C-146A SMA MQF SEP 2015 Flashcards

1
Q

What is NOT a condition of a Chapter 3 movement?

A

General

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2
Q

On the segregation table, the letter “O” indicated what?

A

Must not be loaded together unless separated by 88 inches in all directions

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3
Q

Where can the crash axe be found?

A

In the floor step

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4
Q

The following emergency equipment is located with the crash axe:

A

Fire extinguisher and PBE

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5
Q

What is the maximum take off weight?

A

30843

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6
Q

what is the maximum ramp weight?

A

31019

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7
Q

The reference datum line is located _____ inches forward of the tip of the radome?

A

59.1

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8
Q

What is the allowable CG range at MAX Takeoff weight?

A

22.5% to 40%

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9
Q

What is the maximum for Flaps 12?

A

200 KIAS

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10
Q

What is the maximum speed for Flaps 20?

A

180 KIAS

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11
Q

What is the maximum speed for Flaps 32?

A

160 KIAS

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12
Q

What is the maximum speed for operating the landing gear?

A

200 KIAS

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13
Q

What is the maximum tire speed?

A

165 KIAS

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14
Q

What are the engine operating limitations for max takeoff power?

A

100% - 100%

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15
Q

What are the engine operating limitations for max takeoff TQ?

A

100%

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16
Q

Where is the cargo area floor limitation limited to 75 lbs/ft2?

A

Zone 10 & Aft Stowage

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17
Q

Where is the cargo area floor limitation limited to 82 lbs/ft2?

A

Zones 1-9

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18
Q

What is the engine operating limitation for max takeoff ITT?

A

800

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19
Q

What is the engine operating limitation for transient torque up to 20 seconds?

A

120

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20
Q

Starting ITT is limited from 850C to 950C for ___ seconds

A

5

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21
Q

Transient ITT up to 850*C is limited to ____ seconds

A

20

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22
Q

What is the maximum operating limiting speed?

A

270 KIAS

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23
Q

The APU shall not be started above _____ft. pressure altitude

A

20000

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24
Q

A restart of the APU is allowed only after a complete roll down of the APU; ___ munites after the APU MASTER button is selected off.

A

2

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25
Q

The maximum allowable inflight fuel imbalance between the left and tight wing tank group is ____lbs.

A

210

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26
Q

The maximum refueling pressure is ____ PSI.

A

50

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27
Q

The maximum defueling pressure is ____ PSI.

A

-10

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28
Q

The maximum fuel quantity for automatic pressure refueling is?`

A

7300 lbs

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29
Q

The maximum fuel quantity for manual/gravity refueling is?

A

7531 lbs

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30
Q

What is the maximum altitude for single ECS pack operations?

A

25000 ft MSL

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31
Q

An inflight start of the APU IS permitted with one or both main generations inoperative.

A

False

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32
Q

With surface winds above ___ knots, taxi with the CONDITION levers in the HIGH TAXI position

A

25

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33
Q

When completing the 781, the takeoff time is logged when the aircraft begins to move forward on takeoff roll.

A

True

34
Q

What is the flap setting for takeoff?

A

12

35
Q

What is the maximum altitude with flaps extended?

A

18000 ft MSL

36
Q

Takeoff is prohibited if the BRK TEMP HIGH CAUTION message is displayed on the EICAS

A

True

37
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude?

A

31000 ft

38
Q

Flights above 27000 ft are limited to less than ___ hours.

A

3

39
Q

What is the maximum altitude for takeoff and landing?

A

12000

40
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff/landing?

A

21

41
Q

What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff/landing?

A

10

42
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated wind for taxiing?

A

40

43
Q

Aircraft which are to be parked outdoors for long periods, or with current or predicted winds of more than ___, must be moored to prevent damage during storms.

A

30 knots

44
Q

Takeoff and landing with the Environmental Control System (ECS) flow mode set to HIGH is prohibited if the ECS is fed by the engine bleed air.

A

True

45
Q

These color codes are used on the displays, EICAS page, and difference system pages:

A

Red: Operation Limit/Amber: Caution Range/White/Green: Normal Operating Range

46
Q

What is the maximum flight hours that can be logged in 30 consecutive days?

A

125

47
Q

What is the maximum flight hours that can be logged in 7 consecutive days?

A

56

48
Q

Crewmembers that require corrective spectacles while performing aircrew duties must only use AF provided spectacles. Crewmembers must also carry a spare set of clear AF provided spectacles.

A

True

49
Q

When authorized, the PIC may extend the FDP a maximum of ___ hours to compensate for mission delays

A

2 hours

50
Q

Tobacco use in all forms, including electronic nicotine delivery systems, is prohibited on all aircraft.

