Cardiopulmonary Flashcards
(101 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is most likely to result in decreased lung compliance?
A. Asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Cystic fibrosis
A
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
2
Q
Adventitious breath sounds that are musical in nature would be classified as?
A. Bronchial
B. Vesicular
C. Wheezes
D. Crackles
A
C. Wheezes
3
Q
What condition would be most commonly associated with transient pressure or discomfort resulting from myocardial ischemia.
A. Aneurysm
B. Angina pectoris
C. Congenital heart defect
D. Heart murmur
A
B. Angina pectoris
4
Q
Which term is a measure of left ventricular contractility?
A. Ejection fraction
B. Atrial kick
C. Preload
D. Stroke volume
A
A. Ejection fraction
5
Q
What type of sputum is most commonly associated with pulmonary edema?
A. Fetid
B. purulent
C. Hemoptysis
D. Frothy
A
D. Frothy
6
Q
Which lung segment would require the patient to be in sitting when performing postural drainage?
A. Apical segments of the upper lobe
B. Posterior segments of the upper lobe
C. Posterior basal segment
D. Right middle lobe
A
A. Apical segments of the upper lobe
7
Q
What is the gold standard when attempting to confirm a deep vein thrombosis?
A. Duplex Ultrasonography
B. Venography
C. MRI
D. Angiogram
A
B. Venography
8
Q
An embolus dislodged from the bifurcation of the right and left pulmonary artery is termed;
A. Fibrin clot
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Pulmonary Embolism
D. Saddle Embolus
A
D. Saddle Embolus
9
Q
Which of the following structures carries oxygenated blood?
A. Superior vena cava
B. Inferior ven a cava
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Alveoli
A
C. Pulmonary vein
10
Q
The cardiac notch is located which structure?
A. Heart
B. Diaphragm
C. Right lung
D. Left lung
A
D. Left lung
11
Q
Rheumatic heart disease often occurs following an acute infection of what type of bacteria?
A. Streptococcus
B. Influenza
C. Staphylococcus
D. Escherichia coli
A
A. Streptococcus
12
Q
Which of the following would be a criterion for terminating an exercise stress test?
A. Blood pressure of 170/80 mmHg
B. First-degree heart block
C. Sinus tachycardia
D. Miderate angina
A
D. Miderate angina
13
Q
Which pulse site is assessed by palpating between the first and second metatarsal bones near the center of the long axis of the foot?
A. Lateral plantar artery
B. Dorsal pedal artery
C. Posterior tibial artery
D. Fibular artery
A
B. Dorsal pedal artery
14
Q
Which pulmonary function test value refers to the volume change that occurs between maximal inspiration and maximal expiration?
A. Tidal volume
B. Vital capacity
C. Minute volume ventilation
D. Functional residual capacity
A
B. Vital capacity
15
Q
Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for postural drainage performed in the Trendelenburg position?
A. Uncontrolled hypertension
B. Atelectasis
C. impaired cough
D. Retained secretions
A
A. Uncontrolled hypertension
16
Q
What pulmonary test is conducted by auscultating over the patient’s thorax while the patient repeats “99”?
A. Bronchophony
B. Egophony
C. Whispered pectoriloquy
D. Focal fremitus
A
A. Bronchophony
17
Q
Which of the following would be least likely to result in a deep veni thrombosis?
A. Prolonged inactivity
B. Injury to the endothelium
C. Hypercoagulopathy
D. Arterial insufficiency
A
D. Arterial insufficiency
18
Q
In patients with congestive heart failure, prolonged use of Lasix may lead to:
A. Thiamine deficiency
B. Vitamin C deficiency
C. Renal disease
D. Anemia
A
A. Thiamine deficiency
19
Q
The process of respiration is facilitated by all of the following lung tissue properties except:
A. Elasticiity
B. Compliance
C. Surface tensin
D. Plasticity
A
D. Plasticity
20
Q
What condition would be most commonly associated with chronic inflammation of the airways caused by an increased airway hypersensitivity to various stimuli?
A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
B. Atelectasis
C. Asthma
D. Bronchitis
A
C. Asthma
21
Q
A loow pH and elevated PCO2 due to alveolar hypoventilation can result in?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
A
C. Respiratory acidosis
22
Q
What is the most appropriate rate of deflation when assessing blood pressure?
A. 1 - 2 mm Hg per second
B. 2 - 3 mm Hg per second
C. 3 - 4 mm Hg per second
D. 4 - 5 mm Hg per second
A
B. 2 - 3 mm Hg per second
23
Q
What is the double-walled connective tissue sac that surrounds the outside of the heart and great vessels?
A. Endocardium
B. Epicardium
C. Myocardium
D. Pericardium
A
D. Pericardium
24
Q
Functional residual accounts fro approximately what percentage of the total lung capacity?
