C-17 MQF April 2016 Instructor Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in C-17 MQF April 2016 Instructor Deck (211):
1

1. To determine an individual aircraft’s maximu m payload weight:
A. Add Operating Weight to Maximum Ramp Weight
B. AddOperatingWeighttoMaximum ZeroFuelWeight
C. Subtract Operating W eight from Maximum Zero Fuel Weight
D. Subtract Operating W eight from Maximum Ramp Weight

C. Subtract Operating W eight from Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

2

2. Low EGT margin engines are more susceptible to ENG EGT X alerts on the WAP when OAT is at or above _________ and thrust is at or near maximum thrust?
A. 24 °C (75 °F)
B. 20 °C (68 °F)
C. 18 °C (65 °F)
D. 27 °C (81 °F)

A. 24 °C (75 °F)

3

3. The AP has two modes of operation; __________, and __________.
A. TAKEOFF, MSN
B. normal, AP DEGRADED
C. standard, decluttered
D. MSN, PROF

B. normal, AP DEGRADED

4

4. AP DEGRADED mode will not engage below Vmma with invalid aircraft weights (both MC’s inop, etc).
A. True
B. False

B. False

5

5. THRUST LOSS annunciator lights (amber) will illuminate in flight when thrust of a single engine is __ ____ less than the average EPR of the remaining engines.
A. 0.10 EPR
B. 0.15 EPR
C. 0.20 EPR
D. 0.25 EPR

B. 0.15 EPR

6

6. In the event of boost pump failure, fuel can be suction fed by the engine driven fuel pump at ____ thrust rating up to an altitude of ____ feet and at a pitch angle no greater than 21.5 degrees.
A. MAX; 20,000
B. INT; 20,000
C. MAX; 10,000
D. INT; 10,000

C. MAX; 10,000

7

7. The engine starting system can be used in flight as well as on the ground.
A. True
B. False

A. True

8

8. The starter is designed to start the engine with normal starting loads. Excessive loads are applied when the engine driven hydraulic pumps are on. A ______ may result if the pumps are on during engine start.
A. Hot Start
B. Hung Start
C. Cold Start
D. Buddy Start

B. Hung Start

9

9. Engine Start Buttons: The button will stay in until engine N2 RPM reaches approximately _____ percent.
A. 18
B. 30
C. 51
D. 55

C. 51

10

10. The APU AUTO SHUT DN ORIDE switchlight will override all automatic shutdowns except ______.
A. an indicated Fire or overspeed
B. a fire and high EGT
C. High EGT and overspeed
D. Low oil press and high EGT

A. an indicated Fire or overspeed

11

11. To trigger an engine or APU fire annunciation,
A. Both loops must be subjected simultaneously to fire for the warning system to be energized.
B. Only one of the loops must be exposed to a fire
C. The fire detector control unit must be heated to a specific temperature and then the unit will energize the warning system
D. The entire length of the sensing element must be exposed to direct flame

A. Both loops must be subjected simultaneously to fire for the warning system to be energized.

12

12. The cargo compartment APU warning horn can be inhibited during ground operations by the ____ switch on the Entrance Light Panel.
A. OFF/ARM
B. AGENT DISCH
C. ORIDE
D. INTL HORN INHIBIT

D. INTL HORN INHIBIT

13

13. If FIREX AGENT DISCHARGE 1 POWER CB on the _________ is open, the ___________ will be
inoperative.
A. overhead panel, APU Fire Agent DISCH switch
B. right EPC, APU warning system
C. left EPC, the APU warning system
D. overhead panel, the APU fire and overspeed CAWS aural warning

A. overhead panel, APU Fire Agent DISCH switch

14

14. If an individual fuel tank indicator on the overhead is inoperative, the totalizer shows
A. Correct total fuel
B. A blank window
C. A series of dashes
D. Estimated fuel

A. Correct total fuel

15

15. When fuel quantities drop below approximately ____ lbs for the inboard tanks and ____ lbs for the outboard tanks, the respective transfer pumps become uncovered and ineffective.
A. 37,400; 24,500
B. 28,000; 12,000
C. 16,000; 4,000
D. 27,500; 16,000

B. 28,000; 12,000

16

16. With no source of electrical power to the aircraft and the battery switch OFF, only the __________ bus is powered since it is connected directly to the batteries.
A. AC Transfer
B. Battery
C. Battery Direct
D. DC Transfer

C. Battery Direct

17

17. The electrical system is normally operated in the ____ mode with generators No. 1 and No. 2 supplying left side
power and generators No. 3 and No. 4 supplying right side power.
A. Parallel
B. Alternate parallel
C. Split-parallel
D. Linked

C. Split-parallel

18

18. The battery switch must be ON to provide battery power to the _____.
A. Transformer rectifiers
B. Emergency buses
C. Transfer buses
D. AC buses

B. Emergency buses

19

19. As a minimum, the batteries are designed to provide emergency power for up to _____ of operation.
A. 15 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. One half-hour
D. One hour

C. One half-hour

20

20. The aircraft batteries provide power to the __________ which provides power to the AC Emergency Bus.
A. Static inverter
B. Transformer rectifier
C. AC cross tie relay
D. Generator control unit

A. Static inverter

21

21. OBIGGS II: If there is a total loss of electrical power during high pressure pneumatic air supply operation, ___________ may result. Immediately shut down the pneumatic cart.
A. OBBIGS manifold failure
B. Fuselage fire
C. A hung start
D. Wing manifold failure

B. Fuselage fire

22

22. The _________ normally supplies conditioned air to the flight compartment, crew rest area, and avionics cooling system.
A. Trim air regulator
B. Ram air duct
C. Left air conditioning pack
D. Right air conditioning pack

C. Left air conditioning pack

23

23. If flight through contaminated air is experienced with the air conditioning pack(s) operating, the conditioned airflow used for avionics cooling _____.
A. Is unaffected
B. Will be contaminated
C. Is filtered
D. Is partially filtered

B. Will be contaminated

24

24. If ambient temperatures are above _____, avionics cooling air flow must be supplied from conditioned air augmentation (APU or air conditioner ground unit).
A. 100 degrees F
B. 95 degrees F
C. 90 degrees F
D. 85 degrees F

C. 90 degrees F

25

25. (Pressurization) If the primary controller malfunctions or fails, the
A. system can be semi-automatically controlled during climbs and descents
B. system must be manually controlled
C. monitor controller automatically performs the function of the primary controller
D. other automatic controller must be manually selected

C. monitor controller automatically performs the function of the primary controller

26

26. The cabin pressurization SEMI mode controls cabin pressure according to
A. The baro-corrected altitude set in the LDG ALT-FT display window
B. An optimum schedule determined by the A/PDMC
C. A schedule of 3000 ft. AGL along the mission computer flight plan
D. The altitude set in the window on the AFCS panel adjusted for terrain elevation from the NAV database

A. The baro-corrected altitude set in the LDG ALT-FT display window

27

27. If the cabin pressure differential exceeds 8.2 delta P, the _____ will automatically open.
A. Negative pressure relief valves
B. Cabin pressure relief valves
C. FEDS hatches
D. Maintenance/ditching hatch

