/bwkg

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32
Q

Give the blood cell volume of the body

A

35 ml/bwkg

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33
Q

Formula to calculate blood volume

A

V = Vrbc / 0.9 x Ht

V = Vp / (1-0.9 x Ht)

  • Vp = Plasma volume*
  • Vrbc = blood cell volume*
  • Ht = Hematocrit value*
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34
Q

1, 4 and 7 are examples of…

A

Normocythaemia

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35
Q

2, 5 and 8 are examples of

A

Polycythaemia

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36
Q

3, 6 and 9 are examples of…

A

Olygocythaemia

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37
Q

Normocythaemic normovolaemia

A

Healthy blood volume

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38
Q

Polycythaemic normovolaemia

A
  • Haemoconcentration
  • Viscosity increases
  • Increased load on heart
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39
Q

Olygocythaemic normovolaemia

A
  • Haemodilution
  • Blood gets diluted with concurrent normal volume
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40
Q

Normocythaemic hypovolaemia (Oligaemia)

A
  • Blood cells and plasma loss together
  • Blood loss
  • Plasma replaced quickly
  • Cells return slowly
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41
Q

Polycythaemic hypovolaemia

A
  • Anhydraemia: Lack of water/thirst
  • Haemoconcentration
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42
Q

Normocythaemic hypervolaemia

A
  • Plethora (A large amount)
  • Excess transfusion
  • Permanent, exhausting physical work
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43
Q

Olygocythaemic hypervolaemia

A
  • Hydraemia
  • Intake of excess water
  • Infusion (followed by haemodilution)
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44
Q

Factors affecting blood volume

A
  • Body fat
  • Body position
  • Muscle work
  • Climate
  • Nutrition
  • Age
  • Pregnancy
  • Changes in water supply
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45
Q

Give the size of blood cells in:

  • Mammals
  • Birds
A
  • Mammals: 6x2 µm
  • Birds: 12x7 µm
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46
Q

Mean number of RBCs in the body

A

5 x 1012/L

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47
Q

Mitochondria are not present in RBCs, true or false

A

True

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48
Q

Average lifetime of RBCs

A

Average: 120 days

Cattle, swine: 60 days

Birds: 30 days

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49
Q

Haemoglobin concentration of blood

A
  • 120-180 g/l
  • 1.5-2.5 mmol/l
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50
Q

Haemoglobin content in 1g of RBCs

A

0.35g

35% haemoglobin concentraion

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51
Q

MCHC

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration

Approx 5mmol/l

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52
Q

Calculate MCHC

A

Hb/Ht

  • Hb = Hemaglobin*
  • Ht = Hematocrit*
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53
Q

MCH

Value

A

Mean corpsucular hemoglobin

0.45 fmol/pc

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54
Q

Calculate MCH

A

Hb/RBC

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55
Q

MCV

A

Mean corpuscular volume

80-100 femtoliter/pc

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56
Q

Calculate MCV

A

Ht/RBC

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57
Q

Hemolysis

A

Leakage or disruption of the blood cells

Can be:

  • Hypoosmosis
  • Hyperosmosis
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58
Q

Hypoosmosis

A
  1. Blood cells placed in hypotonic solution
  2. Water flows into cells
  3. Cells swell and disrupt
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59
Q

Hyperosmosis

A
  1. Blood dropped into hypertonic solution
  2. Water leaves the cells
  3. Cells shrink
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60
Q

Osmotic resistance

A

RBCs adapt and are therefore resistant to the significant changes of osmotic circumstances

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61
Q

Give the minimal osmotic resistance of RBCs

A

70-120 mmol/l NaCl

haemolysis just starts

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62
Q

Give the maximum osmotic resistance of RBCs

A

50 - 90 mmol/l NaCl

all the cells haemolyse

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63
Q

Osmotic resistance of the RBC is attributed to…

A
  • The characteristics of the RBC membrane
    • Spectrin protein molecules
      • Fixed in place by ankyrine
    • Give a flexible feature ‘molecular springs’
    • On the internal side of the membrane
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64
Q

Which physical effects can cause membrane haemolysis?

A
  • Freezing
  • Dissolving
  • Shaking
  • Shocking
  • Osmosis
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65
Q

Which chemical effects can cause membrane haemolysis?

A
  • Acids
  • Liposolvents (E.g Ether, Chloroform)
  • Surface tension reducers (Bile salts)
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66
Q

Which toxins can cause membrane haemolysis?

A
  • Bacterial toxins
  • Snake toxins
  • Plant toxins
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67
Q

Haemoglobin

A
  • Pigment (protein)
  • Colours the RBCs
  • Transports blood gases
  • Forms the blood’s buffer capacity
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68
Q

Give the molecular weight of Haemoglobin

A

65,000 Da

  • 4 sub units*
  • 120-180 g/lblood = 1.5 - 2.5 mmol/l*
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69
Q

Haem/Hem

A
  • Ferro-protoporphyrine
  • Porphyrine base with 4 coordination sites
  • Only the bivalent iron atom can bind to oxygen reversibly
  • (Oxygenation)
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70
Q

Methaemoglobin

A
  • Oxygenated derivative
  • Binds to oxygen irreversibly
  • Returned to the haemoglobin in the:
  • Methaemoglobin-reductase-NADPH-systen
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71
Q

Fe2+ prefixes

A
  • HEM
  • Ferro-
  • Hemo-
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72
Q

