C-146A SMA MQF 2015

Question 1

Where can the crash axe be found?

Answer 1

In the Floor Step

Question 2

The Following emergency equipment is located with the crash axe:

Answer 2

Fire extinguisher and PBE

Question 3

What is the maximum takeoff weight?

Answer 3

30,843 lbs

Question 4

What is the maximum ramp weight?

Answer 4

31,019 lbs

Question 5

What is the maximum zero fuel weight?

Answer 5

27,800 lbs

Question 6

What is the maximum landing weight?

Answer 6

29,167 lbs

Question 7

What is the minimum flight weight?

Answer 7

20,724 lbs

Question 8

Cargo area floor limitation for 75 lb/ft2?

Answer 8

FS 602 to FS 705

Question 9

Cargo area floor limitation configuration 3 and 4, for 82 lb/ft2?

Answer 9

FS 457 to FS 602

Question 10

Cargo area floor limitation configuration 5, for 82 lb/ft2?

Answer 10

FS 298 to FS 602

Question 11

With MAX Takeoff weight of 30,843 lbs, Center of Gravity Limitation will be ___ to ___ during Takeoff and Landing.

Answer 11

22.5% to 40%

Question 12

What is the maximum speed for Flaps 12?

Answer 12

200 KIAS

Question 13

What is the maximum speed for Flaps 20?

Answer 13

180 KIAS

Question 14

What is the maximum speed for Flaps 32?

Answer 14

160 KIAS

Question 15

What is the maximum lading gear operating speed (Vle=Vlo)?

Answer 15

200 KIAS

Question 16

What is the maximum tire speed, (ground speed)?

Answer 16

165 KTS

Question 17

Engine operating limitations for max takeoff power?

Answer 17

100% at 100%

Question 18

Engine operating limitations for max takeoff TQ?

Answer 18

100%

Question 19

Engine operating limitations for max takeoff ITT?

Answer 19

800*C

Question 20

Engine operating limitations for transient TQ up to 20 seconds?

Answer 20

120%

Question 21

Engine operating limitations for starting ITT from 850C to 950C is limited to ___ seconds.

Answer 21

5

Question 22

Engine operating limitations for transient ITT up to 850*C is limited to ___ seconds.

Answer 22

20

Question 23

Engine operating limitations for transient TQ up to ___ is limited to 20 seconds.

Answer 23

120%

Question 24

CONDITION lever movements from MIN to MAX in less than 2 seconds are prohibited.

Answer 24

True

Question 25

The APU shall not be started above ___ ft pressure altitude.

Answer 25

20,000

Question 26

A restart of the APU is allowed only after a complete roll down of the APU: ___ minutes after the APU MASTER button is selected off.

Answer 26

2

Question 27

Maximum allowable inflight fuel imbalance between contents of left and right wing tank group: ___ lbs.

Answer 27

210

Question 28

Maximum fueling pressure: ___ psi.

Answer 28

50

Question 29

Maximum defueling pressure: ___ psi.

Answer 29

-10

Question 30

Total fuel quantity for automatic pressure refueling is?

Answer 30

7300 lbs

Question 31

Total fuel quantity for gravity or manual pressure refueling is?

Answer 31

7531 lbs

Question 32

Maximum altitude for ECS single pack operation is?

Answer 32

25,000 ft MSL

Question 33

Maximum differential pressure is?

Answer 33

6.9 psi

Question 34

Maximum differential pressure for landing is?

Answer 34

0.40 psi

Question 35

What is the flap setting for takeoff?

Answer 35

12

Question 36

What is the maximum altitude with flaps extended?

Answer 36

18,000 ft MSL

Question 37

Takeoff is prohibited if the BRK TEM HIGH CAUTION message is displayed on the EICAS?

Answer 37

True

Question 38

Maximum Operating Altitude: ___ ft presssure altitude.

Answer 38

31,000

Question 39

Flights above 27,000 ft are limited to less than ___ hours.

Answer 39

3

Question 40

Maximum altitude for takeoff and landing ___ ft.