B. Cabin pressure relief valves

28

28. A self-contained ice detector located in the No. _____ engine inlet detects ice formation on a sensing element within the detector strut.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

B. 2

29

29. Engine anti-ice provides icing protection to the engine fan blades.
A. True
B. False

B. False

30

30. The primary purpose of the transfer pump is to _____ in the event of No 2 or No 3 engine loss
A. Assist in cargo door/ramp closing
B. Assist in landing gear retraction
C. A & B
D. None of the above

C. A & B

31

31. When the RAT is the sole means of hydraulic pressure, do not slow below ____ as the RAT may stall and result in loss of aircraft control
A. 150 KCAS
B. 200 KCAS
C. 180 KCAS
D. 130 KCAS

D. 130 KCAS

32

32. The HSC determines the on demand pump operation in the following sequence of priority for hydraulic system No. 3
A. Primary, secondary, XFER, AUX pump
B. Primary, secondary, AUX, XFER pump
C. Primary, secondary, XFER, AUX pump, RAT
D. Primary, secondary, XFER pump, RAT

A. Primary, secondary, XFER, AUX pump

33

33. If steering commands from the tillers and rudder pedals are in disagreement
A. The rudder command will be overridden.
B. The tiller command will be overridden.
C. The system blends the rates to provide steering
D. The greater command is used

A. The rudder command will be overridden.

34

34. If the nose gear torque link is disconnected:
A. Rudder pedals will not move
B. Nose wheel steering is not available
C. The nosewheel will not center upon retraction
D. EOCS is not available

B. Nose wheel steering is not available

35

35. Which hydraulic system powers the normal brakes?
A. No. 1
B. No. 2
C. No. 3
D. No. 4

B. No. 2

36

36. If ground speed on the MFD ND appears excessive:
A. No action is required
B. All four IRU's should be realigned if on the ground
C. In-flight turn off the IRU being used for navigation
D. Re-align only the IRU in large font on the appropriate NAV SENSORS page

B. All four IRU's should be realigned if on the ground

37

37. In the event of large disparity between the IRU ground speed and the anti-skid brake controller sensed ground speed, braking capability will be reduced. If in flight, accomplish the landing using ______.
A. Normal procedures
B. One brake inoperative procedures
C. Landing with Erroneous Ground Speed procedure.
D. Anti-skid inop procedures

C. Landing with Erroneous Ground Speed procedure.

38

38. Pitch Reference Trim is available _____.
A. Only with APPR mode engaged
B. With the FCS ACTR Panel PITCH TRIM switch in EFCS
C. With the FCS ACTR Panel PITCH TRIM switch in MECH
D. B & C

D. B & C

39

39. If the ________________ fails, automatic ground spoilers may not deploy during a rejected takeoff or subsequent landing.
A. TOGA switch
B. Speedbrake/DLC switch
C. GND SPLR/LAPES switch
D. Autothrottle disengage button

C. GND SPLR/LAPES switch

40

40. Which of the following will not disengage the autopilot?
A. Movement of the mechanical STAB TRIM handles
B. Retracting slats while the AFCS is engaged in TOGA mode
C. Aircraft exceeds 37 degree angle of bank
D. Actuating the flap index switch before engaging Approach Mode

D. Actuating the flap index switch before engaging Approach Mode

41

41. In frontside flight the default or basic mode for the AFCS pitch axis is the ______ mode.
A. Altitude select or capture
B. Vertical Speed/Altitude Hold
C. Speed Hold or select
D. Split axis or turbulence

B. Vertical Speed/Altitude Hold

42

42.The Alpha Speed function provides flight guidance and/or control to limit minimum airspeed to configuration Alpha Speed, which provides safe buffet or stall margin for the existing aircraft configuration (flaps, slats, thrust level, weight and altitude).
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A. TRUE

43

43. You may modify an RNAV or GPS route waypoint's lateral definition after loading from the WWNDB.
A. True
B. False

B. False

44

44. The F/D Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) submode is engaged by pressing the ____ when a TCAS
Resolution Advisory (RA) is present and the A/R mode is not engaged.
A. PPI button on the MFD
B. AP disengage switch on either control stick
C. TCAS button on the MCK
D. TOGA button

B. AP disengage switch on either control stick

45

45. When the FPV drift angle exceeds the limit of the HUD or PFD field of view, pitch information from the flashing FPV is __________ and only the _________ FPV symbol will provide correct vertical path information.
A. Unusable, caged
B. Useable, actual
C. Unusable, actual
D. Useable, caged

A. Unusable, caged

46

46. If entering a tactical environment immediately after takeoff, TACTICAL can be selected on the GPWS/TAWS CONTROL page, but the displays will not switch to tactical until the _____.
A. Aircraft is farther than 15nm from the runway
B. Aircraft is above 1500 feet AGL
C. Aircraft is above 2500 feet AGL
D. Either A or B

D. Either A or B

47

47. There are _____ smoke detectors located on the aircraft.
A. 6
B. 12
C. 22
D. 34

C. 22

48

48. A target aircraft is within 6NM and could be potentially hazardous. This is _____.
A. Other Traffic
B. Proximate Traffic
C. A Traffic Advisory (TA)
D. A Resolution Advisory (RA)

C. A Traffic Advisory (TA)

49

49. The PPI SKE and ND MAP formats depict only _____ altitudes for TCAS traffic.
A. Absolute
B. Actual
C. AGL
D. Relative

D. Relative

50

50. On the CMDS, _____ mode operates the same as the AUTO mode.
A. STBY
B. MAN
C. SEMI
D. BYP

C. SEMI

51

51. (IRCM) The laser is invisible and can injure eyes or skin within _____ feet for a single aft turret or ____ feet if the two forward turrets are installed.
A. 150; 175
B. 162; 185
C. 175; 197
D. 187; 200

D. 187; 200

52

52. The Stall Warning System provides stick shaker and aural “STALL” alerts to pilots when flight conditions (airspeed) approach what range?
A. .95-1.05 Vs
B. 1.05-1.15 Vs
C. Vmma – Vne
D. 1.33-1.433 Vs

B. 1.05-1.15 Vs

53

53. Which action will not re-arm spoilers for RTO mode during touch and go landings?
A. Moving all four throttles to the idle reverse detent
B. Momentarily pressing the TOGA switch
C. Advancing at least three throttle levers past a threshold of 60 degrees
D. Positioning the flap/slat handle to any new detent

A. Moving all four throttles to the idle reverse detent

54

54. Block 17: The MC can only perform a predictive RAIM (P-RAIM) check for destination waypoints that have a(n) _________.
A. WWNDB instrument approach procedure loaded
B. manually entered FAF
C. WAAS transmitter
D. fixed or advisory time constraint

D. fixed or advisory time constraint

55

55. (APS150) What mode would be selected on the Radar Control Panel to see rainfall inside/behind areas of turbulence?
A. GAIN MAX
B. MAP1
C. WX AUTO
D. WX MAN