A. 30%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%
A
B. 40%
25
Which test is used t differentiate between restrictive and obstructive disease?
A. X-ray
B. Airway conductance
C. Stress test
D. Static lung volume
D. Static lung volume
26
Which of the following patients would most likely need to use a rating of perceived exertion scale when self-monitoring exercise intensity?
A. A patient taking diuretics
B. A patient with neuropathy in the hands
C. A patient with coronary artery disease
D. A patient with bradycardia
B. A patient with neuropathy in the hands
27
Which f the following cells and cellular components do not play a role in asthma?
A. Neutrophils
B. Mast cells
C. Platelets
D. Macrophages
C. Platelets
28
Which condition is the drug digitalis commonly used to treat?
A. Arteriosclerosis
B. Cardiac arrhythmias
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D. Pulmonary stenosis
B. Cardiac arrhythmias
29
Which condition would most likely be associated with a decrease in blood pressure?
A. Anxiety
B. Dehydration
C. Exercise
D. Muscle contraction
B. Dehydration
30
A radiologic examination that injects a contrast medium into blood vessels is called a/an?
A. Venography
B. Invasive hemodynamic monitoring
C. Echocardiography
D. Angiography
D. Angiography
31
In fetal heart circulation, which structure connects the two atria?
A. Ligamentum arteriosum
B. Ductus arteriosus
C. Foramen ovale
D. Patent ductus arterioosus
C. Foramen ovale
32
What condition would be most commonly associated with coronary artery blood flow being severely reduced or completely cut off causing irreversible necrosis to the myocardium?
A. Heart failure
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Myocarditis
B. Myocardial infarction
33
What is the leading preventable cause of coronary artery disease?
A. Alcoholism
B. Hypertension
C. Elevated density lipoproteins
D. Smoking
D. Smoking
34
What condition would be considered a progressive obstructive lung disease that produces abnormal dilation of the bronchus?
A. Bronchitis
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D. Cystic fibrosis
B. Bronchiectasis
35
In which of the following scenarios would a pharmacologic stress test most likely be used to diagnose a cardiovascular condition?
A. The patient is unable to exercise
B. The patient has medication allergies
C. The patient has food allergies
D. The patient has a sedentary lifestyle
A. The patient is unable to exercise
36
Which breathing pattern is used to describe a normal rate and depth of breathing?
A. Biot's
B. Eupnea
C. Kussmaul's
D. Paradoxial
B. Eupnea
37
Which group would tend to have the highest resting respiratory rates?
A. Infant
B. Toddler
C. Preschooler
D. Adolescent
A. Infant
38
When auscultating the heart, which of the following would not create audible sound?
A. Turbulent blood flow
B. Laminar blood flow
C. Stenotic values
D. Valvular regrgitatioon
B. Laminar blood flow
39
The Borg's Rating of Perceived Exertion Scale rates a patient's perceived level of exertion subjectively according to which numbering system?
A. 1 - 5
B. 6 - 20
C. 1 - 100
D. 10 - 100
B. 6 - 20
40
When using an oral airway oscillation device, how many exhalation repetitions would be the most desirable before the two large exhalations?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 25
D. 35
B. 15
41
Which pulmonary function test value refers to the volume of gas remaining in the lungs at the end of a maximal expiration?
A. Expiratory reserve volume
B. Anatomic dead space volume
C. Residual volume
D. Viital capacity
C. Residual volume
42
When using Borg's (20-point) Rating of Perceived Exertion Scale, what value would most often correlate with the intensity fo the warm-up portion of an exercise program?
A. 7
B. 10
C. 13
D. 16
B. 10
43
A rating of perceived exertion value of 16 using Borg's (20-point) Rating of Perceived Exertion Scale correlates with which of the following maximum heart rate percentages?
A. 25%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 85%
D. 85%
44
Lab results showing elevated hematocrit, hypernatremia, and elevated protein levels would be most indicative of:
A. Asthma
B. Hypovolemia
C. Hypervolemia
D. Orthopnea
B. Hypovolemia
45
Which respiratory value would be most anticipated for an adult with bradypnea?
A. 8 breaths per minute
B. 12 breaths per minute
C. 16 breaths per minute
D. 20 breaths per minute
A. 8 breaths per minute
46
Which action on the heart or vascular system results from utilization of a cholinergic drug?
A. Dilation of innervated vessels
B. Increased venous return
C. Decreased internodal delay
D. Increased force of contraction
A. Dilation of innervated vessels
Cholinergic drug activates the parasympathetic nervous system which causes relaxation of vessels and decreases the work load on the heart.
47
Which type of medication is given prophylactically to prevent thrombus formation?