Answer 40

12,000

Question 41

Maximum demostrated crosswind for takeoff/landing - Dry runway: ___ kt, Wet runway: ___ kt.

Answer 41

21/21

Question 42

Maximum tailwind for takeoff/landing - Dry runway: ___ kt, Wet runway: ___ kt.

Answer 42

10/10

Question 43

Maximum demonstrated wind for taxiing: ___ kt.

Answer 43

40

Question 44

Aircraft, which are to be parked outdoors for long periods or with current or predicted winds of more than 30 KT, must be moored to prevent damage during storms.

Answer 44

True

Question 45

Takeoff and landing with the Environmental Control System (ECS) flow mode set to HIGH is prohibited if the ECS is fed by engine bleed air.

Answer 45

True

Question 46

These color codes are on the displays, EICAS page, and different system pages:

Answer 46

Red: Operation limit/ Amber: Caution range /white/Green: Normal Operating Range

Question 47

Provide a minimum of ___ hours (except ARC at home station and U-28) from arrival at aircraft to stations time for crew members to complete preflight duties, unless preflight duties have been accomplished.

Answer 47

2

Question 48

Spectacles. Crew members that require corrective spectacles while performing aircrew duties must only use Air Force-provided spectacles (T-1). Crew members must also carry a spare set of clear Air Force-provided spectacles while performing aircrew duties (T-1).

Answer 48

True

Question 49

Flashlights (N/A for UAS). Each crew member must have an operable flashlight for night operations (T-2).

Answer 49

True

Question 50

Tobacco use in all forms, including electronic nicotine delivery systems, is prohibited on all aircraft (T-0).

Answer 50

True

Question 51

Crew members must occupy their assigned duty stations from takeoff to landing unless absence is normal in the performance of crew duties or in connection with physiological needs (T-0)

Answer 51

True

Question 52

In the absence of MAJCOM guidance, aircrew of fixed-wing aircraft shall minimize non-essential cockpit conversations and other extraneous activities which could interfere with flight duties when bellow ___ ft. MSL., during critical phases of flight, and during all taxi operations.

Answer 52

10,000

Question 53

Without supplemental oxygen: Flight time between ___ and ___ ft. MSL is unrestricted, but shall not exceed 1 hour if any portion of the flight is conducted in IMC, at nights (with or with our NVD’s), while employing weapons, conducting airdrop, air-refueling, or if performing high-g maneuvers.

Answer 53

10,000/12,500

Question 54

With our supplemental oxygen: Flight time between ___ and ___ ft. MSL shall not exceed 30 minutes.

Answer 54

12,500/14,000

Question 55

Individuals suspected of DCS shall be administered and remain on 100% oxygen (using tight-fitting mad or equivalent) until evaluated by an aviation medical authority (T-1).

Answer 55

True

Question 56

If anyone on the aircraft experiences hypoxia symptoms, descend immediately to the lowest practical altitude and land at a suitable location to obtain medical assistance (T-1)

Answer 56

True

Question 57

If equipped, landing lights should be turned on when takeoff clearance is received, when commencing takeoff roll at tn airport without an operating control tower, or when operating bellow ___ ft MSL within normal MDS- specific operating procedures.

Answer 57

10,000

Question 58

List passengers on a DD Form ___, Passenger Manifest, or a MAJCOM-approved form (T-0). File the manifest and crew list with the flight plan, the passenger service facility, or other responsible agency (T-0). Notify C2 prior to departure if there is a passenger manifest (or crew list) change (T-1).

Answer 58

2131

Question 59

In the absence of MDS-specific guidance, multi-engine aircraft without the availability to in-flight refuel, operated for extended periods over large bodies of water or desolate land areas (outside gliding distance to a suitable landing site) shall calculate and plot on a navigational chart an ETP to a suitable alternate for that mission leg.

Answer 59

True

Question 60

___ takeoff with ice, snow, frost, or other contamination adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces of the aircraft, unless authorized by the flight manual (T-2).

Answer 60

Do not

Question 61

A thin coating of frost is permitted on the fuselage, provided the letting and/or paint lines are visible.