D. WX MAN

56

56. The ramp blowdown system may not function if the weight on the ramp exceeds ____ pounds.
A. 5,250
B. 10,275
C. 15,750
D. 20,750

D. 20,750

57

57. When in VOR and TAC modes, the MC uses a _____ delay to compensate for temporary signal irregularities while transiting the ground station’s cone of confusion. During the delay, the MC uses its last valid data from the navaid for guidance, allowing the VOR or TAC to remain engaged.
A. 10 second
B. 30 second
C. 60 second
D. 5 minute

B. 30 second

58

58. When the CREW OXY LOW message illuminates on the WAP, it indicates
A. Oxygen quantity remaining in the passenger converter is 2.5 liters or less
B. Oxygen quantity is less than 7.5 liters or supply pressure is below 60 +/- 5 psi
C. Oxygen quantity remaining in the crew converter is 2.5 liters or less
D. Oxygen quantity is less than 5 liters or supply pressure is below 60 +/- 5 psi

D. Oxygen quantity is less than 5 liters or supply pressure is below 60 +/- 5 psi

59

59. The passenger oxygen system contains one ____ liter passenger converter and one ____ liter auxiliary converter.
A. 75; 75
B. 75; 25
C. 25; 75
D. 25; 25

A. 75; 75

60

60. APS-150 Weather Radar: For an aircraft cruising at or above 29,000 feet, when will existing weather be depicted as non-relevant (striped)?
A. When actual weather is not within +/- 4,000 feet relative to aircraft’s actual/projected altitude
B. When actual weather is below 25,000 feet
C. When a MC altitude constraint is above actual weather
D. A & B

D. A & B

61

61. What is the total number of life rafts installed in the FEDS areas?
A. Five
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

C. Three

62

62. There are normally ____ first aid kits installed on the aircraft with provisions for ____ total.
A. 9; 18
B. 6; 18
C. 6; 26
D. 6; 102

C. 6; 26

63

63. There are a total of _____ fire extinguishers onboard the aircraft with ____ in the cockpit and ____ in the crew rest area.
A. 6; 2; 1
B. 9; 2; 1
C. 9; 2; 2
D. 12; 2; 2

B. 9; 2; 1

64

64. L or R FUEL HEAVY is displayed on the WAP at _________ pound wing differential.
A. 4,000
B. 12,000
C. 8,000
D. 28,000

C. 8,000

65

65. During high ambient air temperatures and reverse idle conditions, primary TOLD and allowable cargo load calculations may be overly restrictive. Use secondary TOLD to compare against primary TOLD to determine if allowable cargo load is overly restrictive.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A. TRUE

66

66. (OBIGGS II) If the bleed air manifold is pressurized with any WCC-OBGxxxx fault displayed, depressurize it immediately and accomplish the __________ in Section III.
A. OBIGGS Filter Fire Hazard
B. Manifold Failure
C. OBIGGS MCD
D. Avionics Overheat

A. OBIGGS Filter Fire Hazard

67

67. Do not change the ENGINE IGNITION source during engine start. Switching sources may result in a
A. Hot Start
B. Hung Start
C. Tailpipe fire
D. Sheared starter

C. Tailpipe fire

68

68. Select engine anti-ice on when temperature (SAT) is ____ degrees C or below and dew point and temperature are within ____ degrees C of each other or dew point is not available.
A. 4; 2
B. 6; 3
C. 5; 2
D. 7; 3

B. 6; 3

69

69. For an RSC greater than _____ and an RCR less than _____, the actual runway required for takeoff/landing could exceed runway available.
A. .01, 12
B. .01, 23
C. .00, 5
D. .00, 12

D. .00, 12

70

70. The aircraft is capable of backing up a ____ % slope at a gross weight of ____ lbs (sea level, 90ºF).
A. 1; 502,100
B. 1.5; 585,000
C. 2; 502,100
D. 2; 586,000

D. 2; 586,000

71

71. To prevent damage to the reverse interlock solenoids, do not move the throttle levers beyond the reverse idle detent until ____.
A. The pilot not flying says it’s OK
B. Either the REV indication is illuminated on the MFD's or until the solenoids are heard to release
C. Betty says "thrust reversers deployed"
D. The nose wheel makes contact with the runway

B. Either the REV indication is illuminated on the MFD's or until the solenoids are heard to release

72

72. Abrupt use of brakes when backing the aircraft should be avoided to prevent
A. The aircraft from setting on its tail
B. Brake failure
C. Damage to main landing gear tires
D. Spatial disorientation

A. The aircraft from setting on its tail

73

73. Do not attempt takeoff with any hydraulic reservoir temperature indicating less than ___ degrees C. Low rudder temperature indicates insufficient rate of rudder deflection to correct for an engine failure on takeoff.
A. -17
B. 0
C. 7
D. -7

C. 7

74

74. The best climb gradient speeds are __________ for 0/EXT, and __________ for UP/RET.
A. VMCG, VNE
B. VMCO, VMFR
C. VMFR/VMMA, VMSR/VMMA
D. VR, VCEF

C. VMFR/VMMA, VMSR/VMMA

75

75. Pressing SC ZERO whenever the IRUs are in the ON position erases encryption keys, almanac and position information, forcing the __________ to reacquire. It will take much longer than normal on the next power up for the _________ to synchronize.
A. IRUs, IRUs
B. RADIO UPDATE, IRUs
C. (C)GPS, (C)GPS
D. (M)GPS, (M)GPS

D. (M)GPS, (M)GPS

76

76. If a GPWS/TAWS aural or visual warning is received during an approach in Instrument Meteorological
Conditions (IMC), ____. Exceptions will be annotated in command guidance.
A. Execute a missed approach or go around
B. Check radar altimeter and continue if at a safe altitude
C. Check GPWS since it may be malfunctioning
D. Confirm your position with approach control and continue if you are on a published segment of the approach

A. Execute a missed approach or go around

77

77. Approach to Assault Landing: The PM will advise the PF when passing through ____ feet and ____ feet AGL.
A. 300; 75
B. 100; 60
C. 100; 50
D. 300; 50

D. 300; 50

78

78. On Extended Range aircraft with more than ____ pounds total fuel, delay braking until nose gear touchdown
unless there is less than ____ pounds of fuel in the four extended range compartments combined.
A. 185,000; 1,000
B. 185,000; 4,000
C. 165,000; 1,000
D. 165,000; 4,000

D. 165,000; 4,000

79

79. If AGS does not deploy on landing, DLC spoilers are available to manually deploy ____ of AGS effectiveness.
A. 25 percent
B. 5 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 15 percent

A. 25 percent

80

80. The Standard Departure Profile uses a select MC data element, __________, and aero performance data, rather than an MC calculated solution, to validate the aircraft flight path meets or exceeds a given climb gradient when flown as published.
A. CLB RATE / ALT 4 ENG
B. CFL
C. MC COF: ACT
D. MC COF: REQ