Fe3+ prefixes

A
  • Hemin
  • Ferri-
  • Hemi-
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73
Q

Globin

A
  • Determines characteristics of oxygen binding
  • Allows allosteric stimulation
  • Binds to oxygen stronger after accepting the former one
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74
Q

Describe the evolution of blood cell genetics

A
  • Originally one genetic chain (until 500 million years ago)
  • Became alpha and beta chains
  • 120 million years ago, beta chain spit into gamma1 and gamma2
  • Beta1, beta2 and the epsylong chains also appeared through mutation
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75
Q

Sickle-cell anaemia

A
  • Single amino acid change
  • The 6th position of the beta chain should contain alanine
  • It contains glutamine instead
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76
Q

Give the known Asian vector of malaria

A

Iwi bird

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77
Q

The age effect on RBCs

A
  • Hb-F has a smaller affinity to 2,3-DPG
  • (From cell metabolism, allows oxygen transport from mother to fetus)
  • When compared with Hb-A due to the amino acid sequence
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78
Q

Adult haemoglobin

A

Hb-A = 2 alpha chains + 2 beta chains

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79
Q

Foetal haemoglobin

A

Hb-F = 2 alpha chains + 2 gamma chains

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80
Q

Oxygen in RBCs

A
  • Bind to Fe2+ (reversible)
  • 1 haem binds to 1 O2
  • 1.34mlO2/ Hb
  • 160mlO2/l blood
  • 16% Volume
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81
Q

Carbon dioxide in RBCs

A
  • Carbamino-hemoglobin
    • Responsible for 20% CO2​ transport
    • Hb-NH2 + CO2 → Hb-N-COOH
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82
Q

Peak absorbance wavelengths for:

  • HbO2
  • Hb
A
  • HbO2: 540nm, 580nm
  • Hb: 555nm
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83
Q

Haemoglobin composition: Fe2+

A

Deoxi-Hb

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84
Q

Haemoglobin composition: Fe2+ O2

A

Oxygenated-Hb

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85
Q

Haemoglobin composition: Fe2+ CO

A

CO-Hb

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86
Q

Haemoglobin composition: Fe3+

A

Hemiglobin (Methaemoglobin)

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87
Q

Haemoglobin composition: Fe3+ Cl

A

Hemin chloride

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88
Q

Compare the affinity of carbon monoxide to oxygen

A

Carbon monoxide has 200 times greater affinity than oxygen

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89
Q

Haemoglobin can be irreversibly oxidised by…

A

OH and Cl radicals

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90
Q

Haemoglobin can reversibly bind to…

A

Oxygen

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91
Q

Methaemoglobin/Hemiglobin can be reversed by which reducing agent?

A

Intravenous methylene blue injection

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92
Q

Give the two most important buffer bases in the blood

A
  • Hb-
  • HCO3-
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93
Q

Which acid-base pair ensures buffer action in the blood?

A

HHb/Hb-

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94
Q

What percentage of buffer capacity is provided by haemoglobin?

A

35%

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95
Q

Which is a better proton acceptor?

  • Deoxygenated Hb
  • Oxygenated Hb
A

Deoxygenated

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96
Q

Give the stages of the degradation of haemoglobin

(Not via phagocytosis)

A
  1. RBCs → sphaerocytes
  2. Sphaerocytes → Spleen + liver
  3. Spleen + Liver release Haemoglobin
  • Haptoglobin binds haemoglobin in blood
  • Haemopexin binds haemoglobin in plasma
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97
Q

Describe how phagocytes break down haemoglobin

A

Haemoglobin broken down into:

  • Globin → Aminoacid (recirculated)
  • HEM → Fe (recirculated)**​
  • HEM → protoporfirin-IX → Bilirubin (then enters blood)
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98
Q

Name given to bilirubin when bound to Albumin

A

Bilirubin-I

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99
Q

What percentage of bilirubin-I is conjugated with Glucuronic acid?

A

80%

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100
Q

What percentage of bilirubin-I is conjugated with sulphate

A

20%

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101
Q

When bilirubin conjugates, it becomes…

A

Bilirubin-II

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102
Q

Where is Bilirubin-II deconjugated and how?

A
  • In the gut
  • Deconjugated by bacteria
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103
Q

Function of gut bacteria:

  • Bilirubin-II →
  • Bilirubin-I →
A
  • Stercobilnogen
  • Urobilinogen (UBG)
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104
Q

Give the fate of Stercobilnogen

A
  • Oxidised
  • Stercobilin formed
  • This passes into the faeces (stercobilin makes it brown)
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105
Q

Give the fate of urobilinogen

A
  • Absorbed by the gut
    • Portal circulation → Liver (14%)
    • (Converted back to bilirubin)
  • Absorbed by vv. hemorriodhales (1%)
    • Systemic circulation → Renal excretion (Urine)
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106
Q
A

Bilirubin-II

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107
Q
A

Bile

Containing bilirubin-II

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108
Q
A

Bilirubin-I

after degredation by bacteria

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109
Q
A

Stercobilinogen

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110
Q
A

Stercobilin

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111
Q
A

Urobilinogen (UBG)

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112
Q
A

Urobilinogen (UBG)

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113
Q

In embryonic stages, the red marrow recieves its blood-forming function by…

A

The embryionic liver

(blood-forming function also given to the spleen in mice)

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114
Q

Blood cell types are derived from

A

Progenitor cells (after a maturation stage)

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115
Q

During embryonic stages, which primordial cell type doesn’t roam to the bone marrow?

