Burns Flashcards

1
Q

A burn less than 10% usually requires ____.

A

minimal supplementation

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2
Q

It is the exposure of vein (jugular or great saphenous) to insert an IV cannula.

A

Venous Cutdown

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3
Q

Reduced vascular volume may lead to _____ if untreated.

A

Shock

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4
Q

Burns over this area also require special treatment as constant motion will make healing more complicated.
Example: backs of the knees

A

skin over joints

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5
Q

First, Second (S), Second (D), or Third Degree
Formation of eschar

A

Third Degree

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6
Q

First, Second (S), Second (D), or Third Degree
Not painful; inelastic

A

Third Degree

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7
Q

Body attempts to compensate for losses of plasma volume by:

A
  1. Constriction of blood vessels
  2. Withdrawal of fluid to undamaged extracellular space
  3. Patient is thirsty
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8
Q

It occurs during the 3rd –10th day.

A

Hyponatremia

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9
Q

Edema results for the first _____ hours peaking at ___ hours post burn.

A

24-36, 12

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10
Q

Major, Moderate, or Minor
Third degree burns on more than 10% BSA

A

Major Burns

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11
Q

First, Second (S), Second (D), or Third Degree
Wound moist and painful

A

Second Degree (Superficial)

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12
Q

Results from contact, ingestion or injection of acids, alkalis or vesicants that can cause tissue injury or necrosis

A

Chemical Burns

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13
Q

Day1: ½ of the computed fluid is given for the _____ post burn

A

first 8 hours

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14
Q

What do we observe when inspecting the oral cavity?

A

Blistering lips
Singed nasal hair
Soot in oropharynx

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15
Q

When administering Nalbuphine or Morphine, we should check first the ___.

A

Respiratory Rate

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16
Q

These may indicate intubation.

A

Stridor and Drooling

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17
Q

Burns may vary from ___ burns to ____ burns.

A

minor superficial, full thickness

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18
Q

An adult burn patient may require _____ calories per day

A

3000-5000

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19
Q

Parkland Formula for Day 2

A

SIDE DRIP: 0.5 mL colloid x weight (kg) x BSA (%)
MAIN LINE: 2000 mL of D5 Water (for 24 hours)

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20
Q

Arrange:
A. Rinse the burn in cool or cold water.
B. Have the person follow up with a health care provider.
C. Ensure that the source of the burn has been dealt with and the scene is safe.
D. Apply antibiotic or burn cream if no allergies exist.
E. Wear PPE and get the first aid kit.
F. Cover with a clean, dry non-stick dressing.

A

C. Ensure that the source of the burn has been dealt with and the scene is safe.
E. Wear PPE and get the first aid kit.
A. Rinse the burn in cool or cold water.
D. Apply antibiotic or burn cream if no allergies exist.
F. Cover with a clean, dry non-stick dressing.
B. Have the person follow up with a health care provider.

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21
Q

First, Second (S), Second (D), or Third Degree
Maybe yellowish but soft; elastic

A

Second Degree (Deep)

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22
Q

Type of feeding for 10-20% BSA

A

Oral Feedings

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23
Q

Injuries from flaming objects, flash, scald, or contact with hot objects

A

Thermal Burns

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24
Q

It is directly proportional to the extent and depth of burn injury.