C. MC COF: ACT

81

81. If APU is inoperative, ensure either a __________ is in place or __________connected before shutting down the last engine.
A. loadmaster, air conditioning cart
B. maintenance crew chief, ground power unit
C. fire guard/fire extinguisher, air cart
D. fire truck, lavatory service vehicle

C. fire guard/fire extinguisher, air cart

82

82. Operating engines in idle reverse thrust for extended periods during high OAT's may cause one or more engine FIREX bottles to discharge uncommanded.
A. True
B. False

A. True

83

83. If any doors/hatches are opened, or if an immediate takeoff is not planned, the __________ or _________ checklist is required in lieu of the Full Stop Taxi-Back Checklist.
A. En Route Stop, Before Leaving Aircraft
B. Before Takeoff, Engine Shutdown
C. Operational Stop, After Landing
D. Cockpit Pre-flight, Before Taxi

C. Operational Stop, After Landing

84

84. If the starter valve will not close after engine start (light remains illuminated more than 30 seconds after the button pops out), which of the following actions could result in a starter failure?
A. Selecting another ignition system
B. Pulling out the starter valve push-button
C. Shutting down the engine after removing the bleed air supply
D. Shutting down the engine before removing the bleed air supply

D. Shutting down the engine before removing the bleed air supply

85

85. Delay engine starter re-engagement for ____ once N2 RPM indication is lost from the MFD engine display to ensure that engine rotation has stopped.
A. 20 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 40 seconds
D. 1 minute

C. 40 seconds

86

86. (IRCM) Ground operations longer than ____ minutes with the outside air temperature above 38 degrees C / 100 degrees F may result in TX x FAIL and degraded IRCM performance.
A. 25
B. 10
C. 5
D. 60

A. 25

87

87. If AN/ARC-210 COM radio prolonged loss of contact (PLOC) is suspected or experienced while flying in
Europe, which of the following actions should you take?
A. Immediately squawk 7600
B. Disable squelch
C. Request relay from another aircraft and/or attempt ATC contact on Guard using any radio
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

88

88. In addition to an engine fire, disintegration, seizure or uncontrollable overspeed, the ENGINE FIRE/EMERGENCY ENGINE SHUTDOWN Checklist will be run with _____
A. Severe compressor stall or engine vibration
B. Engine/pylon fuel leak
C. Uncontrollable EGT
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

89

89. If an engine reverts to the N2 mode, all engine responses are normal except _____.
A. No reverse thrust is available during landing ground roll
B. Touch and go landings are prohibited
C. That no overspeed protection is provided
D. The engine will lock 85% N2

C. That no overspeed protection is provided

90

90. If the N1 RPM indication drops to zero or all displays are blank, __________.
A. The EEC has failed
B. This could indicate a catastrophic engine failure
C. Shutdown and restart the engine to reset the EEC
D. The EEC is running an internal test and the displays will return in 60 seconds

B. This could indicate a catastrophic engine failure

91

91. A Four Engine Flameout is most likely to occur when flying through
A. Heavy rain
B. Hail and icing
C. Volcanic ash
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

92

92. If ALS is flashing when the aircraft reference symbol representing aircraft pitch attitude is within _____ degrees of the flight path, the ALS is erroneously activating.
A. 10
B. 16
C. 8
D. 12

C. 8

93

93. Four Engine Flameout: Wings level C-17 glide ratio is _____.
A. 2.6 NM/1000 ft
B. 1 NM/1000 ft
C. 3.1 NM/1000 ft
D. 4.5 NM/1000 ft

A. 2.6 NM/1000 ft

94

94. Engine Failure During Takeoff: The MC calculates three engine climb gradient capability based on the use of _____ power. After liftoff increase power on operating engines to _____ thrust as required to meet three engine climb gradient requirements.
A. MAX, MAX
B. MAX, INT
C. MCT, INT
D. DRT, MAX

A. MAX, MAX

95

95. If experiencing severe engine vibration is during flight,
A. Execute a Precautionary Engine Shutdown
B. Advance the engine throttles one at a time (from left to right) to isolate the vibrating engine
C. Immediately shut down the engine using the Engine Fire/Emergency Engine Shutdown Checklist
D. Retard the engine throttles one at a time (from left to right) to isolate the vibrating engine

C. Immediately shut down the engine using the Engine Fire/Emergency Engine Shutdown Checklist

96

96. For PITCH AUTHORITY CAWS alert while airborne,
A. Let go of the stick to allow autotrim to regain control
B. Turn the pitch trim switch on the overhead FCS panel to MECH
C. Depressurize hydraulic systems 2 and 3
D. Slow the aircraft and simultaneously split the STAB TRIM handles

D. Slow the aircraft and simultaneously split the STAB TRIM handles

97

97. If a MASTER CAUTION and an EFCS MCD cue annunciate during the takeoff roll,
A. If below Vgo, reject the takeoff if possible.
B. If takeoff is continued, the PM will repeatedly press the EFCS RESET button as soon as EFCS MCD is annunciated. Allow 1 second between button presses
C. Ensure FROZEN GAINS appears on the MCD STATUS page
D. A & B

D. A & B

98

98. FCC FIXED GAINS: Large abrupt rudder inputs at speeds over ____ KCAS can overstress the vertical stabilizer and rudders.
A. 250
B. 300
C. 225
D. 200

D. 200

99

99. Fuel dump above ____ feet may cause engine flameout due to loss of fuel pressure.
A. 20,000
B. 15,000
C. 17,500
D. 10,000

A. 20,000

100

100. Normally fuel dump is accomplished with the center separation valve closed. Confirm that both lights illuminate or
A. Check for open feeder circuit breakers
B. Cycle the dump switch from off to on
C. Open the separation valve immediately
D. Discontinue fuel dumping and land as soon as practical

C. Open the separation valve immediately

101

101. Loss of a hydraulic system may occur when the quantity decreases causing the HYD QTY LOW X or HYD QTY LOW X, Y WAP message(s) to be displayed. If this message appears,
A. Put the flaps down while there is still some pressure
B. Be prepared for complete loss of flight controls
C. Decrease power on the engine to slow the pumps down
D. Shut off all pumps within the affected system

D. Shut off all pumps within the affected system

102

102. Primary flight controls are powered by how many hydraulic systems?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

B. 2

103

103. SW V19: Use the lower of the following two altitudes to determine the planned 3-engine acceleration altitude:
A. MC ACC ALT, MIN IFR Altitude
B. 1000 feet AFE, ODP Altitude
C. SDP LOA, MSA
D. MOCA, OROCA

A. MC ACC ALT, MIN IFR Altitude

104

104. When using alternate brake system, increase mission computer generated landing or ground roll distance by _____
A. 500 feet
B. 1000 feet
C. 25%
D. 50%

C. 25%

105

105. What is the aircraft configuration for an emergency descent?
A. Flaps 1/2; gear down; throttles - IDLE
B. Speed brakes - Deployed; gear down; N2 - 85 percent
C. Clean; throttles - IDLE; Airspeed - 310 knots
D. Throttles - IDLE or IDLE REV; Speed Brakes - Deployed; Airspeed - As Required