A

T-progenitor cell

(settles in the thymus, produces T-lymphocyte)

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116
Q

Give the stages of blood cell development

A
  1. Omnipotent primordial cell
  2. Committed progenitor cell
  3. Burst forming cell, erythroid
  4. CFC-E colony
  5. Normoblasts
  6. Reticulocyte
  7. Erythrocyte
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117
Q

What can a reticulocyte number >0.5% be a clinical indicator of?

A

Forced blood synthesis

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118
Q

Describe nucleus expulsion during blood cell development

A
  1. MHC structures roam to the pole
  2. Nucleus and MHC structures are exocytosed
  3. Blood type-specific antigens remain on the RBC surface
  4. Reticulocyte forms inside (not fully mature RBC yet)

Hb-mRNA is left in the cell, haemoglobin synthesis continues in endoplasmic reticulum

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119
Q

Give the factors affecting RBC synthesis

A
  • Oxygen supply
    • Hypoxia
    • High altitude
    • Blood loss
  • Kidney status
    • REF (renal erythropoietic factor)
  • Age
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120
Q

Describe the spleen colony test

A
  1. X-rays halt hematopoesis in animal 1
  2. Bone marrow cells implanted from animal 2 to animal 1
  3. 2 weeks lapse, implanted RBCs appear in animal 1
  4. Spleen becomes enlarged, signal peptides increase in blood
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121
Q

Erythropoetin

  • Size (in mouse)
  • Producing cell
  • Target Cell
A
  • Size: 51,000 Da
  • Producing cell: Kidney cells
  • Target cell: CFU

(RBCs)

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122
Q

Interleukin-3 (IL-3)

  • Size (in mouse)
  • Producing cell
  • Target Cell
A
  • Size: 25,000 Da
  • Producing cell: T-lymphocyte, epidermis
  • Target Cell: CFU, progenitor and mature cells
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123
Q

Granulocyte/Macrophage SF (GM-SF)

  • Size (in mouse)
  • Producing cell
  • Target Cell
A
  • Size: 23,000
  • Producing cell: T-lymphocyte, endothel, fibroblast
  • Target cell: GM progenitor cells
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124
Q

Granulocyte CSF (G-CSF)

  • Size (in mouse)
  • Producing cell
  • Target Cell
A
  • Size: 25,000 Da
  • Producing cell: Macrophage, fibroblast
  • Target cell: GM progenitor and neutrophil
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125
Q

Macrophage CSF (M-CSF)

  • Size (in mouse)
  • Producing cell
  • Target Cell
A
  • Size: 70,000 Da
  • Producing cell: Fibroblast, macrophage, endothel
  • Target cell: GM progenitor and Macrophage
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126
Q

Steel factor

  • Size (in mouse)
  • Producing cell
  • Target Cell
A
  • Size: 40-50,000 Da
  • Producing cell: Stroma of many organs
  • Target cell: CFU

(RBCs)

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127
Q

White blood cells

A
  • Develop in bone marrow, except lymphocytes
  • Mammals: 5-15 x 109/Lblood
  • Birds: 20-30 x 109/Lblood
  • Dependent on: Age, sex, time of day
128
Q

The pathological increase in the number of the white blood cells

A

Leukocytosis

129
Q

Causes of leukocytosis

A
  • Bacterial infection
  • Viral infection
  • Parasitic infection
  • Inflammatory processes
130
Q

Decrease of white blood cells

A

Leukopenia

131
Q

Leukopenia can be caused by

A
  • Radiation
  • Mushroom toxins
  • Medications
132
Q

Neutrophyl, eosinophyl and basophyl are kinds of…

A

Granulocyte

133
Q

Lymphocyte and monocyte are types of…

A

Agranulocyte

134
Q

Neutrophil is …% neutrophylic

A

60%

135
Q

Lymphocyte is …% lymphocytic

A

60%

136
Q

Neutrophylic WBCs are found in…

A

Horses, carnivores, humans

137
Q

Lymphocytic WBCs are found in…

A

Ruminants, swine, birds

138
Q

Neutrophil granulocyte

A
  • 10-14µm
  • Segmented nucleus
  • Lysosomes present
  • Previous meeting of pathogens not necessary for elimination
139
Q

Lifetime of neutrophil granulocytes

A

Circulation: 6-7 hours

Tissue: 2-3 days

140
Q

Where are Neutrophil granulocytes produced?

What is the mobilisation of these called?

A
  • Bone marrow
  • Spleen

Mobilised during Leukocytosis

141
Q

What are the % compositions of granules in the Neutrophil granulocyte

A
  • 80% neutrophil
  • 20% azurophil
142
Q

List the enzymes of granules in a Neutrophil granulocyte

A
  • Lysosyme
  • Nuclease
  • Protease
  • Myeloperoxidase
  • Superoxid dismutase
  • Acidic/alkalic phosphatase
143
Q

Describe the adhesion of white blood cells

A

WBCs adhere to the wall of capillaries

144
Q

Describe the final developmental stages of the neutrophil granulocytes

A
  1. Young cells - Stick-shaped nucleus
  2. Becomes more segmented
  3. Stick shape increases with infection rate
  4. Granulocytopenia in decreased development
145
Q

What are the developmental stages of neutrophil granulocytes

A
  • Young forms
    • Stick shape
    • Bean form
  • Matured neutrophil (3-5 segmented nucleus)
  • Over matured neutrophil (5-10 segmented nucleus)
146
Q

What is the ‘shift to the left’ in blood count?

