Blood and Circulatory System Flashcards
(147 cards)
1
Q
the blood contained in the cardiovascular system
A
Whole Blood
2
Q
whole blood circulating in blood vessels carrying oxygen, nutrients, and waste materials
A
Peripheral Blood
3
Q
A blood sample from a vein or artery is what type of blood?
A
Peripheral Blood
4
Q
a process in which whole blood samples are obtained from an animal’s vein using a vacuum tube and needle
A
Venipuncture
5
Q
What do the different colored stoppers / tops of vacuum tubes indicate?
A
Which anticoagulant is in the tube - if any
6
Q
What anticoagulant is in the purple-top vacuum tubes and what does it chelate?
A
Ethylenediaminetetraacetic Acid (EDTA)
Chelates to calcium ions
7
Q
What does chelating mean?
A
to bind or bind to
8
Q
What anticoagulant is in the green-top vacuum tubes and what does it chelate?
A
Heparin
Chelates to antithrombin > which blocks thrombin
9
Q
Green-top vacuum tubes are used to analyze blood samples from what?
A
Very small species
10
Q
What anticoagulant is in the red-top vacuum tubes and what does it chelate?
A
Does not contain anticoagulants
11
Q
Serum Separator Tubes are what color vacuum tubes?
A
Red-Top Vacuum Tubes
12
Q
How do you collect serum vs plasma samples?
A
Serum = collect blood sample in vacuum tube with NO anticoagulants
Plasma = collect blood sample in vacuum tube WITH anticoagulants
13
Q
How many components do serum samples vs plasma samples split into when centrifuged? What are the components?
A
Serum > 2 components
1. Serum
2. Clot
Plasma > 3 layers
1. Plasma layer
2. Buffy Coat
3. Erythrocyte Layer
14
Q
the layer in a centrifuged, anticoagulated blood sample that contains the clotting proteins
A
Plasma Layer
15
Q
the layer in a centrifuged, anticoagulated blood sample that contains leukocytes and thrombocytes
A
Buffy Coat
16
Q
the layer in a centrifuged, anticoagulated blood sample that contains red blood cells
A
Erythrocyte Layers
17
Q
the component in a centrifuged, coagulated blood sample that is the fluid on top
A
Serum
18
Q
the component in a centrifuged, coagulated blood sample that is all the blood cells entwined in a fibrin clot forced to the bottom
A
Clot
19
Q
an iron-containing protein in erythrocytes that transports oxygen throughout the body
A
Hemoglobin
20
Q
List the 3 functions of blood
A
- Transportation
- Regulation
- Defense
21
Q
the mechanism in which blood transports thrombocytes to sites of damage in blood vessel walls to form a plug that will control bleeding
A
Hemostasis
22
Q
the condition in which plasma leaves the bloodstream in order to compensate for low tissue fluid and the cells become more concentrated in the bloodstream
A
Hemoconcentration
23
Q
the condition in which excess bodily fluid enters the bloodstream and the plasma dilutes the number of cells in the bloodstream
A
Hemodilution
24
Q
What is the functional blood pH range and what is the ideal blood pH?
A
Range = 7.35 to 7.45
Ideal = 7.4
25
the production of all blood cells
Hematopoiesis
26
List the cellular components of plasma
1. Erythrocytes
2. Leukocytes
3. Thrombocytes
27
the process by which red blood cells are created
Erythropoiesis
28
the main hormone that controls the rate of red blood cell formation
Erythropoietin (EPO)
29
What stimulates erythropoiesis?
Hypoxia
30
immatures stages of red blood cells that retain their nuclei that may be released in cases of severe anemia, but are not as efficient due to immaturity
Nucleated RBCs (NRBCs)
31
the process by which platelets are created
Thrombopoiesis
32
Platelets stem from what?
Pieces of megakaryocyte cytoplasm
33
the general process by which white blood cells are formed
Leukopoiesis
34
the process by which a pluripotent stem cell differentiates into one of three types of granulocyte
Granulopoiesis
35
Granulopoiesis produces what 3 types of cells?