Answer 61

True

Question 62

Do not takeoff where thunderstorms or other hazardous conditions are producing hail, strong winds, gust fronts, heavy rain, lighting, wind shear, or microburst (T-1)

Answer 62

True

Question 63

Do not turn after a takeoff until at least ___ ft. avocet the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway (if visible) unless specifically cleared by the controlling agency, required by a published procedure, or when executing a closed pattern (T-0).

Answer 63

400

Question 64

Crew Complement, The minimum crew complement for flight operations is two pilots and one loadmaster

Answer 64

True

Question 65

The basic FDP is ___ hours providing no training events or maintenance ground runs are accomplished after ___ hours. Fully qualified and current crew members must occupy duty stations past ___ hours.

Answer 65

16/12/12

Question 66

The PIC is the approval authority for operations with degraded equipment within the guidelines of the aircraft Minimum Equipment List (MEL) and Minimum Equipment Subsystem List (MESL). Operating outside of the aircraft MEL or MESL guidelines requires Group/CC or COMAFSOF approval.

Answer 66

True

Question 67

Before Landing Checklist. Aircrew will complete the Before Landing Checklist no lower than ___ ft Above Ground Level (AGL). Aircraft will be established on final, wings level, with a controlled rate of descent in a position to execute a safe landing no lower than ___ ft AGL. (T-2)

Answer 67

200/100

Question 68

All crew members will be at their duty stations during all ___, ___, ___, and ___.

Answer 68

Takeoffs, departures, approaches, and landings.

Question 69

The loadmaster’s primary duty station is the jump seat for critical phases of flight. The AC may assign an alternate duty station for abnormal situations.

Answer 69

True

Question 70

Crew members occupying a primary crew position will have seat belts ___ at all times.

Answer 70

Fastened

Question 71

Floor loading is authorized to support dedicated special operations forces team members or liter medical patients during ___, ___, or ___.

Answer 71

Contingencies, exercises, or training

Question 72

Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ___ ft.

Answer 72

25

Question 73

With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ___ ft.

Answer 73

10

Question 74

Do not taxi aircraft closer than ___ ft to an obstacle.

Answer 74

10

Question 75

A Minimum of ___ ft of runway is required for Flaps 20 touch-and-go landings.

Answer 75

6000

Question 76

A minimum of ___ ft of runway is required for zero-flap or flaps 32 touch-and-go landings.

Answer 76

7000

Question 77

Any crew member will immediately advice the PF when observing unannounced heading deviations greater than 10 degrees, airspeed deception of 10 knots, altitude deviations of 100 ft during approach or 200 ft while en route, or potential terrain or obstruction problems and no attempt is being made by the PF to correct the deviation.

Answer 77

True

Question 78

Engines Running Unload or Offload (ERO). The ___ will direct all unloading or offloading operations using pre-briefed signals. Other qualified crew members may assist the operation; however, the PIC and loadmaster retains overall responsibility for the operation.

Answer 78

Loadmaster

Question 79

Engines Running Unload or Offload (ERO). Passengers will be escorted by the ___ when enplaning or deplaning.

Answer 79

Loadmaster

Question 80

Civilian clothing worn will consist of casual slacks or cargo pants, collared shirt, shoes or hiking boots.

Answer 80

True

Question 81

All aircrew members ___ have flight gloves readily available during all flights

Answer 81

Will

Question 82

Foreign Object Damage (FOD) Hazards. Aircrew will not wear wigs, hairpieces, rings, scarves, ornaments, pins, hair clips or fasteners, or earrings in the aircraft or on the flight line. Crew members ___ remove rings and scarves before performing aircrew duties.

Answer 82

Will

Question 83

Carry a headset and operable flashlight on ___ flights.

Answer 83

All

Question 84

All crew members will carry and preflight their own NVGs prior to flight for mission using NVGs.

Answer 84

True

Question 85

Passengers Briefings. Prior to each flight, the ___ will ensure that all passengers are briefed.

Answer 85

Loadmaster

Question 86

Any mission planned when the lunar illumination is forecast to be less than 10% during the mission will require an additional level of Operational Risk Management (ORM), as determined by unit supplement.

