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Anatomy & Physiology 1 > Blood and Circulatory System > Flashcards

Blood and Circulatory System Flashcards

1
Q

the blood contained in the cardiovascular system

A

Whole Blood

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2
Q

whole blood circulating in blood vessels carrying oxygen, nutrients, and waste materials

A

Peripheral Blood

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3
Q

A blood sample from a vein or artery is what type of blood?

A

Peripheral Blood

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4
Q

a process in which whole blood samples are obtained from an animal’s vein using a vacuum tube and needle

A

Venipuncture

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5
Q

What do the different colored stoppers / tops of vacuum tubes indicate?

A

Which anticoagulant is in the tube - if any

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6
Q

What anticoagulant is in the purple-top vacuum tubes and what does it chelate?

A

Ethylenediaminetetraacetic Acid (EDTA)

Chelates to calcium ions

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7
Q

What does chelating mean?

A

to bind or bind to

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8
Q

What anticoagulant is in the green-top vacuum tubes and what does it chelate?

A

Heparin
Chelates to antithrombin > which blocks thrombin

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9
Q

Green-top vacuum tubes are used to analyze blood samples from what?

A

Very small species

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10
Q

What anticoagulant is in the red-top vacuum tubes and what does it chelate?

A

Does not contain anticoagulants

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11
Q

Serum Separator Tubes are what color vacuum tubes?

A

Red-Top Vacuum Tubes

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12
Q

How do you collect serum vs plasma samples?

A

Serum = collect blood sample in vacuum tube with NO anticoagulants

Plasma = collect blood sample in vacuum tube WITH anticoagulants

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13
Q

How many components do serum samples vs plasma samples split into when centrifuged? What are the components?

A

Serum > 2 components
1. Serum
2. Clot

Plasma > 3 layers
1. Plasma layer
2. Buffy Coat
3. Erythrocyte Layer

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14
Q

the layer in a centrifuged, anticoagulated blood sample that contains the clotting proteins

A

Plasma Layer

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15
Q

the layer in a centrifuged, anticoagulated blood sample that contains leukocytes and thrombocytes

A

Buffy Coat

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16
Q

the layer in a centrifuged, anticoagulated blood sample that contains red blood cells

A

Erythrocyte Layers

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17
Q

the component in a centrifuged, coagulated blood sample that is the fluid on top

A

Serum

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18
Q

the component in a centrifuged, coagulated blood sample that is all the blood cells entwined in a fibrin clot forced to the bottom

A

Clot

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19
Q

an iron-containing protein in erythrocytes that transports oxygen throughout the body

A

Hemoglobin

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20
Q

List the 3 functions of blood

A
  1. Transportation
  2. Regulation
  3. Defense
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21
Q

the mechanism in which blood transports thrombocytes to sites of damage in blood vessel walls to form a plug that will control bleeding

A

Hemostasis

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22
Q

the condition in which plasma leaves the bloodstream in order to compensate for low tissue fluid and the cells become more concentrated in the bloodstream

A

Hemoconcentration

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23
Q

the condition in which excess bodily fluid enters the bloodstream and the plasma dilutes the number of cells in the bloodstream

A

Hemodilution

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24
Q

What is the functional blood pH range and what is the ideal blood pH?

A

Range = 7.35 to 7.45
Ideal = 7.4

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25
Q

the production of all blood cells

A

Hematopoiesis

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26
Q

List the cellular components of plasma

A
  1. Erythrocytes
  2. Leukocytes
  3. Thrombocytes
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27
Q

the process by which red blood cells are created

A

Erythropoiesis

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28
Q

the main hormone that controls the rate of red blood cell formation

A

Erythropoietin (EPO)

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29
Q

What stimulates erythropoiesis?

A

Hypoxia

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30
Q

immatures stages of red blood cells that retain their nuclei that may be released in cases of severe anemia, but are not as efficient due to immaturity

A

Nucleated RBCs (NRBCs)

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31
Q

the process by which platelets are created

A

Thrombopoiesis

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32
Q

Platelets stem from what?

A

Pieces of megakaryocyte cytoplasm

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33
Q

the general process by which white blood cells are formed

A

Leukopoiesis

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34
Q

the process by which a pluripotent stem cell differentiates into one of three types of granulocyte

A

Granulopoiesis

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35
Q

Granulopoiesis produces what 3 types of cells?

