Cardiology 1 Flashcards

(66 cards)

1
Q

What are the common presenting symptoms of aortic stenosis?

A

Syncope
CP
SOB, orthopnoea, PND, palps, fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Clinical signs of aortic stenosis?

A

Narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse
Heaving LV apex
Soft or absent HS2 plus ejection systolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Complications of aortic stenosis?

A

LVF
Endocarditis
Damage to AV node -> heart blocks/arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Surgical options for aortic stenosis?

A

Transcatheter Aortic Valve Implantation TAVI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5 causes of aortic regurgitation?

A
Aortic dissection
Congenitally bicuspid
Infection 
Degenerative 
Inflammatory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Clinical signs of aortic regurgitation?

A

End diastolic murmur (Austin Flint), 3HS if lean forward
Apex beat moves due to LVH
Wide pulse pressure, bounding pulse effects in various places

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common cause of congenital tricuspid regurgitation?

A

Ebsteins anomaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Clinical signs of tricuspid regurgitation?

A

Signs of RVF incl Rosenbach pulsatile liver
Parasternal heaves/thrills
Pansystolic murmur at LSF louder on inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Common causes of mitral regurgitation?

A

Usuals
Papillary muscle rupture - MI, IE
Ring dilatation secondary to LVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Clinical signs of mitral regurgitation?

A

Signs of LVF
Apical thrill
Pansystolic murmur radiating to axilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What arrhythmia is related to mitral stenosis and how?

A

Mitral stenosis causes increased LA pressure and can cause AF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

3 main causes of aortic stenosis?

A

Congenitally bicuspid
Degenerative
Infective (rheumatic - though normally mitral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3 types of ACS?

A

Unstable angina
STEMI
NSTEMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the difference between stable and unstable angina?

A

Stable is atheromatous plaque formation in coronary arteries leading to chest pain, SOB, tachy, palps etc. on exertion
Unstable is rupture of plaque causing resting symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What combo of investigations/clinical picture is suggestive of unstable angina?

A

Symptoms occurring at rest

Normal ECG and cardiac markers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

First line management and advice of stable angina?

A

Short acting nitrate PRN (GTN spray)

Advise of SEs, tell to use twice 5 mins apart and if not better after 10 call ambulance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Apart from GTN spray, first line drugs for stable angina?

A

Beta blockers or calcium channel blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Management of angina after first line?

A

Long acting nitrate (isosorbide)
Nicorandil
Add either to B blocker or Ca channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Secondary prevention drugs in ischaemic heart disease?

A

Aspirin
Statins
ACEi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

2 operations for revascularisation in IHD?

A

CABG

PCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Drug of choice for symptom management in CCF?

A

Diuretics (furosemide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3 drugs to slow disease process in CCF?

A

ACEi
B blockers
Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

2 most common causes of heart failure?

A

Hypertension

IHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Normal PR interval?

A

120-200ms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
What is first degree heart block?
A long PR interval >200ms
24
What is Mobitz type I second degree heart block?
Wenkebach - progressive PR elongation until dropped QRS | E.g. 4:3 Mobitz I
25
What is Mobitz type II second degree heart block?
Intermittent non-conduction of P->QRS complexes with no change in PR interval
26
What helps to differentiate type I from type II second degree heart block?
Progressive PR elongation in I | No change in II
27
What does type I second degree heart block suggest malfunction of?
AV node
28
What does type II second degree heart block suggest malfunction of?
Purkinje fibres/His bundle
29
Which type of second degree heart block is Wenkebach?
Type I
30
Which type of second degree heart block is worse and why?
Type II because it can progress to complete heart block
31
What is third degree heart block?
Complete lack of atrial-> ventricular conduction, leading to separate atrial and ventricular rhythms
32
What infectious disease can cause complete heart block?
Lyme disease
33
Management of third degree heart block?
Needs dual chamber pacemaker
34
What does a LAD artery blockage result in?
An anterior MI with ST elevation in V1-6
35
What artery is responsible for an anterior MI?
LAD
36
What artery is responsible for an inferior MI?
RCA
37
Which artery is responsible for a lateral MI?
Left circumflex
38
Progression of acute STEMI on ECG?
Ischaemia - ST depression, T wave elevation and inversion Injury - ST elevation Infarct and tissue necrosis - Q wave depth (pathological)
39
What are pathological Q waves due to?
Scar tissue formation
40
What normally constitutes sinus arrhythmia?
HR increasingly slightly on inspiration due to inhibition of vagal tone and increased sympathetic activity
41
What is pulsus paradoxus?
BP fall of over 10mmHg on inspiration due to pressure equalisation in the heart chambers
42
Major causes of pulsus paradoxus?
Cardiac tamponade, constrictive pericarditis Massive PE, pneumothorax, COPD Shock
43
Normal paper speed of ECG trace?
25mm/sec
44
How long is one big square in ECG trace?
0.2 seconds
45
How to work out rate from rhythm strip?
300/no. of big squares between QRS | OR 6x no. of QRS in the rhythm strip in 10s
46
Normal QRS interval on ECG?
Less than 200ms
47
2 shockable heart rhythms?
Pulseless VT | VF
48
What is the QRS hallmark of VT?
Broad complex tachycardia
49
What might you suspect in an otherwise CV-healthy patient who presents with mild CP, SOB, fever following a viral illness?
Myocarditis
50
Describe pericarditic chest pain?
Sharp pain at left precordium radiating through to back, better sitting forward
51
Differentiating angina vs pericarditic pain?
Pericarditic is affected by posture (better sitting forward) not activity Angina often activity-dependant and doesn't radiate through to back
52
What disease can cause a cardiac tamponade over a long period of time which can accumulate large volumes of fluid?
Hypothyroid (myxoedema)
53
Becks triad of cardiac tamponade?
Hypotensive Distended jugular veins Distant heart sounds
54
2 differentials for AF? (Irregularly irregular pulse)
Multifocal ventricular ectopics | SVT with variable AV block
55
Is a fourth heart sound ever normal?
No
56
Which murmur is listened for with the patient rolled onto their left in expiration?
Mitral stenosis
57
Which murmur is listened for with patient leaning forward in expiration?
Aortic regurgitation
58
What type of murmurs generally are best listened for with the patient in expiration?
Diastolic murmurs
59
Which valve disease causes a malar flush?
Mitral stenosis
60
Which valve disease is characterised by an opening snap followed by a low pitched mid diastolic murmur?
Mitral stenosis
61
First line investigation of heart failure if previous MI?
Echo within 2 weeks
62
First line investigation if heart failure suspected but no previous MI?
Measure serum BNP
63
5 causes of a falsely elevated BNP?
``` CKD Liver cirrhosis Chronic hypoxia (COPD) Sepsis Old age ```
64
4 features of ToF?
Large VSD Overriding aorta Pulmonary stenosis RVH