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VET - ClinAppii/iii > CA2 Midterm > Flashcards

CA2 Midterm Flashcards

(74 cards)

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1
Q

What groups of drugs do Atropine, tiletamine, ketamine, acepromazine and midazolam belong to?

A

At : anticholinergic,
Tile: dissociative,
Ket: dissociative,
Ace : phenothiazine,
Mid : benzodiazepine

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2
Q

What perameters for monitoring anesthesia are maintained when tiletamine/zolazepam is given IM at an appropriate dose?

A

palpebral reflex, laryngeal/pharyngeal reflex, jaw tone

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3
Q

What groups of drugs do zolazepam, midazolam, atropine, diazepam, acepromazine, xylazine belong to?

A

Zol : benzodiazepine ,
Mid : Benzodiazepine,
At: anticholinergic,
dia: benzodiazepine ,
Ace : phenothiazine ,
xyl: phenothiazine

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4
Q

Why is atropine indicated for use with tiletamine/zolazepam anesthesia?

A

to control salivation

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5
Q

What is the minimum maintenance oxyggen flow rate for a partial rebreathing anesthetic system?

A

0.5 liter / min

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6
Q

A standard size E (small) oxygen tank should be changed when the pressure drops below?

A

500 PSI

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7
Q

What are the indications of anticholinergics?

A

decrease salivation, increase heart rate, decrease GI motility

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8
Q

If the sensitivity (amplitude) of an ECG machine is changed from 1 to 2, the resultant pQRSt complexes will be?

A

taller

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9
Q

When performing an ECG strip, what does RUN 25 mean?

A

that the paper is moving at 25mm/sec

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10
Q

When performing an ECG strip, what happens to the pQRSt complexes when the run speed is changed from Run 25 to Run 50?

A

the complexes become wider and farther apart

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11
Q

Recovery from general anesthesia begins when?

A

Oxygen flow rate is at 3L/min and inhalant gas is at 0%

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12
Q

When does maintenance anesthesia begin?

A

Oxygen flow rate is at 3L/min and isoflurane is at 3%, animal loses palpebral reflex

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13
Q

What are contraindications of acepromazine?

A

decreases bite inhibition, decrease body temperature, hypotension

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14
Q

What is the minimum acceptable heart rate that a dog should maintain while under gas anesthesia?

A

60 beats/min

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15
Q

What is the normal depth of the gingival sulcus in a dog?

A

1-3mm

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16
Q

Removal of dental calculus from the cementum of a tooth is called

A

root planning

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17
Q

What dental tool can be used supragingival or subgingival?

A

dental curette

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18
Q

Which dental instrument has a pointed toe, sharp cutting edges and a pointed back; the cross section of the working end of this instrument is triangular shaped

A

Hand scaler

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19
Q

What anatomic feature is radiolucent, is located between the tooth rooth and the lamina dura and connects the cementum to alveolar bone?

A

the periodontal ligament

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20
Q

What anatomic feature is the space between tooth roots, indicates horizontal bone loss, an indication for tooth extraction

A

furication of a tooth

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21
Q

What structure of the tooth is where nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatics travel to and from the pulp is the

A

apical delta

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22
Q

What is the most accurate way of assessing attachment loss of a tooth?

A

taking a radiograph to visualize root length and visualize bone loss

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23
Q

What is the term for the side of the tooth towards the midline?

A

Mesial

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24
Q

What causes gingival recession?

