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VET - ClinAppii/iii > CA3 midterm > Flashcards

CA3 midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What is the dose of Ketamine?

A

CSCC dose: 2-4 mg/#, 5-10 mg/# as sole induction agent

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2
Q

Important info about Ketamine (group, schedule, indications)

A

Dissociative (Cyclohexamine), Schedule 3, Painful IM admin, produces catalepsy, reflexes remain intact, metabolized by the liver

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3
Q

Isoflurane percentages and effects

A

Induction 3%, Maintenance 1-2%; Halogenated organic compound, dose dependent cardiac and respiratory depression, rapid induction and recovery

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4
Q

Sevoflurane percentages and effects

A

Induction 5-7%, Maintenance 3-4%; Halogenated organic compound, dose dependent cardiac depression, relative insoluble in blood

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5
Q

Atropine info

A

Anticholinergic (parasympatholytic), emergency drug, dose 0.01 mg/#, Duration 60-90 min, vagal tone inhibition -> increased heart rate, bronchodilation, Mydriasis, reduces salivation, bronchial secretions and GI motility.

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6
Q

Propofol info

A

Ultra-short acting, sedative-hypnotic alkylphenol, dose 2-4mg/kg IV; rapid onset and short duration of action (2-5min), protein bound, vasodilation and decrease in BP, rapid recovery

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7
Q

When to use a partial rebreathing system vs non-rebreathing system

A

Rebreating (>7kg/15#) Nonrebreathing (<7kg/15#)

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8
Q

When to use parallel technique vs bisecting angle technique

A

Bisecting angle : Incisors/canines, P1-2, M2-3;
Parallel technique : Mandibular 3rd/4th P/M

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9
Q

What are the rules of the Tridan Numbering system?

A

100=Maxilla right, 200 = Maxilla left, 300= Mandible left, 400 = Mandible right; incisors 1-3, Canines always 4, Last premolar always 8, K9 maxilla last molar 10, K9 mandible last molar 11, feline maxilla and mandible 9

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10
Q

Alveolar bone

A

aka alveolar process, the thick ridge of bone which contains the tooth sockets

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11
Q

Pulp

A

vascular and nerve tissue forming the inner tooth

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12
Q

Dentin

A

a hard substance similar to bone forming the bulk of the tooth around the pulp cavity

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13
Q

Enamel

A

the hardest substance in the body, covering only the crown

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14
Q

Apical delta

A

space within the root canal that allows free passage of blood vessels and nerves from the periapical compartment to the pulp tissue

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15
Q

Cementum

A

hard tissue forming the surface of the root

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16
Q

Periodontal ligament

A

connective tissue of the root with attaches to the socket

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17
Q

Lamina dura

A

dense layer of bone between the cementum and lamina dura, radioopaque

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18
Q

Crown

A

the part of the tooth projecting above the gingiva covered with enamel

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19
Q

Root

A

the part of the tooth that extends into the bone and holds the tooth in place

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20
Q

Label the parts of this tooth

A

1-10
A - Alveolar bone
B - Pulp
C - Dentin
D - Enamel
E - Apical Delta
F - Cementum
G - Periodontal ligament
H - Lamina Dura
I - Crown
J - Root

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21
Q

Extractor

A

This instrument can be used to loosen and remove the major portion of supragingival calculus.

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22
Q

Periodontal probe

A

this instrument is used to determine gingival sulcus depth. It is calibrated into millimeter lengths. The tip is gently inserted into the sulcus, parallel to the long axis of the tooth, until soft resistance of the sulcar epithelial attachement is felt

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23
Q

Explorer

A

this instrument is used to determine defects of the tooth surface. AKA the shepherd’s hook. It can be used sub- and supra- gingivally

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24
Q

Ultrasonic scalers

A

ultrasonic vibration of a metal tip and water to remove supreagingival plaque, tartar, necrotic tissue, and debris. Each tip vibrates at a certain frequency. With the appropriate frequency of vibration and water pressure, a fine mist is produced

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25
Q

Drawbacks of Ultrasonic scalers

A

can scratch enamel, cut and etch dentin and cementum, and cause thermal damage to dental and periodental structures

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26
Q

P-3 Ultrasonic scaler

A

blunt tip (beaver tail), lateral edge used against the tooth surface, back and forth motion with the toe facing the marginal gingiva

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27
Q

P-10 Ultrasonic scaler

A

pointed tip (perio probe) tip can be used for fine detail work intral and inter dental spaces, caution as to not place too much force on the tip thus increasing the etching to the enamel

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28
Q

Hand scaler

A

usually sickle shaped with sharp edges and points, these instruments are used to remove supragingival plaque, tartar, necrotic tissue and debris.
- hold with modified pencil grip.
- particle removal is best achieved with hand instruments

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29
Q

Curette

A

similar to hand scalers, but have curved, blunted toes with sharp edges. they are designed to remove subgingival plaque, tartar, necrotic tissue and debris.