A
  • Forced hematopoiesis
  • Presence of fresh (acute) infection
147
Q

What is the ‘shift to the right’ in blood count?

A
  • Presence of aged neutrophil granulocytes
  • Incomplete hematopoiesis
148
Q

Neutrophil granulocyte migration is based on

A

Actin bundles:

  • Contractile
  • Gel-forming
  • Tightly united
149
Q

Describe Diapedesis of Neutrophil granulocyte

A
  1. Granulocyte phyllopodium adheres between capillary enothelial cells
  2. Granulocyte moves between the endothelial cells
  3. Cell moves into the interstitial space
150
Q

A complex consisting of three small and three bigger peptides

A

Clathrin

151
Q
A

Ligand

152
Q
A

Lysosome

153
Q
A

Surface receptor

154
Q
A

Nucleus

155
Q
A

Actin cortex

156
Q
A

LDL receptors ‘recruited’ by chlaritin

157
Q
A

Chlaritin complex

158
Q
A

Individual LDL receptor

159
Q

Describe the diagram

A
  • Actin directed border forming
  • Ligand binding
  • Actin dependent forming of pseudopodia
160
Q

Describe the figure

A
  • Internalisation
    • Assisted with actin and fusogenic proteins
  • Actin-binding
    • Synthesis of fusogenic proteins
161
Q

Describe the figure

A

Phagosome synthesis

162
Q

Describe the figure

A

Phago-lysosome synthesis

163
Q

Describe the figure

A
  1. Residual body synthesis
  2. Oxidative ‘burst’
  3. Digestion
164
Q

Give the stages of the respiratory burst

A
  1. First enzymatic step: NADPH-oxidase
  2. Second enzymatic step: SOD
  3. Third enzymatic step: MPO
165
Q

Give the reaction of the first enzymatic step of phagocytosis

A
  • NADPH-oxidase
    • NADPH + 2O2 = 2O• + NADP + H+
    • Active oxygen radical
166
Q

Give the reaction of the second enzymatic step of phagocytosis

A
  • SOD
    • Superoxide dismutase
    • 2O• + H2O → 2H2O2
167
Q

Give the reaction of the third enzymatic step of phagocytosis

A
  • MPO
    • Myeloperoxidase
    • H2O2 + Cl- → ClO- + H2O
    • The most aggressive
168
Q

Phagocyting ability increases …. times higher in the presence of a foreign body

A

100 times

169
Q

Opsonisation

A

Where natural substances in the plasma e.g C3b factor can bind foreign antigen bodies to the receptor of a granulocyte.

170
Q

Immune adherence

A

Similar to opsonisation only with the presence of an antibody/immunoglobulin

171
Q

Basophil granulocyte

A
  • Rarest WBC type
  • Mast cells found in tissues
  • Limited movement
  • Loosen tissues in the presence of antigens
    • Allows other defence elements to move to the place of infection
    • Act as a stimulent of antigen elimination
172
Q

Name the enzymes present in Basophil granulocytes

A
  • Hyaluronidase (specific)
  • Protease
  • Myeloperoxidase
173
Q

Degranulation

A
  • Stimulated in different ways
  • The release of granules (and therefore enzymes)
  • The enzymes loosen the environment
  • Extreme degranulation: pathological damage in the animal’s own tissues - allergy
174
Q

Give the specific degranulation pathway

A
  1. Antibodies are forming, slower reaction
  2. Antigen + antibody/complement stimulates degranulation
  3. Normal response: Tissues loosen, immune cells access tissues
175
Q

Give the non-specific degranulation pathway

A
  1. Complememnts are always present, quick reaction
  2. Antigen + antibody/complement stimulates degranulation
  3. Pathological response: Anaphylaxis
176
Q

What is a cytophilic antibody?

A
  • An antibody that attaches to the basophil granulocyte
  • The granulocyte has already prepared binding for antigens due to the antibody acting as a compliment
177
Q

Which contents of the basophil granulocyte granules cause the tissues to loosen

A
  • Histamine
  • Heparin
  • Hyaluronidase
178
Q

What causes anaphylaxis?

A
  • Degranulation
    • Heparin release
    • Accelerates antibodies entering the interstitium
    • Accelerates Slow-reacting factor of anaphylaxis
      • Causes long lasting inflammation
179
Q

What does heparin help to prevent?

A

Coagulation

180
Q

Eosinophil granulocyte

A
  • Contains ‘granules’ in the form of lysosomes
  • Lifetime: 3-5 days
  • Has an antiallergic effect
  • Proportion increases during allergic processes
  • Pinocytosis only
  • Cellular elimination in parasites
181
Q

Give the enzymes contained in the Eosinophil granulocyte

A
  • Histaminase
  • Aril-sulphatase
  • Myeloperoxidase
  • Acidic and alcalic phosphatase
  • Nuclease
182
Q

During Chemotaxis, WBCs migrate towards which specific signals?