D. Throttles - IDLE or IDLE REV; Speed Brakes - Deployed; Airspeed - As Required

106

106. A personnel restraining harness or parachute is required to be worn ____.
A. During all emergencies that may require a bailout
B. When inspecting aircraft doors after an in-flight door/hatch warning
C. During low level flight below 500 AGL
D. Only when directed by the aircraft commander

B. When inspecting aircraft doors after an in-flight door/hatch warning

107

107. During a rejected takeoff, ____.
A. Use MAX reverse on all operating engines
B. Asymmetrical reverse thrust should be used with caution
C. Do not use reverse thrust
D. Use MAX reverse on the side with good engines and MAX brakes on the other side

B. Asymmetrical reverse thrust should be used with caution

108

108. There is a maximum of ____ engine start attempts in one hour, followed by a ____ minimum cooling period.
A. 2; 30 minute
B. 3; 45 minute
C. 4; 1 hour
D. 5; 1 hour

D. 5; 1 hour

109

109. Engine rotation will be completely stopped before the starter is re-engaged. The exception to this is the Engine
Clearing Procedure, when the starter may be re-engaged after N2 RPM has decreased below ____.
A. 18-24%
B. 20%
C. 0, the starter must always completely stop
D. 10%

B. 20%

110

110. The maximum time limit at MAX/DRT thrust is ____ minutes when not needed for engine failure on takeoff, or engine out go-around for obstacle clearance.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 7
D. There is no maximum time limit at MAX/DRT

A. 5

111

111. Maximum EGT for engine start is _____ degrees.
A. 650
B. 500
C. 495
D. 450

C. 495

112

112. The APU starter operating limit is _____ minute and any APU starter engagement is considered a start attempt. _____ starts may be attempted per rolling one hour cycle with a minimum delay of _____ minutes between attempts.
A. 1, 4, 10
B. 1, 5, 10
C. 1, 3, 5
D. 1, 4, 5

C. 1, 3, 5

113

113. The recommended minimum airspeed for in-flight reverse thrust is ____ or Vmma, whichever is higher.
A. 225
B. 200
C. 250
D. 300

C. 250

114

114. The maximum airspeed for extending the slats is ____ ; for retracting is ____.
A. 270; 270
B. 280; 280
C. 270; 280
D. 280; 270

D. 280; 270

115

115. What is the maximum airspeed allowable for extending the landing gear?
A. 225
B. 250
C. 275
D. 300

B. 250

116

116. Bank angles greater than ____ degrees are not recommended. The maximum bank angle is ____ degrees.
A. 30; 45
B. 45; 60
C. 50; 60
D. 60; 70

D. 60; 70

117

117. During taxi with speed greater than 20 knots with symmetric thrust (15 knots with asymmetric thrust), a 20
degree nose wheel steering angle limit applies if gross weight exceeds ____ lbs or with more than ____ lbs of fuel.
A. 490,000; 135,000
B. 502,100; 135,000
C. 490,000; 165,000
D. 502,100; 165,000

C. 490,000; 165,000

118

118. The maximum taxi speed for paved taxiways is ____ knots; maximum taxiway speed for semi-prepared taxiways is ____ knots with gross weight/fuel weight less than or equal to 435,000/82,000 lbs respectively.
A. 30; 40
B. 40; 30
C. 30; 20
D. 20; 30

B. 40; 30

119

119. Tire cord limits: The maximum wear limit (MWL) is defined as the exposure of the _____ cord layer plus _____ additional landings.
A. third, two
B. third, five
C. second, five
D. second, three

A. third, two

120

120. The maximum allowable crosswind for landing is _____ knots.
A. 30
B. 40
C. 25
D. 35

A. 30

121

121. The maximum landing touchdown sink rate for a steep approach (502,100 lbs) is ____ feet/min.
A. 1100
B. 660
C. 500
D. 1000

B. 660

122

122. If a stall occurs
A. Apply smooth, but positive forward stick
B. Increase thrust to MAX and retract speedbrakes (if required)
C. Roll input to level the wings
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

123

123. APS150 Weather Radar: The Magenta areas represent areas of ________ turbulence and should always be avoided
A. Light to Moderate
B. Moderate to Severe
C. Clear Air
D. Extreme

B. Moderate to Severe

124

124. Flight through extremely heavy rain, particularly with low thrust settings (

A. May result in flameout of one or more engines

125

125. ____ should be used for flight in known or anticipated turbulent air.
A. The turbulence mode of the auto pilot
B. Extreme caution
C. Engine ignition
D. Slow speeds

C. Engine ignition

126

126. During wind shear recovery, unless a sink rate exists, do not exceed ____ degrees of pitch below ____ feet.
A. 12; 200
B. 10-15; 300
C. 12-15; 200
D. 15; 200

D. 15; 200

127

127. Failure to use engine anti-ice when icing conditions are present may result in _____
A. Engine damage due to ice ingestion
B. Engine flameout
C. Reversion to the N1 mode
D. Severe compressor stalls

A. Engine damage due to ice ingestion

128

128. Takeoff will not be attempted with over _____ inch(es) of wet snow, slush and/or water, or _____ inch(es) of dry snow on the runway.
A. 1/4, 2
B. 1, 3
C. 1/2, 4
D. 1/3, 4/3

C. 1/2, 4

129

129. Icing and Cold Weather Operation: Taxi speed should be as low as practical on slippery surfaces and taxi speed of ____ knots or less is recommended while turning.
A. 10
B. 5
C. 15
D. 12

B. 5

130

130. Failure to periodically perform the ground ice shedding procedure can result in damage to the engines. If more
than ____ minutes have expired since engine start and icing conditions persist, delay takeoff until the procedure is accomplished.
A. 5
B. 15
C. 30
D. 20

B. 15

131

131. If excessive ice formations remain on the aircraft after climbing through an icing layer, level off and increase airspeed to obtain at least _____ or higher.
A. +3 °C TAT
B. +6 °C TAT
C. -10 °C SAT
D. +10 °C TAT

D. +10 °C TAT

132

132. Under no circumstance will flights be planned through ____ icing conditions. Aircraft operation in ____ icing conditions may be tolerated for short periods of time but evasive action should be undertaken to exit icing conditions as soon as practicable.
A. Moderate; moderate
B. Forecast moderate; light
C. Forecast or known severe; moderate
D. Suspected clear; light

C. Forecast or known severe; moderate

133

133. Cold weather/ ground icing conditions: Use of autothrottles for takeoff is strongly encouraged. If an EPR probe icing condition should occur, the autothrottles will ignore the erroneous EPR and maintain the correct power setting via computed throttle lever angle.
A. True
B. False

A. True

134

134. The anti-ice system is designed ____. Therefore, the anti-ice system must be activated before ice buildup
A. To prevent ice buildup rather than remove it once it forms
B. As a deicing system
C. To be used in light icing conditions only
D. For use in severe icing conditions

A. To prevent ice buildup rather than remove it once it forms

135

135. If icing conditions are expected during the descent, engine anti-ice, wing anti-ice, and windshield anti-ice will be turned on at least _____ feet above the expected icing level in order to provide adequate warm up time.
A. 5,000
B. 10,000
C. 8,000
D. 2,000