A. Antiplatelet agents
B. Calcium-channel blockers
C. Nitrates
D. Thrombolytic agents
A. Antiplatelet agents
48
Which of the following airway clearance techniques can a patient perform independently after proper instruction?
A. Percussion
B. Vibration
C. High frequency chest compression
D. Active cycle breathing techniques
D. Active cycle breathing techniques
49
Central venous pressure measures filling pressure of the:
A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Left ventricle
A. Right atrium
50
What condition would be most commonly associated with one or more arteries in the lungs becoming blocked?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Emphysema
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Restrictive lung disease
A. Pulmonary embolism
51
Which abnormal heart sound is associated with congestive heart failure?
A. S1
B. S2
C. S3
D. S4
C. S3
52
Which piece of objective data would most likely result in a therapist determining that a patient is unable to participate in a scheduled airway clearance session?
A. Blood pressure: 145/87 mm Hg
B. Heart rate of 101 beats per minute
C. Oxygen saturation of 88%
D. Intracranial pressure of 22 mm Hg
D. Intracranial pressure of 22 mm Hg
53
Which of the following nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is often utilized following myocardial infarction?
A. Acetylsalicylic acid
B. Ibuprofen
C. Naproxen
D. Acetaminophen
A. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) is commonly prescribed to decrease the risk of myocardial infarction for at risk individuals.
54
Which of the following is not one of the four classic defects that compose the heart condition known as tetralogy of Fallot?
A. Pulmonary stenosis
B. Ventricular septal defect
C. Aortic communication with both ventricles
D. Right atrial hypertrophy
D. Right atrial hypertrophy - Tetralogy of Fallot includes right ventricular hypertrophy, not right atrial hypertrophy. The condition is often diagnosed during infancy, but in some instances may not be detected until later in life, depending on the severity of the defects and symptoms.
55
Which pulse site is assessed by palpating on the medial aspect of the foot inferior and slightly posterior to the medial malleolus?
A. Dorsal pedal artery
B. Medial plantar artery
C. Popliteal artery
D. Posterior tibial artery
D. Posterior tibial artery
56
Which of the following coronary arteries typically supplies blood to the atrioventricular node?
A. Right coronary artery
B. Left coronary artery
C. Left anterior descending artery
D. Left circumflex artery
A. Right coronary artery
57
What is the proper description of the path of deoxygenated blood in the body?
A. vena cava, right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery
B. Vena cava, right ventricle, right atrium, pulmonary artery
C. Vena cava, pulmonary, right atrium, right ventricle
D. Vena cava, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, right atrium
A. vena cava, right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery
58
A technique used by patients with pulmonary disease in order to decrease task associated fatigue would be termed:
A. Postural drainage
B. Active cycle of breathing
C. Pacing
D. Pursed lip breathing
C. Pacing
59
Healthy adults between the ages of 18 and 65 years old should engage in aerobic activity consisting of:
A. 60 minutes of light aerobic activity 7 days a week
B. 45 minutes of moderate aerobic activity 3 days a week
C. 30 minutes of moderate aerobic activity 5 days a week
D. 15 minutes of vigorous aerobic activity 3 days a week
C. 30 minutes of moderate aerobic activity 5 days a week
60
What impact wiil hyperventilation have on a patient's arterial blood gas?
A. Lower the pH
B. Decrease the PaO2
C. Decrease the PaCO2
D. Increase the PaCO2
C. Decrease the PaCO2
61
What surgical procedure would have the greatest incidence of deep vein thrombosis?
A. Achilles tendon repair
B. Anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction
C. Rotator cuff repair
D. Total hip arthroplasty
D. Total hip arthroplasty
62
Where do majority of blood clots originate that result in a pulmonary embolus?
A. Upper extremity arteries
B. Upper extremity veins
C. Lower extremity arteries
D. Lower extremity veins
D. Lower extremity veins
63
Normal breath sounds heard over the distal airways in healthy lung tissue is best termed:
A. Bronchial
B. Vesicular
C. Adventitious
D. Rales
B. Vesicular
64
What is the most common congenital heart defect?
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Patent ductus arteriosus
C. Ventricular septal defect
65
Which of the following represents a normal platelet count?
A. 50,000/mm3
B. 200,000/mm3
C. 500,000/mm3
D. 800,000/mm3
B. 200,000/mm3
66
What method would be the most appropriate to determine a patient's response to exercise assuming that they recently began taking beta blockers?
A. Respiration rate
B. Blood pressure
C. Heart rate
D. Rating of perceived exertion
D. Rating of perceived exertion
67
What breathing pattern describes absence of spontaneous breathing?
A. Apnea
B. Biot's
C. Eupnea
D. Hypopnea
A. Apnea
68
Sputum that is white or gray may indicate what disease or infection?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Pulmonary edema
C. COPD
D. Bacterial infections (ex. pneumonia)
C. COPD
69
Sputum that is yellow or green may indicate what disease or infection?