1. Neutrophils
2. Eosinophils
3. Basophils
36
the process that produces lymphocytes, some of which develop outside the bone marrow
Lymphopoiesis
37
the formation and maturation of monocytes
Monopoiesis
38
List the types of:
Granulocytes
Agranulocytes
Granulocytes:
1. Neutrophils
2. Eosinophils
3. Basophils
Agranulocytes:
1. Lymphocytes
2. Monocytes
39
Describe 4 characteristics of erythrocytes under a microscope
1. Non-nucleated
2. Biconcave discs
3. Thinner central zone
4. Stain red - due to hemoglobin
40
What are the 3 functions of erythrocytes?
1. Transporting O2 to tissues
2. Transporting CO2 to the lungs
3. Maintaining cell shape + deformability
41
hemoglobin that has oxygen bound to it
Oxyhemoglobin
42
hemoglobin once it has given its oxygen to bodily tissues
Deoxyhemoglobin
43
the flexibility of the cells membrane which allows it to change shape and travel through the various blood vessels in the body
Membrane Deformability
44
the process of aging
Senescence
45
intravascular or extravascular oxidative stresses that contribute to the rapid aging and destruction of RBCs and can be exacerbated by certain diseases or toxin in the animal's body
Free Radicals
46
the rupture or destruction of red blood cells
Hemolysis
47
the destruction of RBCs outside the cardiovascular system
Extravascular Hemolysis
48
the destruction of RBCs within blood vessels
Intravascular Hemolysis
49
Which type of hemolysis executes most of senescent RBC destruction?
Extravascular Hemolysis
50
the result when excess unconjugated hemoglobin appears in the plasma as a pink, red or brown color due to there not being enough haptoglobin to bind to all the hemoglobin in the plasma
Hemoglobinemia
51
when excess unconjugated hemoglobin has no way to get out of the liver so it is brought to the kidney, eliminated in the urine, and makes the urine red in color
Hemoglobinuria
52
a diagnostic tool used to evaluate plasma proteins, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets
Complete Blood Count (CBC) / (hemogram)
53
List the 10 parameters included in a CBC
1. Hematocrit (HCT) or Packed Cell Volume (PCV)
2. Hemoglobin (Hgb) Analysis
3. Red Blood Cell Count (RBC)
4. Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)
5. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC)
6. Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW)
7. Reticulocyte Count (RETIC)
8. Total Leukocyte Count (WBC Count)
9. Platelet Count (PLT)
10. Total Plasma Protein (TP)
54
the volume of packed erythrocytes measured and expressed as a percentage of a total volume of blood
Hematocrit (HCT) or Packed Cell Volume (PCV)
55
What are the 2 methods for determining HCT and PCV?
1. Automated hematology analyzers - HCT
2. Gross examination of a centrifuged microhematocrit tube - PCV
56
a condition that results in an animal's PCV being lower than the normal reference range which leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood
Anemia
57
a condition that results in the animal's PCV being higher than normal or an increase in the number of RBCs above normally
Polycythemia
58
Give the 3 types of Polycythemia
1. Relative Polycythemia
2. Compensatory Polycythemia
3. Polycythemia rubra vera
59
the condition in which an animal's PCV is higher than normal due to dehydration
Relative Polycythemia
60
What causes relative polycythemia?
Dehydration > less fluid in the blood > hemoconcentration > more RBCs in plasma
61
the condition in which an animal's PCV is higher than normal due to hypoxia
Compensatory Polycythemia
62
What causes compensatory polycythemia?