B. 10,000

136

136. The Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check is required if holdover time has expired or if freezing precipitation is occurring on an aircraft that was not anti-iced. The contamination check must be completed from OUTSIDE the aircraft within ___ minutes prior to takeoff.
A. 15
B. 10
C. 5
D. 20

C. 5

137

137. After deicing is complete, it will take up to ____ for the outflow valve to fully open and lower the cabin pressure to the point where the crew entry door will open normally.
A. 5 minutes
B. 90 seconds
C. 3 minutes
D. 30 seconds

B. 90 seconds

138

138. Intermediate Thrust Rating (INT) is ____. This is the recommended rating for engine-out climbs.
A. The maximum thrust approved for the engine
B. The highest thrust certified for continuous use
C. The highest thrust recommended for normal climb
D. The minimum thrust required to safely perform a takeoff

B. The highest thrust certified for continuous use

139

139. Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT) rating is ____.
A. The maximum thrust approved for the engine
B. The thrust recommended for engine-out climb
C. The highest thrust recommended for normal climb operation
D. The maximum thrust required to safely perform a takeoff

C. The highest thrust recommended for normal climb operation

140

140. Go speed (VGO) is the lowest of _____, _____, or _____.
A. V1, VCEF, VBO
B. VMCO, VMCG, VMCA
C. VROT, VR, VBMAX
D. VMFR, VMSR, VTD

C. VROT, VR, VBMAX

141

141. The aircraft static air temperature shall not be used for takeoff calculation since heat radiation picked up by the sensing element can cause considerable error. Using an incorrect temperature may result in an unsafe takeoff.
A. True
B. False

A. True

142

142. Fluid Holdover Times: The C-17 is considered a(n) __________ aircraft.
A. aluminum
B. composite
C. piezoelectric
D. ceramic

A. aluminum

143

143. A lineup distance penalty must be applied anytime the takeoff is not commenced from the beginning of the
usable runway. Apply a standard distance of ____ feet to account for turning the aircraft around on the runway or
accessing the runway from a taxiway.
A. 100
B. 80
C. 250
D. 200

C. 250

144

144. Holding: The normal C-17 holding airspeed is __________, but not less than VMMA.
A. Long Range Cruise
B. 230 knots
C. an airspeed derived from a command-approved planning and execution program
D. B or C

D. B or C

145

145. Landing is not permitted with tailwinds greater than ____ or headwinds greater than ____.
A. 10, 10
B. 15, 10
C. 10, 40
D. 10, 15

C. 10, 40

146

146. MC TOLD: If VBO LDG DIST exceeds __________ and LDG DIST is valid, VBO LDG DIST is highlighted and VBO LD DIST/nnn.nGW (MSG) is generated. If VBO GND ROLL exceeds __________ and GND ROLL is valid, VBO GND ROLL is highlighted and VBO GD ROLL/nnn.nGW (MSG) is generated.
A. CFL, CFL
B. RWY AVAIL, RWY AVAIL
C. GND ROLL + 500 feet, GND ROLL + 500 feet
D. TORA, TODA

B. RWY AVAIL, RWY AVAIL

147

147. GPWS Mode 4C (gear down, flaps 1/2 detent or less and below 500 feet radar altitude) is inoperative when _____.
A. Performing circling approaches
B. TAWS is active
C. TACTICAL mode is selected
D. When flying a "frontside" approach

C. TACTICAL mode is selected

148

148. GPWS warnings/alerts shall remain ON during flight.
A. True
B. False

A. True

149

149. (Thrust Reverser Status, 3L) When a SPAM runway is selected for emergency return or landing, the MC adds another thrust reverser selection for four engines (4ENG). 4ENG assumes
A. two engines in forward thrust and two engines in idle reverse
B. four engines in idle reverse for 33% of the landing roll out
C. loss of one engine, one engine in idle reverse, and symmetric engines in maximum reverse
D. all four engines operating and in maximum reverse thrust

D. all four engines operating and in maximum reverse thrust

150

150. During Degraded Modes, ______ use(s) the last valid altitude and heading data they received prior to the Degraded Mode. Advise ATC as necessary.
A. IFF and TCAS
B. Weather Radar
C. IRUs
D. TOLD

A. IFF and TCAS

151

151. If both MC's fail, fully automatic control of cabin pressurization is lost.
A. True
B. False

A. True

152

152. The visual signal for a BREAKAWAY is
A. Tanker retracts and stows the boom during contact
B. Tanker flashes Pilot Director Lights and/or turns lower Rotating Beacon ON
C. Tanker boom extended approximately 5 feet
D. Pilot Director Lights extinguished during contact.

B. Tanker flashes Pilot Director Lights and/or turns lower Rotating Beacon ON

153

153. If the receiver overruns the tanker, the receiver will reduce airspeed to ____, and maintain track and altitude.
A. 230 KCAS
B. 255 KCAS or minimum maneuvering speed, whichever is lower
C. 255 KCAS or minimum maneuvering speed, whichever is higher
D. Appropriate refueling speed or Vmma, whichever is lower

C. 255 KCAS or minimum maneuvering speed, whichever is higher

154

154. _____ is the desired standard for daily air refueling operations.
A. Emission Option 1
B. Emission Option 2
C. Emission Option 3
D. Emission Option 4

B. Emission Option 2

155

155. When the receiver pilot is closing and approaching the pre-contact position,
A. It is mandatory to call "Stable, Ready" during Emission Option 2 operations
B. The receiver should use TCAS in TA/RA mode until established in precontact
C. The receiver will stabilize in the precontact position and attain a zero rate of closure
D. The boom operator will trail the boom fully extended until the receiver approaches contact

C. The receiver will stabilize in the precontact position and attain a zero rate of closure

156

156. Tankers and receivers will begin monitoring designated radio frequencies no less than _____ minutes prior to the ARCT.
A. 15
B. 20
C. 30
D. 25

C. 30

157

157. During an air refueling BREAKAWAY, the receiver pilot should use caution not to overrun the tanker. If overrunning does occur, under no condition should ____ , be made until positive separation has been attained.
A. An acceleration
B. A climb
C. A rejoin
D. A turn, either right or left

D. A turn, either right or left

158

158. A controlled tension brute force disconnect will be accomplished ____.
A. Only as a last resort
B. When directed by higher headquarters
C. For all normal disconnects
D. For training purposes only

A. Only as a last resort

159

159. (Emergency Boom Latching Procedures) It is possible to cause structural damage to the air refueling boom and slipway by severe relative movement between the two aircraft when operating in override since the _____ are deactivated. The ____ must initiate all disconnects before exceeding any of the limits.
A. Toggles; boom operator
B. Toggles; receiver pilot
C. Limit switches; receiver pilot
D. Limit switches; boom operator

C. Limit switches; receiver pilot

160

160. During the RV Delta (Point Parallel) procedure the receiver(s) will
A. Be established at 1000 ft below the assigned base AAR altitude when departing the RVIP
B. Enter the track via the RVIP and should aim to be at the RVIP at the RVCT
C. Aid the RV, when so equipped, by remaining in electronic contact on radar, A/A TACAN, TCAS or other means as soon as possible, but no later than 50 nm range or the RVIP, whichever occurs first
D. A & C

D. A & C

161

161. Crewmembers enrolled in PCO, IAC, CPAD, and ACAD are exempt from quarterly phase training.
A. True
B. False

B. False

162

162. Which of the following results in an individual being declared NMR?
A. Failure to maintain flying currency.
B. Failure to complete semi-annual flying continuation training requirements.
C. Failure to complete ground continuation training requirements.
D. Any of the above.