A
  • Products of tissue breakdown
  • Histamine
  • Complement factors
  • Chemotaxines produced by WBCs
183
Q

Describe the antiallergic effect of Eosinophil granulocytes

A
  1. Basophil/Mast cell releases histamine and SRS-A
  2. Histamine and SRS-A enter eosinophil via pinocytosis
  3. Histaminase breaks down histamine
  4. Aryl-sulphatase breaks down SRS-A
184
Q

SRS-A

A

Slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis

185
Q

Mononuclear phagocytes

A
  • Contain Azurophyl granules (lysosomes)
  • Produces intracellular and extracellular enzymes
  • MPS: Mononuclear phagocyte system
  • MS: Macrophage system - antigen presentation, secretion
    • RES: Reticulo endothelial system
    • RHS: Reticulo hisiocytic system
  • Lifetime: 2-3 months in tissue
186
Q

Polynuclear giant cells

A

Polynuclear phagocytes with dividing capacity

Increased phagocytosis

187
Q

Describe the migration and chemotaxis of mononuclear phagocytes

A

Similar to neutrophil granulocytes

Circulating fraction is really small

Extravasal supply: tissue macrophages

188
Q

Give the intracellular enzymes of mononuclear phagocytes

A
  • Proteases
  • Myeloperoxidae
  • Superoxid dismustase
  • Acidic and alcalic phosphatase
189
Q

Give the extracellular enzymes of mononuclear phagocytes

A
  • Collagenase
  • Elastase
  • Angiotensine convertase
190
Q

Give the macrophage cell of connective tissue

A

Histiocyte

191
Q

Give the macrophage cell of liver

A

Kuppfer cells

192
Q

Give the macrophage cell of the lung

A

Alveolar macrophage

193
Q

Give the macrophage cell of lymphnodes

A

Fix and migrating macrophage

194
Q

Give the macrophage cell of the spleen

A

Fix and migrating macrophage

195
Q

Give the macrophage cell of bone marrow

A

Fix macrophage

196
Q

Give the macrophage cell of pleura

A

Pleural macrophages

197
Q

Give the macrophage cell of the peritoneum

A

Peritoneal macrophages

198
Q

Give the macrophage cell of bone tissue

A

Osteoclasts

199
Q

Give the macrophage cell of the nervous system

A

Microglia

200
Q

Phagocytes not only demolish foreign bodies but…

A

The organism’s own perished and aged cells

201
Q

Describe antigen presentation in a specialised APC (antigen presenting cell)

A
  1. Macrophage eliminates pathogen
  2. Digested pieces of antigen from the pathogen are kept
  3. Antigen expressed on macrophage surface protein
    1. MHC-complex II (Main histocompatibility complex)
  4. T-cell receptor recognises the antigen fragment
  5. Immune system initiated
  6. Antibody production
202
Q

Describe antigen presentation in an infected somatic cell

A
  1. Foreign material presented on cell surface
  2. Antigen presented on the MHC-I protein
  3. Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte recognises the MHC-I complex
  4. The infected cell is destroyed
203
Q

Secretion of MPS (mononuclear phagocyte system) cells

A

Tissues are loosened by:

  • Collagenase
  • Elastase
  • Angiotensine convertase

Immune response is stimulated by:

  • Interleukin-1
  • Interferon
  • Prostaglandins
204
Q

What is the effect of interleukin-1 on B-lymphocytes

A

Antibody synthesis

205
Q

What is the effect of interleukin-1 on T-lymphocytes

A

Interleukin-2 synthesis

206
Q

What is the effect of interleukin-1 on the hypothalamus

A

Production of fever

207
Q

What is the effect of interleukin-1 on bone marrow

A

Neutrophil granulocyte production

208
Q

What is the effect of interleukin-1 on fibroblasts

A

Collagen synthesis

209
Q

What is the effect of interleukin-1 on the liver

A

Synthesis of acute phase proteins

210
Q

Lymphocytes

A
  • Agranulocyte
  • Small, medium and big
  • Small/middle sized: Found in circulating blood
  • Large sized: Antigen specific lymphocyte subpopulations
  • B-lymphocytes (small)
  • T-lymphocytes (medium)
  • Lifetime: Hour to years
  • Antibody production
  • No phagocytosis
211
Q

T-lymphocytes

A
  • Prouduced in thymus
  • Responsible for cellular immunity
212
Q

B-lymphocytes

  • Site of production
  • Function
A
  • Bursa fabricii (bone marrow, embryonic liver and spleen)
  • Humoral immunity
213
Q

Where are lymphocytes found?

A

In all tissues except for:

  • cornea
  • heart valve
214
Q

The decrease in lymphocytes in the blood

A

Lymphopaenia

215
Q

The increase in lymphocytes in the blood

A

Lymphocytosis

216
Q

Function of B-lymphocytes

A

Produces immunoglobulins

217
Q

Function of T-lymphocytes

A
  • Cellular immune response
  • Stimulation of humoral immune response
218
Q

Function of ‘0’ cells (NK cells)

A

Kills cells infected by tumour or virus

219
Q

WBC development

A
  • Pre-colony-forming-cells (multipotent) can reproduce in any direction (RBC/WBC producing)
  • Direction committed and proliferable progenitor cells develop
  • Maturation into final blood cell type
220
Q

During embryonic life, which cell type doesn’t migrate to the bone marrow?

A

T-progenitor cell

221
Q

Thrombocytes (Platelets)

A
  • In birds, platelets can act as phagocytes
  • 2-8x1011 pcs/L
  • Lifetime: 5-10 days
  • No nucleus
  • Smallest blood cell
  • Origin: Polycaryocyte giant cells (in red bone marrow)
222
Q

Which types of granules are found in thrombocytes?