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Basophils
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36
Q

the process that produces lymphocytes, some of which develop outside the bone marrow

A

Lymphopoiesis

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37
Q

the formation and maturation of monocytes

A

Monopoiesis

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38
Q

List the types of:
Granulocytes
Agranulocytes

A

Granulocytes:
1. Neutrophils
2. Eosinophils
3. Basophils

Agranulocytes:
1. Lymphocytes
2. Monocytes

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39
Q

Describe 4 characteristics of erythrocytes under a microscope

A
  1. Non-nucleated
  2. Biconcave discs
  3. Thinner central zone
  4. Stain red - due to hemoglobin
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40
Q

What are the 3 functions of erythrocytes?

A
  1. Transporting O2 to tissues
  2. Transporting CO2 to the lungs
  3. Maintaining cell shape + deformability
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41
Q

hemoglobin that has oxygen bound to it

A

Oxyhemoglobin

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42
Q

hemoglobin once it has given its oxygen to bodily tissues

A

Deoxyhemoglobin

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43
Q

the flexibility of the cells membrane which allows it to change shape and travel through the various blood vessels in the body

A

Membrane Deformability

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44
Q

the process of aging

A

Senescence

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45
Q

intravascular or extravascular oxidative stresses that contribute to the rapid aging and destruction of RBCs and can be exacerbated by certain diseases or toxin in the animal’s body

A

Free Radicals

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46
Q

the rupture or destruction of red blood cells

A

Hemolysis

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47
Q

the destruction of RBCs outside the cardiovascular system

A

Extravascular Hemolysis

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48
Q

the destruction of RBCs within blood vessels

A

Intravascular Hemolysis

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49
Q

Which type of hemolysis executes most of senescent RBC destruction?

A

Extravascular Hemolysis

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50
Q

the result when excess unconjugated hemoglobin appears in the plasma as a pink, red or brown color due to there not being enough haptoglobin to bind to all the hemoglobin in the plasma

A

Hemoglobinemia

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51
Q

when excess unconjugated hemoglobin has no way to get out of the liver so it is brought to the kidney, eliminated in the urine, and makes the urine red in color

A

Hemoglobinuria

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52
Q

a diagnostic tool used to evaluate plasma proteins, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets

A

Complete Blood Count (CBC) / (hemogram)

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53
Q

List the 10 parameters included in a CBC

A
  1. Hematocrit (HCT) or Packed Cell Volume (PCV)
  2. Hemoglobin (Hgb) Analysis
  3. Red Blood Cell Count (RBC)
  4. Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)
  5. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC)
  6. Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW)
  7. Reticulocyte Count (RETIC)
  8. Total Leukocyte Count (WBC Count)
  9. Platelet Count (PLT)
  10. Total Plasma Protein (TP)
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54
Q

the volume of packed erythrocytes measured and expressed as a percentage of a total volume of blood

A

Hematocrit (HCT) or Packed Cell Volume (PCV)

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55
Q

What are the 2 methods for determining HCT and PCV?

A
  1. Automated hematology analyzers - HCT
  2. Gross examination of a centrifuged microhematocrit tube - PCV
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56
Q

a condition that results in an animal’s PCV being lower than the normal reference range which leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

A

Anemia

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57
Q

a condition that results in the animal’s PCV being higher than normal or an increase in the number of RBCs above normally

A

Polycythemia

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58
Q

Give the 3 types of Polycythemia

A
  1. Relative Polycythemia
  2. Compensatory Polycythemia
  3. Polycythemia rubra vera
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59
Q

the condition in which an animal’s PCV is higher than normal due to dehydration

A

Relative Polycythemia

60
Q

What causes relative polycythemia?

A

Dehydration > less fluid in the blood > hemoconcentration > more RBCs in plasma

61
Q

the condition in which an animal’s PCV is higher than normal due to hypoxia

A

Compensatory Polycythemia

62
Q

What causes compensatory polycythemia?

A

Hypoxia > bone marrow stimulated > makes more RBCs

63
Q

a rare bone marrow disorder in which an animal’s PCV is higher than normal due to increased production of red blood cells for an unknown reason

A

Polycythemia rubra vera

64
Q

the measurement of the concentration of hemoglobin contained in the red blood cells in a specific volume of blood

A

Hemoglobin (Hgb) Analysis

65
Q

the measurement of the number of red blood cells in a specific volume of blood

A

Red Blood Cell Count (RBC Count)

66
Q

the measurement of the average volume or size of the individual red blood cells

A

Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)

67
Q

the measurement of the ratio of the weight of hemoglobin to the volume of red blood cells

A

Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC)