D. Any of the above.

163

163. A member may also credit a Day Low Level (M055) each time they accomplish a NVG Low Level (NV00).
A. True
B. False

A. True

164

164. How many Receiver AR (R010) events may be accomplished per sortie?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A. One

165

165. Crew duty time and flight duty period both begin ______. (exception: msns launched from Alfa/Bravo or self-alerting)
A. 1 hour after alert
B. At alert time
C. When the crew member arrives at the squadron
D. As designated by the aircraft commander

A. 1 hour after alert

166

166. The maximum flight duty period for a basic crew (including Basic +1) is _____ hours; for an augmented crew _____ hours.
A. 12; 16
B. 20; 24+45
C. 16; 24
D. 18; 24+45

C. 16; 24

167

167. Available crewmembers will assist in clearing during _________ and anytime the aircraft is below _________feet MSL.
A. taxi operations; 18,000
B. taxi operations; 10,000
C. taxi in congested areas; 10,000
D. taxi in congested areas; 18,000

B. taxi operations; 10,000

168

168. Equipment will be properly secured and all crewmembers and passengers will be seated with seat belts and shoulder harnesses (shoulder harness does not apply to pax) fastened during taxi, takeoff, landing, AAR, and low levels unless crew duties dictate otherwise.
A. True
B. False

A. True

169

169. With weather at CAT I minimums on a CAT I ILS, the pilot may not see the runway environment at DA; however, the initial portion of the approach lights may be visible. The pilot may continue to ____ HAT with reference to the approach lights only. The pilot may not descend below ___ feet above touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are distinctly visible and identifiable.
A. 200; 200
B. 200; 100
C. 100; 100
D. 100; 50

C. 100; 100

170

170. If on an instrument approach, the PM must still provide subsequent instrument advisory calls if the PF can maintain visual contact with the landing runway, and states "Visual."
A. True
B. False

B. False

171

171. Both pilots will VERIFY the intended changes prior to execution to include the correct mode is selected (e.g. ensure LNAV is selected when cleared to a point while on a heading).
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A. TRUE

172

172. Minimum runway/taxiway widths for C-17 operations are:
A. 150 ft runway, 90 ft taxiway
B. 100 ft runway, 70 ft taxiway
C. 90 ft runway, 50 ft taxiway
D. 75 ft runway, 45 ft taxiway

C. 90 ft runway, 50 ft taxiway

173

173. Do not taxi an aircraft within ___ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ____ feet.
A. 25; 10
B. 25; 25
C. 15; 10
D. 10; 5

A. 25; 10

174

174. Weather Minimums for Takeoff: What minimum visibility is required to depart on an operational mission in the absence of RVR readout?
A. 1000 meters
B. ½ mile
C. 800 meters
D. B or C

D. B or C

175

175. During flight, avoid thunderstorm activity by any means available by at least ____ NM at or above FL 230 and ____ NM below FL 230.
A. 10, 20
B. 20, 10
C. 15, 25
D. 25, 15

B. 20, 10

176

176. Weather minimums for NVG departures for crewmembers who are non-current and/or unqualified is _______. Current and qualified NVG aircrews may fly NVG departures weather down to _____ (OG/CC or equivalent may approve down to ______).
A. 1000/2; 500/1; 300/1
B. 600/2; 300/1; 200/½
C. 1500/3; 500/2; 300/¾
D. 1500/3; 600/2; 300/1

D. 1500/3; 600/2; 300/1

177

177. Inflight Fuel Optimization: After takeoff, aircrews should determine and request to cruise at their optimum altitude. Optimum altitude can be calculated with __________.
A. the MC CRUISE PERFORMANCE page
B. the Pilot’s Performance Advisory System (PPAS)
C. IAW AMC approved checklist insert OPTIMUM CRUISE ALTITUDES if PPAS is not available
D. B or C

D. B or C

178

178. (IAP) Instrument approach RVR/visibility and, if required, ceiling minimums will be as published for a category ____ aircraft. If approach speeds exceed 165 knots, the minimums for category ____ will be used.
A. C; D
B. D; E
C. E; F
D. B; C

B. D; E

179

179. If full flight instrumentation is not available and operational, aircraft are limited to a DH/MDA based on _____.
A. Circling minimums, but no lower than 600 feet and 2 miles vis
B. Aircraft are limited to VMC operations only
C. A HAT of 300 feet and RVR 4000 or ¾ mile visibility with no RVR
D. The lowest compatible non precision minimums

C. A HAT of 300 feet and RVR 4000 or ¾ mile visibility with no RVR

180

180. Aircrews may fly NVG instrument approaches which transition to NVG landings with weather down to _______(OG/CC or equivalent may approve down to _____) or circling minimums (whichever is higher).
A. 500/1; 300/1
B. 300/1; 200/½
C. 500/2; 300/¾
D. 600/2; 300/1

D. 600/2; 300/1

181

181. If involved in a mishap or incident, pull the CVR power circuit breaker
A. Immediately after terminating the emergency.
B. After landing.
C. After landing and terminating the emergency.
D. Never.

C. After landing and terminating the emergency.

182

182. Manual entry of waypoints using Latitude/Longitude or Place/Bearing is prohibited on any RNAV procedure.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE

A. TRUE

183

183. Destination Requirements (for filing purposes): File two alternates when:
A. The forecast visibility (intermittent or prevailing) is less than published for the available DoD/NACO precision approach
B. GPS is the only available NAVAID at destination
C. Radar is required for all available instrument approaches at destination
D. B or C

A. The forecast visibility (intermittent or prevailing) is less than published for the available DoD/NACO precision approach

184

184. Maximum on Ground (MOG) is based solely on parking space available.
A. True
B. False

B. False

185

185. From the left seat an imaginary line drawn from the row of rivets inside the number ____ engine cowling at approximately the ____ o'clock position closely identifies 25-foot wingtip clearance.
A. 1; 4
B. 2; 4
C. 1; 6
D. 3; 4

A. 1; 4

186

186. Which statement is TRUE for the following situation: You are preparing for engine running off/onload operations and a thrust reverser will not extend:
A. Offload operations can be conducted if it is an outboard engine
B. ERO operations are absolutely not permitted
C. Shutdown of the engine should be considered prior to ERO operations
D. Symmetrical engines must be shut down