A

True

51
Q

Crewmembers must occupy their assigned duty stations from takeoff to landing unless absence is normal in the performance of crew duties or in connection with physiological needs.

A

True

52
Q

For missions that keep an aircrew off station 16 hours of more, compute post mission crew rest at the rate of ___ hour for each ___ hours off station/up to ___ hours.

A

1/3/96

53
Q

Without supplemental oxygen: Flight time between ____ and ____ ft. MSL is unrestricted, but shall not exceed 1 hr if any portion of the flight is conducted in IMC, at night (with or without NVG’s) while employing weapons, conducting airdrop, air refueling, or if performing high-G maneuvers.

A

10000/12500

54
Q

Without supplemental oxygen, flight time between ___ and ____ft MSL shall not exceed 30 minutes.

A

12500/14000

55
Q

Individuals suspected of DCS shall be administered and remain on 100% oxygen (using that fitting mask or equivalent) until by an aviation medical authority

A

True

56
Q

IF anyone experiences hypoxia symptoms, descend immediately to the lowest practical altitude and land at a suitable location to obtain medical assistance.

A

True

57
Q

If equipped, landing lights should be turned on when takeoff clearance is receive, when commencing takeoff roll at an airport without an operating control tower, or when operating bellow ____ft MSL within normal MDS specific operating procedures

A

10000

58
Q

List passengers on a DD Form ____, Passenger Manifest, or a MAJCOM approved form

A

2131

59
Q

Aircrew members will not fly within ____ hours after donating blood, plasma, or bone marrow

A

72

60
Q

_____ takeoff with ice, snow, frost, or other contamination adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces of the aircraft, unless authorized by the flight manual.

A

DO NOT

61
Q

A thin coating of frost is permitted on the fuselage, provided the lettering and/or paint lines are visible.

A

True

62
Q

Do not takeoff where thunderstorms or other hazardous conditions are producing hail, strong winds, sut fronts, heavy rain, lighting, wind shear, or microbursts.

A

True

63
Q

Do not turn after a takeoff until at least ____ft above the Departure End of the Runway (DER) elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of he runway (if visible) unless specifically cleared by the controlling agency, required by a published procedure, or when executing a closed pattern

A

400

64
Q

The minimum crew complement for flight operations is the two pilots and one loadmaster.

A

True

65
Q

The basic FDP is ___ hours providing no training events or maintenance ground runs are accomplished after ___ hours. Fully qualified and current crew members must occupy duty stations past ___ hours.

A

16/12/12

66
Q

The PIC is the approval authority for operations with degraded equipment wishing the guidelines of the aircraft Minimum Equipment List (MEL) and Minimum Equipment Subsystems (MESL)

A

True

67
Q

What passenger eligibility code is the least restrictive?

A

P5

68
Q

Aircrew will complete the Before Landing Checklist no lower than ___ Feet AGL. Aircraft will be established on final, wings level, with a controlled rate of descent in a position to execute a safe landing ____ ft AGL.

A

200/100

69
Q

All crew members will be at their duty stations doing all _____, _____, _____ and _____.

A

Takeoffs, departures, approaches, and landings.

70
Q

The loadmaster’s primary duty station is the jump seat for critical phases of flight. The AC may assign an alternate duty station for abnormal situations.

A

True

71
Q

Floor loading is authorized to support dedicated special operations forces team members or littered medical patients during _____, _____, _____.

A

Contingencies, exercises, or training.

72
Q

With out wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at lest ____ ft.

A

25

73
Q

With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at lest _____ ft.

A

10

74
Q

The minimum runway width for normal operations is _____ ft.

A

35

75
Q

The minimum runway length for Flaps 20 touch and go landings is _____ ft.

A

6000

76
Q

The minimum runway length for Flaps 0 and 32 touch and go landings is _____ ft.

A

7000

77
Q

Any crew member will immediately advice the PF when observing unannounced heading deviations greater than 10 degrees, airspeed deviations of 10 knots, altitude deviations of 100 ft. during approach or 200 ft. while enroute, or potential terrain or obstruction problems and no attempt is being made by the PF to correct the deviation.

A

True

78
Q

Who retains overall responsibility during Engine Running Onload/Offload operations?

A

PIC and Loadmaster

79
Q

During reverse taxi, stop no less then _____ feet from an obstruction even if using wing walkers.

A

25

80
Q

AMP-3 markings will consist of a box marked by four lights at the corners of the touchdown zone and a strobe will mark the end of the usable LZ surface or distance. The box length should be _____ feet for both short field and non-short field procedures.

A

300