68
Q

the numerical expression of variation in red blood cell size

A

Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW)

69
Q

variation in size from cell to cell in a blood sample

A

Anisocytosis

70
Q

Compare the size of immature RBCs and fully mature RBCs in circulation

A

immature RBCs are LARGER than fully mature RBCs

71
Q

the count of the number of immature forms of the red blood cells per a specific total number of red blood cells

A

Reticulocyte Count (RETIC)

72
Q

the measurement of the total number of white blood cells in a specific volume of blood

A

Total Leukocyte Count (WBC Count)

73
Q

Give the 2 methods of determining WBC count

A
  1. Automated hematology analyzer
  2. Evaluating a stained blood smear
74
Q

Give the methods for detecting leukocytosis

A
  1. Automated hematology analyzer
  2. Observing the thickness of the buffy coat in a spun microhematocrit tube
75
Q

an increased # of WBCs in peripheral blood

A

Leukocytosis

76
Q

a decreased # of WBCs in peripheral blood

A

Leukopenia

77
Q

an increased # of neutrophils in peripheral blood

A

Neutrophilia

78
Q

a decreased # of neutrophils in peripheral blood

A

Neutropenia

79
Q

an increased # of eosinophils in peripheral blood

A

Eosinophilia

80
Q

a decreased # of eosinophils in peripheral blood

A

Eosinopenia

81
Q

an increased # of basophils in peripheral blood

A

Basophilia

82
Q

a decreased # of basophils in peripheral blood

A

Basopenia

83
Q

an increased # of monocytes in peripheral blood

A

Monocytosis

84
Q

a decreased # of monocytes in peripheral blood

A

Monocytopenia

85
Q

an increased # of lymphocytes in peripheral blood

A

Lymphocytosis

86
Q

a decreased # of lymphocytes in peripheral blood

A

Lymphopenia

87
Q

the measurement of the total number of thrombocytes in a specific volume of blood sample

A

Platelet Count (PLT)

88
Q

the condition in which there is a higher than normal platelet count

A

Thrombocytosis

89
Q

the condition in which there is a lower than normal platelet count

A

Thrombocytopenia

90
Q

the measurement of the amount of protein in the plasma portion of a specific volume of blood

A

Total Plasma Protein (TP)

91
Q

Give the methods of determining TP

A
  1. Automated hematology analyzer
  2. Hand-held refractometer
92
Q

Polychromatophilic Hematology Stains: a modified Wright’s stain commonly used in clinical practice to stain a blood smear quickly and efficiently

A

Diff-Quik Stain

93
Q

Polychromatophilic Hematology Stains: blue dye + red-orange dye + dissolved in methyl alcohol

A

Wright’s Stain

94
Q

What does Wright’s Stain stain?

A

Acidic structures blue or purple

95
Q

Give 3 characteristics of thrombocytes under a microscope

A
  1. Non-nucleated
  2. Round to oval in shape
  3. Clear cytoplasm + blue or purple granules
96
Q

the response to vascular injury during hemostasis in which single thrombocytes bind through specific membrane receptors to cellular and extracellular proteins in the vessel wall and tissues

A

Platelet Adhesion

97
Q

the phase of hemostasis in which thrombocytes change shape in the presence of thrombin and develop pseudopods that allow them to intertwine with each other

A

Platelet Aggregation

98
Q

a series of reactions that result in inactive enzymes being activated by the preceding enzyme in the cascade

A

Coagulation Cascade

99
Q

the process by which a clot is dissolved after the endothelium has been repaired and is achieved by substances produced by the endothelium

A

Fibrinolysis

100
Q

small hemorrhages in the skin due to internal bleeding often caused by the absence of platelet adhesion

A

Petechiae

101
Q

Clotting factor 1

A

Fibrinogen

102
Q

Clotting Factor II

A

Prothrombin

103
Q

Clotting Factor III

A

Tissue Factor

104
Q

Clotting Factor IV

A

Calcium

105
Q

Clotting Factor V

A

Proaccelerin

106
Q

Clotting Factor VI

A

Accelerin

107
Q

Clotting Factor VII

A

Proconvertin

108
Q

Clotting Factor VIII

A

Antihemophilic Factor A

109
Q

Clotting Factor IX

A

Antihemophilic Factor B (Christmas Factor)

110
Q

Clotting Factor X

A

Stuart-Prower Factor

111
Q

Clotting Factor XI

A

Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent

112
Q

Clotting Factor XII

A

Hageman Factor

113
Q

Clotting Factor XIII

A

Fibrin Stabilizing Factor

114
Q

the substance produced by the liver that regulates the number of platelets circulating the body