Answer 86

True

Question 87

___ lbs of fuel remaining during day VFR or night VFR conditions when using NVGs.

Answer 87

600

Question 88

___ lbs of fuel remaining during night VFR conditions when not using NVGs or IFR conditions.

Answer 88

900

Question 89

Land with no less than ____ pounds of fuel on board.

Answer 89

450

Question 90

Minimum Fuel is ___ pounds and Emergency Fuel is ___ pounds.

Answer 90

450/250

Question 91

A copy of each mission’s weight and balance will be maintained at the squadron or operations center (as applicable) and carried with the aircrew.

Answer 91

True

Question 92

For en route stops, weight and balance need not be recomputed provided the zero fuel weight has not changed.

Answer 92

True

Question 93

Review the aircraft maintenance forms before applying power to the aircraft or operating aircraft systems.

Answer 93

True

Question 94

Anytime the APU is running, at least ___ or maintainer will remain within the immediate vicinity of the APU fire suppression control panel in order to adequately hear the APU fire bell.

Answer 94

One Crew Member

Question 95

Crew members will wear hearing protection when operating aft of the 3-9 line while the APU is operating.

Answer 95

True

Question 96

Eye protection ___ be used during refueling operations.

Answer 96

Will

Question 97

The loadmaster ___ backup the PNF with the QRH checklist reading/actions as directed, visual confirmation of the memory items, and scanning of engines/passenger compartment.

Answer 97

Will

Question 98

The ___ is the primary crew member responsible for fighting fires in the cabin/cargo area.

Answer 98

Loadmaster

Question 99

If any crew member calls “Go-around”, the PF will immediately apply power to establish a climb that clears all obstacles. Minimum altitude for overflight of aircraft, equipment, or personnel on the runway is 500 ft AGL.

Answer 99

True

Question 100

The ___ will perform servicing when maintenance personnel are not available. When executing refueling operations, loadmasters will wear gloves and eye protection.

Answer 100

Loadmaster

Question 101

All crew members will ensure the aircraft is clean, stow publications, deposit trash in proper receptacles, and account for all personal equipment before leaving the aircraft.

Answer 101

True

Question 102

The AC and the LM will complete a post mission walk around to determine any changes from their pre-mission inspection (i.e., bird strike).

Answer 102

True

Question 103

Mission Radios. ___ leave the aircraft unattended with crypto loaded into the mission radios.

Answer 103

Do not

Question 104

___ will not permit the inspection of their aircraft by officials of any foreign government. If requested to do so, the PIC and crew will deny access and seek aid from the senior AFSOC or USAF representative or US Embassy or consulate within the host nation.

Answer 104

PIC

Question 105

Cargo Documentation. ___ accept hazardous materials unless proper documentation, certification, and identification of cargo are provided.

Answer 105

Do not

Question 106

The aircraft should be ___ during all off-station missions remaining overnight.

Answer 106

Locked

Question 107

Loading and Transfer of Weapons. Load and unload weapons at approved clearing barrels/facilities if available. To transfer a loaded weapon to another crew member, place the weapon on a flat surface. Do not use a hand-to-hand transfer.

Answer 107

True

Question 108

Due to the sensitivity of weapons in foreign countries, crews will keep their weapons inside the aircraft and out of sight of foreign nationals, even if the FCG allows them to be carried outside the aircraft.

Answer 108

True

Question 109

Weapons need not be unloaded before being placed in the gun box.

Answer 109

True

Question 110

Loadmaster in-flight duties also include backing up the ___ on radio traffic, assigned altitude/heading/airspeeds, altimeter settings, Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) alerts, monitoring systems and periodically accomplishing an interior/exterior scan.

Answer 110

Pilots

Question 111

In addition to the responsibilities listed above, the loadmaster is responsible for, supervises, performs, and/or participates in the following: Perform and or read checklists initiated by the PF or PNF.

Answer 111

True

Question 112

Load aircraft in such a manner that emergency exits are available as follows: At least ___ cabin emergency exit is unobstructed.