Hypoxia > bone marrow stimulated > makes more RBCs
63
a rare bone marrow disorder in which an animal's PCV is higher than normal due to increased production of red blood cells for an unknown reason
Polycythemia rubra vera
64
the measurement of the concentration of hemoglobin contained in the red blood cells in a specific volume of blood
Hemoglobin (Hgb) Analysis
65
the measurement of the number of red blood cells in a specific volume of blood
Red Blood Cell Count (RBC Count)
66
the measurement of the average volume or size of the individual red blood cells
Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)
67
the measurement of the ratio of the weight of hemoglobin to the volume of red blood cells
Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration (MCHC)
68
the numerical expression of variation in red blood cell size
Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW)
69
variation in size from cell to cell in a blood sample
Anisocytosis
70
Compare the size of immature RBCs and fully mature RBCs in circulation
immature RBCs are LARGER than fully mature RBCs
71
the count of the number of immature forms of the red blood cells per a specific total number of red blood cells
Reticulocyte Count (RETIC)
72
the measurement of the total number of white blood cells in a specific volume of blood
Total Leukocyte Count (WBC Count)
73
Give the 2 methods of determining WBC count
1. Automated hematology analyzer
2. Evaluating a stained blood smear
74
Give the methods for detecting leukocytosis
1. Automated hematology analyzer
2. Observing the thickness of the buffy coat in a spun microhematocrit tube
75
an increased # of WBCs in peripheral blood
Leukocytosis
76
a decreased # of WBCs in peripheral blood
Leukopenia
77
an increased # of neutrophils in peripheral blood
Neutrophilia
78
a decreased # of neutrophils in peripheral blood
Neutropenia
79
an increased # of eosinophils in peripheral blood
Eosinophilia
80
a decreased # of eosinophils in peripheral blood
Eosinopenia
81
an increased # of basophils in peripheral blood
Basophilia
82
a decreased # of basophils in peripheral blood
Basopenia
83
an increased # of monocytes in peripheral blood
Monocytosis
84
a decreased # of monocytes in peripheral blood
Monocytopenia
85
an increased # of lymphocytes in peripheral blood
Lymphocytosis
86
a decreased # of lymphocytes in peripheral blood
Lymphopenia
87
the measurement of the total number of thrombocytes in a specific volume of blood sample
Platelet Count (PLT)
88
the condition in which there is a higher than normal platelet count
Thrombocytosis
89
the condition in which there is a lower than normal platelet count
Thrombocytopenia
90
the measurement of the amount of protein in the plasma portion of a specific volume of blood
Total Plasma Protein (TP)
91
Give the methods of determining TP
1. Automated hematology analyzer
2. Hand-held refractometer
92
Polychromatophilic Hematology Stains: a modified Wright's stain commonly used in clinical practice to stain a blood smear quickly and efficiently
Diff-Quik Stain
93
Polychromatophilic Hematology Stains: blue dye + red-orange dye + dissolved in methyl alcohol
Wright's Stain
94
What does Wright's Stain stain?
Acidic structures blue or purple
95
Give 3 characteristics of thrombocytes under a microscope
1. Non-nucleated
2. Round to oval in shape
3. Clear cytoplasm + blue or purple granules
96
the response to vascular injury during hemostasis in which single thrombocytes bind through specific membrane receptors to cellular and extracellular proteins in the vessel wall and tissues
Platelet Adhesion
97
the phase of hemostasis in which thrombocytes change shape in the presence of thrombin and develop pseudopods that allow them to intertwine with each other
Platelet Aggregation
98
a series of reactions that result in inactive enzymes being activated by the preceding enzyme in the cascade
Coagulation Cascade
99
the process by which a clot is dissolved after the endothelium has been repaired and is achieved by substances produced by the endothelium
Fibrinolysis
100
small hemorrhages in the skin due to internal bleeding often caused by the absence of platelet adhesion
Petechiae
101
Clotting factor 1
Fibrinogen
102
Clotting Factor II
Prothrombin
103
Clotting Factor III
Tissue Factor
104
Clotting Factor IV
Calcium
105
Clotting Factor V
Proaccelerin
106
Clotting Factor VI
Accelerin
107
Clotting Factor VII