A

Fluid Volume Deficit

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25
It is the best way to put a fire out from the person.
Stop, Drop, & Roll
26
Results from coagulation necrosis cause by intense heat; it usually occurs after contact with faulty electrical wiring or high voltage power lines
Electrical Burns
27
Ineffective Breathing Pattern: _____ Impaired Gas Exchange: _____
Respiratory Rate Oxygen Saturation
28
As fluid shift occurs and potassium is not replaced.
Hypokalemia
29
The stress ulcers secondary to systemic burns are known as ____. It includes gastric and duodenal ulcers.
Curling Ulcers
30
No blister appear, but white, brown, or black leathery tissue and thrombosed vessel are visible
Second Degree (Deep)
31
It is the primary metabolic fuel.
Glucose
32
Pain that may last up to 48 hours in first degree burns is relieved by ______
cooling
33
Major, Moderate, or Minor Second degree burns on less than 10% in child BSA
Minor Burns
34
When assessing for inhalation injury, we should listen for?
Hoarseness and Crackles
35
Type of feeding for 30% and above BSA
TPN Enteral Feedings
36
First, Second (S), Second (D), or Third Degree Pink to red; slight edema which subsides quickly
First Degree
37
It is the outermost layer of epidermis, when it is damaged, severe systemic reaction from fluid losses occur.
Water Vapor Barrier
38
It results from RBC destruction.
Anemia
39
Due to an exposure to radioactive substance or from UV due to excessive exposure to sunlight (Sunburn)
Radiation Burns
40
What conditions are common in patients with deep muscle damage, in electrical burns that may lead to ACUTE TUBULAR NECROSIS.
Hematuria and Myoglobinuria
41
First, Second (S), Second (D), or Third Degree Weeping and edematous, elastic vescles
Second Degree (Superficial)
42
If chemical entered the eye, flush with large amount of water or NSS for ___.
at least 30 minutes
43
Initial _____ due to hyperventilation; _____ due to pulmonary insufficiency.
Respiratory Alkalosis, Respiratory Acidosis
44
How much isotonic enteral tube feedings is started within 24 hours to maintain GI function?
5-10 mL/hr
45
Indications for Immediate IV Fluid Resuscitation:
18%-20% Adult BSA 12%-15% Child BSA Electrical injuries
46
Major mediator of the hypermetabolic response to burn injury.
Catecholamine
47
Parkland Formula for Day 1
4 mL of PLR x weight (kg) x BSA (%)
48
First, Second (S), Second (D), or Third Degree Reddened areas do not blanch with pressure
Third Degree
49
Type of feeding for 20-30% BSA
Enteral Feedings
50
Results when skin is rubbed harshly against a coarse surface
Friction or Abrasion Burns
51
A fatal dysrhythmia common in high voltage electrocution.
Ventricular Fibrillation
52
First, Second (S), Second (D), or Third Degree Sensitive to cold
Second Degree (Deep)
53
Damage extends through deeply charred subcutaneous tissue, to muscles and tendons, and bones
Third Degree
54
A procedure using a special blade to slice off thin layers of damaged skin until live tissue is evidenced by capillary bleeding.
Tangential Excision
55
Capillary permeability starts to change in about ___, but protein in interstitial spaces may remain for _____ before returning to the vascular system.
48 hours, 5 days to 2 weeks
56
Major, Moderate, or Minor Electrical burns
Major Burns
57
The _____ is the start of the counting of the first eight hours.
time of burn injury
58
First, Second (S), Second (D), or Third Degree Sensitive to cold
Second Degree (Deep)
59
It occurs initially due to cell destruction.
Hyperkalemia
60
Major, Moderate, or Minor Second degree burns on less than 15% of adult BSA
Minor Burns
61
Occurs from a direct contact with any heat source, electricity, or certain chemicals.
Burn
62
Nursing diagnoses (Integumentary)
Impaired skin integrity Acute pain Risk for infection Ineffective thermoregulation or Hypothermia
63
How many bacterial count as determined by wound biopsy indicates wound sepsis?
1,000,000 per gram of tissue
64
Lessened circulating blood volume resulting to ___ CO, then ___ HR.
decreased, increased
65
Major, Moderate, or Minor Second degree burns on 15-25% of adult BSA
Moderate Burns
66
Abnormal inflammatory response after burn injury causes a decreased delivery of ___, ___, and ___to the injured area.
Antibiotics, WBC, Oxygen
67
Aside from Body Image Disturbance, what are the other nursing diagnoses for psychological changes in patients with burns.
Fear r/t prolong hospitalization Ineffective coping Hopelessness
68
How many percent is the genital area using the rule of nines?
1%
69
How many days do bacteria fully colonize a wound?
3-5 days
70
Example of a weak base
Sodium Bicarbonate
71
Major, Moderate, or Minor Second degree burns on 10-20% child BSA
Moderate Burns
72
Decreased peristalsis and gastric distention are due to what kind of response?
SNS response
73
What are the signs and symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning?
Headache Visual changes Confusion Irritability Nausea Ataxia Collapse
74
"Fever spikes" 38.8°C and above
Burn Fever
75
Causing erythema and pain
First Degree
76
Benefits of hydrotherapy (tubbing)
Facilitate cleansing and debridement of the burned area Promotes daily assessment of BSA and ROM exercises
77
Producing blisters and mild-to-moderate edema and pain
Second Degree (Superficial)
78
What pain medication lowers blood pressure?
Tramadol