Answer 112

One

Question 113

Access to the rear of the aircraft and entry into cargo or baggage areas, or emergency exits ___ be maintained without exception. No less than 30 inch by 14 inch space will be provided.

Answer 113

Must

Question 114

___ allow passengers to lounge on or tamper with equipment, cargo, or baggage.

Answer 114

Do not

Question 115

Customs, Immigration, and Agriculture require certain forms for border clearance. The loadmaster will ensure that required forms are contained in the aircraft mission kit.

Answer 115

True

Question 116

Mission permitting, fueling the aircraft in excess of ___ pounds the night prior should be avoided when practical. Thermal expansion overnight sometimes results in excessive venting. Consider this in your mission planning.

Answer 116

6500

Question 117

Loadmasters not current in an event must fly with an Instructor ___ to regain currency. For Loadmasters not current in NVG operations only, an Instructor Pilot may fulfill this requirement.

Answer 117

Loadmaster

Question 118

Crewmembers ___ change between military uniforms and civilian attire during any single flight duty period (FDP).

Answer 118

Will not

Question 119

Crewmembers will not mix military issue clothing items and civilian attire (such as boots, belts, or jackets).

Answer 119

True

Question 120

The Aircraft Commander ___ be notified if any crew member must arrive more than 30 minutes prior to the normal show time.

Answer 120

Should

Question 121

Emergency Ground Evacuation. Conditions permitting, the primary emergency exit for both crew and passengers will be the ___.

Answer 121

Crew entrance door

Question 122

When directed, the ___ should initiate the evacuation of all passengers through the selected emergency exit. The flight crew should be notified by the Loadmaster of the selected exit and any hazards or issues.

Answer 122

Loadmaster

Question 123

A rally point will should be established 300’ at a 45o angle away from the aircraft centerline on the side exited.

Answer 123

True

Question 124

When all personnel are accounted for, determine if it is necessary to ___ separation from the aircraft.

Answer 124

Increase

Question 125

Prior to conducting reverse operations the ___ will conduct a thorough reverse taxi briefing using the 524 SOS IFG.

Answer 125

Loadmaster

Question 126

The Loadmaster will conduct mission communications, as directed by the Aircraft Commander, and relay pertinent information to the pilots when necessary.

Answer 126

True

Question 127

The loadmasters ___ provide torque call-outs starting at 70% TQ.

Answer 127

Will

Question 128

The loadmasters will announce “Torque” over the interphone when the engine torque reaches either 100% TQ or the green torque markers, whichever is lower. The PNF will verbally acknowledge the call. This restriction does not apply to enhanced field performance operations.

Answer 128

True

Question 129

Full stop landings and touch and go landings are limited to a maximum of ___ per flight hour.

Answer 129

10

Question 130

Unless considerations dictate otherwise, the Pilot’s TCAS should be placed in ABOVE and the Copilot’s TCAS will be in BELOW.

Answer 130

True

Question 131

After landing, the Loadmasters ___ remain seated until the aircraft has taxied clear of the runway, at which point the Loadmaster may leave the jump seat to perform duties for the After Landing Checklist.

Answer 131

Will

Question 132

NVG Operations. The first crew member to positively identify an airfield of intended landing should notify the remaining crew by stating “airfield in sight.” Subsequent crew members identifying the airfield should also state “airfield in sight,” and confirm with the first crew member using clock position and approximate distance.

Answer 132

True

Question 133

Any time the aircraft will be unattended by U.S. military or diplomatic personnel, the aircraft will have all emergency exits pinned and the cargo door will be locked or secured with a strap to prohibit entry.

Answer 133

True

Question 134

If the ___ cannot be secured with an approved lock, tamper-evident seals should be utilized. Tamper evident tape or distinctive numbered seals satisfy this requirement.

Answer 134

Crew entry door

Question 135

Maximum weight limit of the aircraft mounted safe is 20 lbs. and lock boxes will not be used to store liquids of any kind.

Answer 135

True

Question 136

Weapons ___ be stored in the aircraft lock box or kept in a holster on the crew member at all times.