A
  • Alpha-granules
    • Store coagulation factors
  • Delta-granules
    • Store serotonin from the plasma
223
Q

What prompts the release of granules from platelets?

A

Thrombocyte activating factors

224
Q

Describe the morphology of the platelet

A
  • Plasma membrane:
    • wide glycocalix
    • Cell adhesion molecules (CAM)
  • Internal tubular system
    • Peroxidase
    • Prostaglandins
  • Lysosomes: Acidic hydrolases
  • Peroxisomes: Catalase
225
Q

Function of the platelet actin cortex

A
  • Shrinks clots
  • Helps alpha granules vacate
226
Q

Describe the function of the microtubular cortex

A
  • During the activation of the system
  • Cytoplasmic processes form on the platelet surface
    • Increases retractions
    • Increases efflux of coagulation factors
227
Q

Describe blood groups

A
  • Antigens that appear on the surface of blood cells
  • Discovered by Karl Landsteiner
  • 15 different types in humans
  • Antibodies produced postnatally against non-posessed RBC antigens
    • Non-posessed RBCs are agglutinated
228
Q

How are blood groups used in veterinary medicine

A
  • Parentage testing
  • Prediction of certain production trait selection
  • Prevention of certain illnesses
229
Q

Why are blood transfusions in animals lest risky than in humans?

A
  • There are only a few antibodies agains RBC antigens
  • The antigens can be found in RBCs and plasma too
    • _​_During transfusion: antibody is neutralised in plasma already
      • RBC-dissolving capacity therefore diminishes
230
Q

Hemagglutinogens

A
  • RBC surface
  • Production of blood-agglutinating-antibody
    • Agglutinate RBCs with corresponding antigens
  • Blood type systems:
    • System X (2 antigens)
    • System Z (3 antigens)
231
Q

Antigens found on the surface of RBCs are varieties of…

A
  • Glycoproteids
  • Glycolipids
232
Q

Artificial hemagglutinins

A
  • Antibodies form after immunisation
  • Immunisation can be natural or artificial
233
Q

Heterohemagglutinins

A

Agglutinate RBCs of other species

234
Q

Isohemagglutinins

A

Agglutinate RBCs of the same species

235
Q

Prevelance of Hemagglutinins

A
  • Early immunisation (postnatally)
  • Not present in newborns
  • Concentration of antibodies is constantly growing
  • Antibodies may disappear in the elderly
236
Q

Give the two ways the RBC surface and plasma antibodies react

A
  • Agglutination (More common in humans)
  • Hemolysis (More common in animals)

Forms of incompatibility

237
Q

Biochemical polymorphism

A
  • Structurally different to blood group antigens
  • Complete the same function
  • E.g Cattle transferrin polymorphism
238
Q

Describe cattle transferrin polymorphism

A
  • 6 serums seperated on agarose gel
    • belong to cows of different genotypes
  • Transferrin shows a different pattern in the individuals (after seperation)
  • They’re allotted into types A-E
  • Genetic differences observed between proteins
    • These differences are linked to production traits
    • Used in animal husbandry
239
Q

H-antigen forms the basic structure of which blood system?

A
  • AB0
  • Common in all humans
    • Therefore no antibodies are formed against it
240
Q

If there is no AB0 blood group, it is refered to as…

A

Bombay-group

241
Q

Blood groups A, B, AB and O are formed by…

A
  • Further blood-type systems as wells as AB0
  • If there are no additional groups synthesised
    • → O group is default
242
Q

What forms the A blood group antigen

A

N-acetyl-galactose-amine transferase enzyme

243
Q

How is blood group O generated?

A
  • 0-gene
    • Supresses production of:
    • N-acetyl-galactose amine transferase
    • N-acetyl-galactosyl transferase
  • No A or B blood group is formed
244
Q

What forms the B blood group antigen?

A

N-acetyl-galactosyl transferase

245
Q

IgM type antibodies

A
  • Varieties of Hemagglutinine
  • Prevent AB0 antigens entering the blood stream after birth
    • if certain antigens not already present on RBCs
  • Incompatability:
    • Agglutination of RBCs by the serum
    • Hemolysis
246
Q

AB0 blood type reactions

A
  • Determining of an unknown blood group
    • via agglutination
  • RBCs react with a serum containing specific antibodies
    • E.g Anti-A, Anti-B
  • Incompatibility observed, determining RBCs antigen type
247
Q

Rh blood group - 1st pregancy

A
  • Rh negative mothers can be immunised by her foetus’ Rh positive RBCs
  • The formed antibody isn’t IgM-type, but IgG-type
    • Crosses easier accross the placenta
    • via micro-injuries during delivery
248
Q

Rh blood group - 2nd pregnancy

A
  • Small amount of RBCs enter mother’s immune system
    • Stimulating anti-Rh antibodies
    • These dissolve foetal RBCs
  • Leads to erythroblastosis foetalis
    • Jaundice
    • Death of foetus
249
Q

Rh-incompatibility

A
  • Rh negative recipent gets RBCs from Rh positive donor
  • Recipient is immunised
  • IgG antibodies dissolve recipients RBCs
  • Second inappropriate blood transfusion can cause significant damage
250
Q

Highest blood type in europid race

A

0 (45% prevelance)

251
Q

Highest blood type in negrid race

A

0 (51% prevelance)

252
Q

Highest blood type in mongoloid race

A

A (38% prevelance)

253
Q

How do animal blood groups differ to humans?