A

Thrombopoietin

115
Q

Leukocyte Characteristics:
Don’t stain well
Polymorphonuclear
Phagocytosis
Early stage of inflammatory response

A

Neutrophil

116
Q

Leukocyte Characteristics:
Stain red
Polymorphonuclear
Allergic Reactions
Immunity
Phagocytosis

A

Eosinophil

117
Q

Leukocyte Characteristics:
Stain blue
Polymorphonuclear
Initiation of immune and allergic reactions

A

Basophil

118
Q

Leukocyte Characteristics:
Don’t stain
Pleomorphic nucleus
Phagocytosis
Process antigens

A

Monocyte

119
Q

Leukocyte Characteristics:
Don’t stain
Mononuclear
Antibody production
Humoral immunity

A

B cell (lymphocyte)

120
Q

Leukocyte Characteristics:
Don’t stain
Mononuclear
Cytokine production
Cell-mediated immunity

A

T cell (lymphocyte)

121
Q

the neutrophil pool that represents the blood as it flows through the blood vessels and is found toward the center of the lumen of the vessel

A

Circulating Pool

122
Q

the neutrophil pool that represents neutrophils that line the walls of small blood vessels and are mainly seen in the spleen, lungs, and abdominal organs

A

Marginal Pool

123
Q

an immature neutrophil released from the bone marrow that has a horseshoe-shaped nucleus without any segmentation

A

Band Neutrophil

124
Q

the condition in which there is a presence of band neutrophils or other immature neutrophils in the peripheral blood

A

Left Shift

125
Q

the passage of blood cells through capillary walls into tissues

A

Diapedesis

126
Q

the process by which neutrophils and other cells are attracted by inflammatory chemicals produced by the interaction between microorganisms and the tissues they’re invading

A

Chemotaxis

127
Q

Makes up the majority of leukocytes

A

Neutrophils

128
Q

Eosinophils are particularly toxic to what 2 things?

A
  1. Protozoa
  2. Worms
129
Q

Basophil granules contain what 2 things?

A
  1. Histamine
  2. Heparin
130
Q

What are the 4 types of lymphocytes?

A
  1. T cells
  2. B cells
  3. Plasma cells
  4. Natural killer (NK) cells
131
Q

immunity in which no antibody production is involved and is managed by T cells

A

Cell-Mediated Immunity

132
Q

T and B cell clones of an original lymphocyte that wait for an animal to be exposed to the original antigen a 2nd time so their response can be quicker and stronger than the original

A

Memory Cells

133
Q

immunity in which B cells transform into plasma cells when they recognize an antigen and release antibodies to fight that antigen

A

Antibody-Mediated (Humoral) Immunity

134
Q

How are plasma cells formed?

A

Derived from B cells in response to an antigenic stimulus

135
Q

What are immunoglobulins?

A

Antibodies

136
Q

What are 2 cellular changes induced by NK cells?

A
  1. Apoptosis
  2. Lysis
137
Q

programmed cell death

A

Apoptosis

138
Q

the disintegration of a cell by cell membrane rupture

A

Lysis

139
Q

NK cells use what 2 receptors to determine which cells to kill?

A
  1. Killer-activating receptor (KAR)
  2. Killer inhibitory receptor (KIR)
140
Q

the collective of tissue macrophages and monocytes that clean up cellular debris that remain after infection/inflammation clears up and process certain antigens

A

Mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS)

141
Q

the anticoagulant that prevents clotting by tying up clotting factor IV

A

Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)

142
Q

lavender cytoplasm in immature RBCs as a result of some metabolic activity occurring that picks up the blue polychromatophilic hematology stain

A

Polychromasia

143
Q

excess unconjugated bilirubin in plasma due to excess RBC breakdown

A

Hyperbilirubinemia

144
Q

the yellowing of mucous membranes and the sclera

A

Icterus/Jaundice

145
Q

the evaluation of a blood smear involving the counting of the first 100 white blood cells observed microscopically and keeping track of the number of each white blood cell type you see

A

Differential Count (“the diff”)

146
Q

a condition caused by an abnormal rapid increase of one of the white blood cell types

A

Leukemia

147
Q

when a neutrophil nucleus in peripheral blood has more than 5 segments and indicates the neutrophil has stayed in peripheral blood longer than normal

A

Hypersegmented Nucleus

Anatomy & Physiology 1 (10 decks)

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