Answer 136

Will

Question 137

Maintain a ___ ft circle of safety from all parts of the aircraft except when authorized in certain loading, unloading, or fueling operations. In these cases, always post guides (spotters) and place wheel chocks in position to prevent the vehicle from backing into the aircraft.

Answer 137

10

Question 138

Vehicles must not be driven towards the aircraft when within ___ ft.

Answer 138

25

Question 139

Base fire marshals prohibit smoking on flight lines, on aprons, in hangars, or on aircraft parking areas except in designated areas. At no time is smoking allowed within ___ ft of an aircraft, fuel tanks, fueling operations, or any flammable substance storage facility.

Answer 139

50

Question 140

Do not use any radios on an aircraft that is being fueled. Do not transmit on a high frequency (HF) radio when fueling operations are being performed within ___ ft of the aircraft.

Answer 140

200

Question 141

Aircrew must conduct HAZMAT transportation IAW ___.

Answer 141

AFMAN

Question 142

[Block 20] Aircraft feature overhead storage in all configurations. There are seven overhead storage bins located above the “B seats” (inner right-side seats). A maximum weight of ___ lb can be placed into each overhead storage bin.

Answer 142

75

Question 143

Performing Routine Steward’s Duties: As the most visible crewmember during the flight, your conduct reflects upon the whole crew. So act as if the whole crew’s image depends on your actions.

Answer 143

True

Question 144

MEASUREMENTS AND CONVERSIONS: __________ = PSF.

Answer 144

PSI x 144 = PSF

Question 145

MEASUREMENTS AND CONVERSIONS: __________=50 PSI.

Answer 145

3.45 Bar = 50 PSI

Question 146

CARGO SHALL ONLY BE ATTACHED TO SEAT TRACKS AT THE PAINTED ___ LOCATIONS.

Answer 146

GREEN

Question 147

Zone 1 maximum allowable loading: 75 lb/ft2, ____ lb total.

Answer 147

771

Question 148

The cargo door dimensions are: ___.

Answer 148

55.1in x 36.2in

Question 149

The service door dimensions are: ___.

Answer 149

49.2in x 20in

Question 150

The passenger/crew door dimensions are: ___.

Answer 150

66.9in x 30.2in

Question 151

The dimensions of the two emergency exit hatches are: ___.

Answer 151

35.8in x 20in

Question 152

Pounds per square inch (psi) is derived by dividing the weight of an item by the area bearing on the cargo floor, in square inches (in2).

Answer 152

True

Question 153

___ USE ANY TYPE OF LEVER OR MECHANICAL MEANS TO ASSIST HAND RATCHETING OF THE STRAPS.

Answer 153

DO NOT

Question 154

A MINIMUM OF ___ TURN ON THE SPOOL MUST BE MAINTAINED TO PREVENT THE STRAP FROM COMING UNSECURE.

Answer 154

1/2

Question 155

The aircraft forms include a continuous and permanent record of aircraft weight, moment, and CG position. This is sometimes referred to as Chart C.

Answer 155

True

Question 156

What is the WAM formula?

Answer 156

Weight x Arm = Moment

Question 157

Configuration one consists of ___ passenger seats and approximately 294 ft3 of cargo space.

Answer 157

27

Question 158

Configuration 2 consists of two options, each providing approximately 294 ft3 of cargo space. Option 2A consists of ___ passenger seats plus four litters. Option 2B replaces one litter rack assembly with three rows of dual seats ( ___ seats and 2 litters).

Answer 158

15/21

Question 159

Configuration 3 consists of ___ passenger seats and approximately 470 ft3 of cargo space.

Answer 159

18

Question 160

Configuration 4 consists of up to ___ passenger seats, two litters, and approx. 470 ft3 of cargo space.

Answer 160

12

Question 161

Configuration 5 consists of ___ passenger seats and approximately 971 ft3 of cargo space aft of the smoke barrier at FS 298.

Answer 161

4

Question 162

BLOCK 20 TWO-WAY COMMUNICATION SYSTEM: The aft most plug may be used for reverse taxi operations by the loadmaster. All three plugs in the ceiling are tied to the observers ICS system.