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30
Q

Subgingival curettage

A

cleaning of the sulcus, sulcular epithelium and subgingival tooth surface

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31
Q

root planning

A

cleaning of the root surface

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32
Q

Anechoic

A

When the echogenicity of a structure appears black. fluids

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33
Q

Hypoechoic

A

these structures appear darker on the ultrasound screen as compared to the structures around them

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34
Q

Hyperechoic

A

these structures appear lighter on the ultrasound screen as compared to the structures around them

35
Q

Echogenicity

A

a term referring to how tissues reflect the sound waves

36
Q

What is the preferred lead when performing an ECG

A

Lead 2

37
Q

Amplitude

A

height of a waveform

38
Q

Arrhythmia

A

an abnormal heart rhythm

39
Q

Atrial fibrillation

A

a rapid, irregular heart rhythm in which the atria are chaotically depolarized by impulses that do not originate in the sinus node

40
Q

AV node

A

atrioventricular node; the electric connection between the atria and the ventricles where impulse conduction slows

41
Q

Depolarization

A

electric activation

42
Q

Duration

A

with of a waveform the amount of time a waveform takes

43
Q

First-degree AV block

A

on an ECG, the P-R intervals are longer than normal

44
Q

Repolarization

A

electric resetting so that depolarization can occur

45
Q

SA node

A

Sinoatrial node

46
Q

Ventricular escape complex

A

a ventricular originating complex that occurs after a long pause in the rhythm

47
Q

V-tach

A

ventricular tachycardia; three or more consecutive VPCs with a faster-than-normal heart rate

48
Q

What vision tests and other ophthalmic tests are done? (For a PE)

A

History, Observation, Vision test (Menace, Tracking, Maze), Pupillary light response, Schirmer tear test, Examine front of the eye, Examine back of the eye, Tonometry, Corneal staining, electroretinography

49
Q

Common clinical signs of ophthalmic disease

A

squinting, chemosis, epiphora, miosis, mydriasis, anisocoria, exophthalmos, enophthalmos, proptosis, hyphaema, hypopyon, phthisis bulbi

50
Q

Chemosis

A

swelling of the conjunctivia

51
Q

Epiphora

A

tear overflow

52
Q

Miosis

A

constricted pupil

53
Q

Mydriasis

A

dilated pupil

54
Q

Anisocoria

A

different in size of the two pupils

55
Q

Exophthalmos

A

abnormal protrusion of the eye

56
Q

Enophthalmos

A

sunken eye

57
Q

Proptosis

A

forward displacement of the globe

58
Q

Hyphaema

A

blood within the anterior chamber

59
Q

Hypopyon

A

white blood cells (pus) within the anterior chamber

60
Q

Phthisis bulbi

A

shrinkage of the globe due to disease

61
Q

What are the different types of hemorrhage

A

Petechiae, Ecchymoses, Hematoma, Purpura

62
Q

Petechiae

A

small pinpoint hemorrhage

63
Q

Ecchymoses

A

Larger more spread out areas of hemorrhage

64
Q

Hematoma

A

“blood blister”, Localized collection of blood

65
Q

Purpura

A

ecchymoses combined

66
Q

Otitis Externa

A

Acute or chronic inflammation of soft tissue components of external auditory meatus which sometimes involves pinna

67
Q

What are the primary causes of Otitis Externa

A

Allergic disease, Metabolic diseases (Hypothyroidism, Cushing’s), Anatomical or congenital abnormalities

68
Q

What specific organisms cause Otitis Externa

A

Malazzezia (black, moist, allergies), Otodectes (black dry, granular, itchy kittens), Bacteria (yellow moist to wet), Psudomonas (green moist, harder to treat)

69
Q

Toxocara

A

(roundworm), infective by oral route, transmamary, transplacental, zoonotic potential (visceral/ocular larval migrans), very resistant in environment

70
Q

Ancylostoma

A

(hookworm), infective by oral route, transmammary, transplacental, and percutaneous, causes anemia and diarrhea (tarry stool), zoonotic potential (cutaneous larval migrans)

71
Q

Trichuris

A

(whipworm), infective oral route (eggs), may cause bloody diarrhea and large bowel inflammation

72
Q

Cystoisospora

A

(Isospora/Protozoa/coccidia), overcrowding, kennels, poor sanitation, and stress, rodents are carriers

73
Q

Protozoa

A

Cryptosporidium (contaminated water), Giardia (contaminated water, waxing and waning vomiting and diarrhea), Toxoplasma (cats are definitive host, immunocompromised)

74
Q

Taenia

A

(tapeworm - multiple species), cattle, rodents, rabbits, and sheep can be intermediate host, zoonotic

75
Q

Dipylidium

A

(tapeworm) from fleas, aka cucumber tape worm, transmitted from fleas to pets via ingestion

76
Q

Which lymph nodes can be palpated in a healthy animal?

A

Submandibular, prescapular, popliteal

77
Q

characteristics of 5% Dehydration

A

undetectable

78
Q

characteristics of 5-8% Dehydration

A

mild delay in return of skin to normal position, normal to slightly prolonged CRT, mm=tacky

79
Q

characteristics of 8-10% Dehydration

A

definite delay in return of skin to normal position, slightly prolonged CRT, mm=dry/tacky, eyes may be sunken into orbits

80
Q

characteristics of 10-12% Dehydration

A

skin easily tents and stands in place, prolonged CRT, dry mucous membranes, eyes sunken into orbits/Nictitans prominent, signs of shock may be observed (tachycardia, weak pulse)

81
Q

characteristics of 12-15% Dehydration

A

shock, collapse, severe depression, imminent death

82
Q

Complications that may occur during venipuncture

A

subcutaneous hematoma, hemorrhage, thrombosis of the vein, skin irritation at needle penetration site

83
Q

What fundamental knot is used in suturing due to its ability to lie flat and maintain slipping

A

Surgeon’s knot??

84
Q

What is the main reason for administration of IV fluids during a procedure?

A

hmmm?

VET - ClinAppii/iii (5 decks)

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