A

In animals:

  • No naturally formed antibodies against RBC-antigens of other individuals
  • Blood type antigens appear in the plasma too
  • Artificial antibody has hemolysing and not agglutinating character
254
Q

Monovalent antibody

A

Specific against only a single antigen

255
Q

RFLP

A

Restriction fragment length polymorphism

identifies individual DNA fingerprints

256
Q

Describe the production of an antibody which only reacts with the C-blood type antigen

(With no specific antigen against the single C-group)

A
  1. Immunise animal2 with animal1’s washed RBCs (A,B,C antigens)
  2. Animal2: only anti-B and anti-C is produced
  3. Washing with B RBC-s, Anti-B is removed
  4. Monovalent Anti-C serum remains
257
Q

Number of blood group systems and antigen group factors in cattle

A
  • 13 Blood group systems
  • Approx. 100 group factors
258
Q

Number of blood group systems and antigen group factors in sheep

A
  • 8 blood group systems
  • Approx 80 group factors
259
Q

Number of blood group systems and antigen group factors in equine

A
  • 8 blood group systems
  • Approx 20 group factors
260
Q

Number of blood group systems and antigen group factors in swine

A
  • 15 blood group systems
  • Approx 50 group factors
261
Q

Number of blood group systems and antigen group factors in Dogs

A
  • 12 blood group systems
  • 13 group factors
262
Q

Number of blood group systems and antigen group factors in cats

A
  • 1 blood group system
  • 2 group factors
263
Q
A

Similarities of antigens in two of the the blood type systems

264
Q

Chimeras

A

Individuals (once dizygotes) that during the foetal phase:

  • The hemopoietic progenitor cell migrated from one fetus to another
  • RBCs produced with the antigen structure similar to the original individual

This results in the same RBC and WBC antigen structure

265
Q

How are chimeras identified?

A

Where one twin is positive and the other is negative

266
Q

Freemartinism

A
  • Sterile female who was twins with a male
  • Testosterone of the male twin inhibits the formation of the fertile female
  • 10% chance of the female being fertile in the situation of being a twin to a male
  • Can be selected by blood type examination
    • Detection of XY type chromosomes
  • Economically viable during animal husbandry
267
Q

Give an example of blood group production traits in cattle

A
  • B-system blood type
  • Production of milk lipids
268
Q

Give an example of blood group production traits in swine

A
  • H blood type, PHI gene
  • Meat quality and stress sensitivity
269
Q

Give an example of blood group production traits in sheep

A
  • 0 blood type, L antigen
  • Serum phosphatase level and low RBC potassium level
270
Q

Meat from a stress sensitive swine produces…

A

Large amounts of exsudate after cutting

lower market and nutritional value

271
Q

Blood transfusion

A
  • Substitution of lost RBCs
    • Assures gas transport
272
Q

Blood transfusion in large animals

A

Large animals:

  • low antibodies - no consideration needed theoretically
  • Small proportion transferred initially
  • If no incompatibility, transfusion commences
273
Q

Blood transfusion in small animals

A
  • Three drops of:
    • Donor blood cells
    • Recipient’s plasma
    • Physiological NaCl solution
  • Check for hemolysis or agglutination
  • Transfusion can be completed if none present
274
Q

Blood transfusion in cats

A
  • In life-saving situations:
    • Blood of a donor dog can be transfused
    • Not used anymore
    • Blood typing kits now available
275
Q

When can cat blood be donated to another cat?

A

After completing cross reaction tests

276
Q

When can dog blood be donated to another dog?

A

After completing cross reaction tests

277
Q

When can dog blood be donated to a cat?

A

In case of emergency without testing

278
Q

Blood cell survival after transfusion of totally compatible donor and recipient

A

Normal lifetime (120 days)

(Figure: A)

279
Q

Fate of blood cells after a partly compatible blood transfusion

A
  • Significant hemolysis
  • Enough supply for 5-10 days of normal gas transport

(Figure: B)

280
Q

Blood cell survival after transfusion of totally incompatible donor and recipient

A
  • Damage is caused
  • Each RBC hemolyses immediately

(Figure: C)

281
Q

Hemolytic illnesses of the newborn Horse

A
  • Rh-like antigens
  • Problem formed only postnatally
  • Epitheliochorial placenta (barely in endometrium)
  • Immunoglobulins absorbed from colostrum within 36 hours
  • Symptoms:
    • Hemolysis
    • Neonatal jaundice
  • Solution:
    • Nursing the newborn
282
Q

Hemolytic illnesses of the newborn swine

A
  • Rh-like antigens
  • Postnatal problem
  • Swine antigen might cause incompatibility
  • Epitheliochorial placenta (barely in endometrium)
  • Immunoglobulins absorbed from the colostrum
  • Symptoms:
    • Hemolysis
    • Neonatal jaundice
  • Solution:
    • Nursing the newborn
283
Q

Hemostasis

A
  • Blood clotting
  • Defense reaction preventing loss of blood
    • Vascular reaction
    • Aggregation of platelets
    • RBCs containing red thrombus forms
    • Held in place by fibrin fibres
284
Q

How is pathological clot formation prevented in the body?