Answer 162

True

Question 163

The C-146A utility seats are similar to commercial aviation-style seats. A single seat weighs ___ lb and a double seat weighs ___ lb.

Answer 163

19.8/34.4

Question 164

A folded single seat has a weight bearing capacity of ___ lbs.

Answer 164

150

Question 165

A folded double seat has a weight bearing capacity of ___ lbs.

Answer 165

200

Question 166

A double litter stacking system weighs ___ lbs.

Answer 166

133

Question 167

Aisle clearance at its smallest point is ___ in.

Answer 167

20.7

Question 168

[Block 20] Two IV hangars are provided for the litter patients. They are placarded “For IV Use Only” and have a ___ lb IV bag maximum limit.

Answer 168

5

Question 169

[Block 20] The medical bag together with its contents is limited to ___ lb.

Answer 169

100

Question 170

The APU bleed air is fed into the cross-bleed line through a check valve and supplies the ECS ___. The APU bleed air supply is controlled by an APU BLEED switch/light located on the ECS control panel.

Answer 170

Packs

Question 171

The ACP’s are divided into two groups: Flight Deck Croup, Cabin Group. ACP 1, 2 and 5 are in the Flight Deck Group; ACP’s 3, 4 and 6 are in the Cabin Group.

Answer 171

True

Question 172

The flight controls consists of the following components and subsystems:

Answer 172

Ailerons and Trim Tab, Rudder and Trim Tab, Elevator and Trim Tab, Flaps, Ground Spoilers, Gust Locks and Damper, Stall Warning and Prevention.

Question 173

Fuel transfer within each tank group is made by ___ pumps in the inner and the outer wing tanks. These pumps supply fuel to the feeder tank to keep in in the full state during aircraft operation.

Answer 173

jet transfer

Question 174

When the left or right electrical booster pump (ELPMP) AUTO button is in normal mode (dark), the electrical booster pump is triggered to activate automatically if there is a failure in the jet booster pump (JETPMP).

Answer 174

True

Question 175

___ fuel is taken from the right wing tank group, via the tapping in the main engine cross-feed pipeline.

Answer 175

APU

Question 176

A system of float-operated manual magnetic indicators (magna-sticks) can be used on the ground when no ___ power is available to determine the quantity of fuel in the tanks.

Answer 176

Electrical

Question 177

The fuel system receives electrical power from the 28 VDC ESSENTIAL BUS, DC HOT BUS 2, 28 VDC BUS 1, and 28 VDC BUS 2. The circuit breakers of the fuel system are installed on the ___ circuit breaker panel in the flight compartment.

Answer 177

Overhead

Question 178

The left and right wing tank groups can be gravity refueled through a filler well with lockable cap in the inner fuel tank.

Answer 178

True

Question 179

The ___ valves allow the fuel to flow from the inner and the outer tanks into the feeder tank. They do not permit the fuel to flow back again.

Answer 179

Flapper

Question 180

There are ___ drain valves in each fuel tank group. The drain valves are provided for draining condensed water and fuel samples.

Answer 180

5

Question 181

The inner and outer tanks of each wing tank group are vented to the atmosphere by the following components:

Answer 181

Main Vent Line, Vent Float Valves, Vent Tank, Flush Inlet and Overboard Vent Line.

Question 182

The aircraft hydraulic system consists of the following four:

Answer 182

Main Hydraulic System, Standby Hydraulic System, Auxiliary System, Indicating
System.

Question 183

The main system supplies hydraulic pressure to the following consumers:

Answer 183

Landing Gear, Main Landing Gear Wheel Brakes, Emergency and Parking Brake, Trailing Edge Flaps, Nose Wheel Steering, Roll Spoilers, Ground Spoilers.

Question 184

The de-icer boots are externally bonded into a recessed portion of the leading edges on the wing and the vertical and horizontal stabilizer.

Answer 184

True

Question 185

The propeller de-icing system prevents or eliminates ice formation on the propellers. This is done by ___ heating de-icer boots on each blade.

Answer 185

Electrically