Proconvertin
108
Clotting Factor VIII
Antihemophilic Factor A
109
Clotting Factor IX
Antihemophilic Factor B (Christmas Factor)
110
Clotting Factor X
Stuart-Prower Factor
111
Clotting Factor XI
Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent
112
Clotting Factor XII
Hageman Factor
113
Clotting Factor XIII
Fibrin Stabilizing Factor
114
the substance produced by the liver that regulates the number of platelets circulating the body
Thrombopoietin
115
Leukocyte Characteristics:
Don't stain well
Polymorphonuclear
Phagocytosis
Early stage of inflammatory response
Neutrophil
116
Leukocyte Characteristics:
Stain red
Polymorphonuclear
Allergic Reactions
Immunity
Phagocytosis
Eosinophil
117
Leukocyte Characteristics:
Stain blue
Polymorphonuclear
Initiation of immune and allergic reactions
Basophil
118
Leukocyte Characteristics:
Don't stain
Pleomorphic nucleus
Phagocytosis
Process antigens
Monocyte
119
Leukocyte Characteristics:
Don't stain
Mononuclear
Antibody production
Humoral immunity
B cell (lymphocyte)
120
Leukocyte Characteristics:
Don't stain
Mononuclear
Cytokine production
Cell-mediated immunity
T cell (lymphocyte)
121
the neutrophil pool that represents the blood as it flows through the blood vessels and is found toward the center of the lumen of the vessel
Circulating Pool
122
the neutrophil pool that represents neutrophils that line the walls of small blood vessels and are mainly seen in the spleen, lungs, and abdominal organs
Marginal Pool
123
an immature neutrophil released from the bone marrow that has a horseshoe-shaped nucleus without any segmentation
Band Neutrophil
124
the condition in which there is a presence of band neutrophils or other immature neutrophils in the peripheral blood
Left Shift
125
the passage of blood cells through capillary walls into tissues
Diapedesis
126
the process by which neutrophils and other cells are attracted by inflammatory chemicals produced by the interaction between microorganisms and the tissues they're invading
Chemotaxis
127
Makes up the majority of leukocytes
Neutrophils
128
Eosinophils are particularly toxic to what 2 things?
1. Protozoa
2. Worms
129
Basophil granules contain what 2 things?
1. Histamine
2. Heparin
130
What are the 4 types of lymphocytes?
1. T cells
2. B cells
3. Plasma cells
4. Natural killer (NK) cells
131
immunity in which no antibody production is involved and is managed by T cells
Cell-Mediated Immunity
132
T and B cell clones of an original lymphocyte that wait for an animal to be exposed to the original antigen a 2nd time so their response can be quicker and stronger than the original
Memory Cells
133
immunity in which B cells transform into plasma cells when they recognize an antigen and release antibodies to fight that antigen
Antibody-Mediated (Humoral) Immunity
134
How are plasma cells formed?
Derived from B cells in response to an antigenic stimulus
135
What are immunoglobulins?
Antibodies
136
What are 2 cellular changes induced by NK cells?
1. Apoptosis
2. Lysis
137
programmed cell death
Apoptosis
138
the disintegration of a cell by cell membrane rupture
Lysis
139
NK cells use what 2 receptors to determine which cells to kill?
1. Killer-activating receptor (KAR)
2. Killer inhibitory receptor (KIR)
140
the collective of tissue macrophages and monocytes that clean up cellular debris that remain after infection/inflammation clears up and process certain antigens
Mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS)
141
the anticoagulant that prevents clotting by tying up clotting factor IV
Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
142
lavender cytoplasm in immature RBCs as a result of some metabolic activity occurring that picks up the blue polychromatophilic hematology stain
Polychromasia
143
excess unconjugated bilirubin in plasma due to excess RBC breakdown
Hyperbilirubinemia
144
the yellowing of mucous membranes and the sclera
Icterus/Jaundice
145
the evaluation of a blood smear involving the counting of the first 100 white blood cells observed microscopically and keeping track of the number of each white blood cell type you see
Differential Count ("the diff")
146
a condition caused by an abnormal rapid increase of one of the white blood cell types
Leukemia
147
when a neutrophil nucleus in peripheral blood has more than 5 segments and indicates the neutrophil has stayed in peripheral blood longer than normal
Hypersegmented Nucleus