C. Shutdown of the engine should be considered prior to ERO operations

187

187. When operating into semi-prepared runways, aircrews must input the numerical rolling friction factor (RFF) into the mission computer to calculate take-off data prior to landing.
A. True
B. False

A. True

188

188. Time Control: A rule of thumb for calculating actual Delta T for Climbs/Descents is to apply a 1 minute correction to Delta T for every _________ feet of altitude to gain or lose. This ROT applies only when there are no waypoints between present position and the top/bottom of climb/descent.
A. 2,000
B. 10,000
C. 5,000
D. 1,000

B. 10,000

189

189. Taxi Centerline References: While taxiing the aircraft straight ahead, the position of the nosewheel is approximated by __________.
A. the inboard screw of the heads-up display (HUD)
B. the inboard leg of the pilot flying (PF)
C. the first inboard dot of the lateral deviation indicator in the HUD
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

190

190. Time Control (high altitude): Take _____ percent of TAS to determine how long a 360-degree turn will take in minutes .
A. 3
B. .5
C. 1
D. 3.6

C. 1

191

191 ____ terrain masking is placing terrain behind the aircraft so it is difficult to distinguish the aircraft from the
background. ____ terrain masking is putting the terrain between the aircraft and the threat.
A. Direct; Military Crest
B. Indirect; Direct
C. 45 Degree; Parallel Ridge
D. Perpendicular Ridge; Indirect

B. Indirect; Direct

192

192. Time Control (low altitude): Turn _____ degrees off course for 1 minute, then turn back to course on a _____degree intercept for 1 minute. This allows the crew to intercept the original course and lose 1 minute.
A. 30, 30
B. 45, 45
C. 60, 60
D. 90, 90

C. 60, 60

193

193. On a dry surface with symmetric engine thrust and no differential braking, the aircraft can execute a 180-degree turn in _____ feet.
A. 90
B. 143
C. 116
D. 175

B. 143

194

194. For low-altitude, level slowdowns, use _____ of ground speed as a general rule of thumb. Add ____ if above 280 KCAS to allow time to configure.
A. 1%; 2NM
B. 2% ; 1NM
C. 1% ; 1NM
D. 3% ; 2NM

C. 1% ; 1NM

195

195. What approximate descent gradient can be obtained flying 230 KCAS and configured with Slats and Speed Brakes?
A. 300 ft/NM
B. 525 ft/NM
C. 950 ft/NM
D. 1480 ft/NM

B. 525 ft/NM

196

196. Standard terminology for PM assault landing calls is ___ of the "zone".
A. Front half, center, back half
B. Brick one, end
C. Front, middle, back
D. First third, middle third, last third

C. Front, middle, back

197

197. A 45 degree bank turn decreases the aircraft's climb performance by _____.
A. 3%
B. 13%
C. 29%
D. 50%

C. 29%

198

198. 1 on X AAR: During AAR with tanker formations, after receiving the scheduled on-load from the first tanker, descend in trail ____the current tanker (____ the next tanker).
A. 1000 feet below, 500 feet below
B. 500 feet below, 1500 feet below
C. 500 feet below, level with
D. 1000 feet below, 1500 feet below

A. 1000 feet below, 500 feet below

199

199. In a tactical environment, a _____ is an established reference point from which the position of an object can be
referenced by bearing (Magnetic) and range (NM).
A. SARNEG
B. CHATTERMARK
C. BULLSEYE
D. POPEYE

C. BULLSEYE

200

200. AAR Pre-departure Fuel Planning: Determine the minimum on-load required. Vary the AAR on-load amount until the _________ fuel or __________ fuel reaches zero, whichever occurs first. That amount is the minimum on-load required.
A. STORED, ID EXTRA
B. RECOVERY, UNID EXTRA
C. STORED, UNID EXTRA
D. ALTN, ID EXTRA

C. STORED, UNID EXTRA

201

201. As a rule of thumb (ROT) the C-17 is capable of refueling at maximum gross weight with KC-10 up to and including __________ and a KC-135 up to and including __________.
A. FL 210, FL 230
B. FL 240, FL 260
C. FL 340, FL 360
D. FL 180, FL 200

A. FL 210, FL 230

202

202. It is OK to say the color code corresponding to a radio frequency when checking in on the radio, i.e. "THUG
17 checking in on GREEN 11."
A. True, it lets the Eye in Sky know you're on the correct frequency
B. False, you've now compromised the frequency

B. False, you've now compromised the frequency

203

221. What are the requirements for a touch and go?
A. Runway length: 9000’, Minimum ceiling and visibility: 600’ and 1, wet runway- RCR>12, crosswind: 25 kts or less B. Runway length: 9000’, Minimum ceiling and visibility: 200’ and 3⁄4, wet runway- RCR>3, crosswind:25 kts or less
C. Runway length: 7000’, Minimum ceiling and visibility: 300’ and 3⁄4, wet runway- RCR=12, crosswind:25 kts or less
D. Runway length: 7000’, Minimum ceiling and visibility: 300’ and 3⁄4, wet runway- RCR>12, crosswind:30 kts or less

C. Runway length: 7000’, Minimum ceiling and visibility: 300’ and 3⁄4, wet runway- RCR=12, crosswind:25 kts or less

204

222. Training Flight Restrictions: What is the maximum brake temp for Assault Landing Zone Operations (N/A to
GOAT)?
A.200° C
B. 150° C
C. 100° C
D. 38° C

B. 150° C

205

223. Aircraft commanders may regain overseas currency under the supervision of a current.
A. Aircraft commander
B. Instructor
C. Examiner
D. Any of the above

D. Any of the above

206

224. NVG Training: Maximum crosswind for takeoff or landing is.
A. 10 knots
B. 15 knots
C. 20 knots
D. 30 knots with OG/CC approval

B. 15 knots

207

225. What is the altitude at which you must initiate a visual low approach and/or planned go around?
A. 50 ft AGL
B. 100 ft AGL
C. 200 ft AGL
D. 300 ft AGL

B. 100 ft AGL

208

226. Instructors and flight examiners may credit 50% of their requirements while instructing or evaluating. EXCEPTION: Instructor and flight examiner pilots may not credit any takeoffs, landings, or air refueling flown by another pilot.
A.True
B. False

A.True

209

227. For loss of currency up to 6 months, an aircrew member must demonstrate proficiency ______ in all delinquent items.
A. With a qualified pilot
B. With an instructor(or ATS instructorfor SIM creditable events)
C. In a simulator
D. On an evaluation

B. With an instructor(or ATS instructorfor SIM creditable events)

210

228. During touch and go landings, takeoff warnings are inhibited.
A.True
B. False

A.True

211

229. What are the procedures if the spoilers fail to automatically retract during a touch and go?
A. 1C-17A-1 recommends rejecting
B. The PF rotates with MCT selected and the PM will manually set the Spoilers switch to Off (dearm)
C. The PF advances the throttles to MAX and the PM will manually set the Spoilers switch to Off (dearm)
D. No specialprocedures are required.

C. The PF advances the throttles to MAX and the PM will manually set the Spoilers switch to Off (dearm)