A

A balance of:

  • Hemostasis
  • Self-inhibiting mechanism
285
Q

The lack of blood coagulation

A

Hemophylia

286
Q

Physiological micro-injuries

A
  • Number is more significant
  • Occurs constantly in all tissues
  • Hemostasis is important in the ability to immediately repair these bleeds
287
Q

Hemostasis balance system

A

If something causes bleeding or coagulation and it prevails for a longer period, it has pathologic consequences

288
Q

Imbalance of the hemostasis system

A
  • Decreased healing
    • hemophilia, bleeding sickness
  • Increased clot forming mechanisms +
  • Pathologically decreased clot removal
    • Thrombosis, pathological clot forming
289
Q

Summary of the hemostasis reaction

A
  1. Injury
  2. Vascular reaction
  3. Thrombocyte reaction
  4. Coagulation cascade mechanism
  5. Fibrinogen-fibrin transformation
  6. Red/white thrombus formation
  7. Blood loss stops
  8. Decreased vascular reaction
  9. Cascade inactivates
  10. Fibrinolysis
  11. Thrombolysis
  12. Vessel wall repair
  13. Complete healing
290
Q

Vascular reaction

A
  • Contraction after injury
    • Depolarisation of smooth muscle cells
    • Tissue vasoconstrictor factors
      • Causes platelet formation
  • Drop in perfusion
    • Platelet aggreagtion
291
Q

How are platelets attracted to injured endothelial cells

A

Binding to negative charges of injured endothelial areas

(Primary aggregation)

292
Q

How does von Willebrand factor assist the thrombocyte reaction?

A
  • Connects the injured surface with the thrombocytes
  • Aggregation increases
293
Q

Summarise the thrombocyte reaction

A
  • Intima injury
  • Primary activation
    • Platelet binds to exposed collagen
  • Von willebrand factor increases primary activation
  • Secondary activation starts
  • Thrombocytes bind together
    • Secrete coagulation factors
  • Endothelial PGI2 and NO production stops
  • Thrombocyte secretion
  • Thrombin forming activates
  • Thrombocyte releases:
    • Serotonin, ADP, PF-3, TXA
  • White thrombus
294
Q

Summarise the central ‘cascade’

A
  1. External/internal injury
  2. Xth coagulation factor → Xa factor
  3. Prothrombin → Thrombin
  4. Fibrinogen → IA loose fibrin net
  5. Fibrine net stabilises
295
Q

Roles of thrombin

A
  • Enzyme
  • Clot coagulation
  • Clot elimination
  • Self activating
  • Coagulation-anticoagulation mechanisms
296
Q

Extrinsic way of coagulation

A
  • External tissue injuries
  • Inactive factor VII → Activated when plasma enters tissues
  • Factor VIIa → Activates the factor X in the central ‘cascade’
297
Q

Intrinsic way of coagulation

A
  • Plasma factor XII connects to the surface
  • This binds kininogen
    • Activating the enzyme kallikrein
      • Transforms factor VII to active XIIa
  • XIIa = XI → XIa → activator complex
298
Q

Stopping blood coagulation: anticoagulation

A
  • Anticoagulation
    • Endothelial cells bind thrombin
    • Thrombin activates protein-C
    • Protein-C prevents activation of enzymes needed for intrinsic and extrinsic activation
299
Q

Stopping blood coagulation: Fibrinolysis

A
  • Thrombin stimulates plasminogen activation
  • The produced plasmin is an enzyme which dissolves the fibrin net
300
Q

Stopping blood coagulation: thrombolysis

A
  • Phagocytosis decreases the size of the thrombus
  • Increasing perfusion helps demolish the thrombus
301
Q

Coagulation factor: I fibrinogen

A

Elementary substance of the stable fibrin net

302
Q

Coagulation factor: II Prothrombin

A

Central enzyme: Clot forming and elimination

303
Q

Coagulation factor: III Tissue factor

A

Initiator of the extrinsic way

304
Q

Coagulation factor: IV calcium ion

A

Fixes and activates the members of the cascade

305
Q

Coagulation factor: V proaccelerin

A

A member of the central activator complex

306
Q

Coagulation factor: VI

A

Not in use anymore

307
Q

Coagulation factor: VII proconvertin

A

Initiator of the extrinsic way

308
Q

Coagulation factor: VIII Antihaemophilic factor A

A

Member of the intrinsic activator complex

309
Q

Coagulation factor: IX Christmas factor

A

Member of the intrinsic way

310
Q

Coagulation factor: X Stuart-prower factor

A

Integrator of the intrinsic and extrinsic ways

311
Q

Coagulation factor: XI plasma thromboplastin antecedent

A

Secondary initiator of the intrinsic way

312
Q

Coagulation factor: XII Hageman factor - contact factor

A

Primary activator of the intrinsic way

313
Q

Coagulation factor: XIII Lóránd-Laki, Fibrin stabilising factor function

A

Forms a fibrin-polymer from monomers

314
Q

Coagulation factor: Kininogen

A

Activates factor VII and kallikrein

315
Q

Coagulation factor: Kallikrein

A

Activates factor XII

316
Q

The role of vitamin K

A
  • Calcium-binding gama-carboxyl-glutamic acid on the end of factors II, VII, IX, X and tissue factor GIa-proteins
  • Coenzyme of the carboxylation of the glutamic acid in the liver is reduced vitamin K
317
Q

Practical significance of vitamin K

A
  • Natural intoxications
    • Dicumarol
  • Antagonises warfarin
    • Inhibits coagulation
  • Prevents thrombus formation
    • During surgical interventions
      • Cardiac valve etc.

Physiology (18 decks)

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