A

horizontal bone loss

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25
How would a retained deciduous lower canine be located compared to an adult canine?
the adult canine would be located lingual to the retained tooth
26
What is the most common oral disease in the cat?
Resorptive disease
27
What instrument is used to measure gingival sulcus depth?
a periodontal probe
28
Which instrument can be used to remove dental plaque and calculus from only the crown surface of the tooth?
Sickle scaler
29
What is a white-tan fil, that collects on teeth and is composed of bacteria, exfoliated cells, food debris and saliva
plaque
30
When using the P-3 Ultrasonic scaler tip, the toe should move across the tooth surface. Should the tip move perpendicular or parallel to the long axis of the toe?
parallel
31
When radiographing the upper left adult canine of a dog, if the x-ray beam is projected perpendicular to the tooth, the tooth will be?
elongated
32
When taking dental radiographes in lab, the operator must be at least how many feet away from the source of the x-ray beam?
6 feet
33
The bisecting angle technique would be used for which teeth?
maxillary incisiors, maxillary canine, maxillary fourth premolar
34
What positioning technique is used to eliminate or reduce super imposition caused by adjacent tooth roots?
medial and distal oblique
35
If the crown of a tooth looks perfectly normal, then the area of tooth not visible must be healthy (T/F)?
F
36
What causes foreshortening?
caused when the tube head is too perpendicular to the film/sensor
37
What is the CEJ?
cementoenamel junction; junction between the crown and the root, located on mesial and distal aspect of the tooth, part of the diagnostic radiograph
38
What safety tenets need to be kept in mind when taking radiographs?
minimum time, maximum distance, maximum shielding
39
What is the crainal border of abdominal radiograph and caudal border of thoracic radiograph
diaphragm
40
When performing an upper GI series, what should be done prior to administering barium to assure that the orogastric tube is in the esophagus
syringe saline into the tube to elicit a cough if the tube is in the trachea
41
Identify the correct peripheral borders for a shoulder radiograph?
1/3 of the scapula and 1/3 of the humerus
42
The dose of barium given for a barium Upper GI series is?
3-5 ml/lb
43
Esophagrams or Barium Swallow are performed by administering?
Barium paste 120% w/v fed by mouth
44
Which of the following is not an abnormally seen on an upper GI series?
intestinal contractions that appear as a string of pearls or segmentally?
45
What contrast agent is indicated if barium cannot be used for a positive contrast GI series?
organic iodide
46
What are the peripheral borders for a radius/ulna radiograph?
elbow joint and carpus
47
What does an upper GI (barium) series evaluate?
esophagus, stomach, small intestine
48
What component of the xray tube is positively charged and can be rotating or stationary
Anode
49
What affects the contrast or shades of gray on a radiographic image?
kV
50
The most frequently performed contrast study in the dog and cat is?
upper GI series
51
What is the correct order of surgery drape placement when preparing a canine or feline patient for an ovariohysterectomy?
Cranial, caudal, near, far
52
Surgical preparation/clippling is performed with what blade?
No. 40
53
When opening a gown pack, nonscrubbed surgical personnel may touch the?
Autoclave tape
54
Once gowned and gloved using aseptic technique, where are you considered sterile?
bottom of neck front to waist, side to side and both arms
55
Assuming 15 psi, what are the minimum conditions that must be met to ensure that a pack has neen adequately sterilized by autoclaving it?
250F(121C) for 15 minutes
56
What is the purpose of doing a surgical scrub?
to remove dead cells and debris, as well as allow contact time to decrease your bacterial load
57
What size scalpel blade fits on a #3 scalpel handle?
No. 10
58
As a surgical assistant asked to drape the patient, one should be wearing?
cap, mask, surgical gown, closed glovng technique
59
An autoclaved double wrapped muslin pack, kept in a closed cabinet, can be safely stored?
7-8 weeks
60
What are the proper borders for shaving an abdominal surgical site?
from the Xyphoid process to the most caudal pair of mammary glands, and from the flank fold to flank fold
61
What is the process by which a cloth or material transfers contaminated fluids from a non-sterile to a sterile area?
wicking
62
A large drape with a hole in it may be used for an abdominal surgery instead of placing four smaller drapes. The hole of the large drape is placed over the area where the incision will occur. What is the name of this type of drape?
fenestrated drap
63
what is the blood vessel of choice when drawing a larger volume of blood from a dog or cat for most blood tests?
jugular vein
64
What are some indicators of poor blood sample collection or handling techniques?
hemolysis, clotting, improper anticoagulant/blood ratio
65
purple top blood collection tubes have what in them and are used for what purpose?
EDTA and CBC
66
Blue topped collection tubes have what in them and are used for what purpose
sodum citrate for blood coagulation determination
67
For hematology tests, are clots in EDTA blood acceptable?
never acceptable
68
EDTA plasma cannot be used for diagnostic testing because it forms a complex with what?
calcium
69
To minimize damage to the bandage between bandage changes, what should a client do?
place a plastic bag over bandage before the animal goes outside
70
Which vacutainer tubes does not need to be inverted after collection?
Red top (no additives)
71
What is the purpose of leaving toes exposed when bandaging a limb?
allows for monitoring of swelling and toe comparison
72
When obtaining blood for a red top and a purple top tube, the blood sample is placed in
the red top first as to not contaminate it with EDTA
73
Once venipunture has occured, if a pressure wrap is applied, what is the usual length of time the pressure wrap is left in place?
5 min
74
Which digits should be visible to assess for swelling and hypothermia?
third and fourth

VET - ClinAppii/iii (5 decks)

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