A. Bacterial infections (ex. pneumonia), lung abscess, bronchiectasis
B. COPD, asthma
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Black lung disease (coal inhalation)
A. Bacterial infections (ex. pneumonia), lung abscess, bronchiectasis
70
Sputum that is pink or bloody may indicate what disease or infection?
A. Pulmonary edema, lung cancer
B. COPD, asthma
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Pneumococcal pneumonia
A. Pulmonary edema, lung cancer
71
A 3rd heart sound in an adult may be associated with what condition often called "ventricular gallop"?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Hypertension
C. Heart failure
D. Stenosis
C. Heart failure
72
Abnormal breaths sounds heard with inspiration and/or expiration that can be continuous or discontinuous?
A. Crackle
B. Adventitious
C. Plural friction rib
D. Stridor
B. Adventitious
73
An abnormal, discontinuous, high-pitched popping sound heard more often during inspiration. May be associated with restrictive or obstructive respiratory disorders.
A. Stridor
B. Plural friction rub
C. Wheeze
D. Crackle
D. Crackle
74
A dry, crackling sound heard during both inspiration and expiration describes what abnormal breath sound?
A. Stridor
B. Plural friction rub
C. Wheeze
D. Crackle
B. Plural friction rub
75
A continuous high-pitched wheeze heard with inspiration or expiration describes what abnormal breath sound?
A. Wheeze
B. Rhonchi
C. Stridor
D. Crackle
C. Stridor
76
What pulse point is medial to the biceps tendon and lateral to the medial epicondyle of the humerus?
A. Brachial
B. Carotid
C. Radial
D. Ulnar
A. Brachial
77
What pulse point is located at the wrist, lateral to the flexor carpi radialis tendon?
A. Brachial
B. Carotid
C. Radial
D. Ulnar
C. Radial
78
What pulse point is located at the wrist between the flexor digitorum superificalis and the flexor carpi ulnaris tendons?
A. Brachial
B. Carotid
C. Radial
D. Ulnar
D. Ulnar
79
What pulse point is located in the upper thigh, one-third of the distance from the pubis to the anterior superior iliac spine?
A. Femoral
B. Dorsalis pedis
C. Popliteal
D. Posterior tibial
A. Femoral
80
What pulse point is located in the space between the medial malleolus and the Achilles tendon, above the calcaneus?
A. Femoral
B. Dorsalis pedis
C. Popliteal
D. Posterior tibial
D. Posterior tibial
81
What pulse point is located near the center of the long axis of the foot, between the first and second metatarsal bones?
A. Femoral
B. Dorsalis pedis
C. Popliteal
D. Posterior tibial
B. Dorsalis pedis
82
Which function of the lungs will increase as the oxygen demand and the volume of carbon dioxide in the blood increases?
A. Inspiratory pause time
B. Expiratory positive airway pressure
C. Minute ventilation
D. Expiratory time
C. Minute ventilation
83
What finding is most likely to cause a bruit identified during auscultation?
A. Narrowing of an artery
B. Narrowing of a vein
C. Widening of an artery
D. Widening of a vein
A. Narrowing of an artery
84
A heart valve that does not open completely is considered?
A. Incompetent
B. Closed
C. Insufficient
D. Stenotic
D. Stenotic
85
What is the method by which pulmonary hypertension may lead to congestive heart failure?
A. Increased right ventricle preload
B. Increased left ventricle preload
C. Increased right ventricle afterload
D. Increased left ventricle afterload
C. Increased right ventricle afterload
86
A physical therapist assistant works on transfer training with a patient who is currently taking a calcium channel blocker medication. Which side effect is MPST likely to occur during the session secondary to the use of this medication?
A. Postural hypotension
B. Tachycardia
C. Sedatioon
D. Cardiac arrhythmias
A. Postural hypotension
Calcium channel blocker agents decrease the entry of calcium into vascular smooth muscle cells resulting in diminished myocardial contraction, vasodilation, and decreased oxygen demand of the heart.
87
What condition would be most commonly associated with an inflammation of the lungs usually caused by bacterial, viral, fungal or parasitic infection?
A. Pleural effusion
B. Pneumonia
C. Emphysema
D. Cystic fibrosis
B. Pneumonia
88
In individuals with emphysema, which muscle exhibits reduced activity?
A. Rectus abdominis
B. Diaphragm
C. Anterior scalene
D. Upper trapezius
B. Diaphragm - Emphysema is characterized by a hyperinflation of the lungs resulting in a flattening of the diaphragm and a chronic expansion of the rib cage (barrel chest). As a result, the diaphragm is unable to function correctly. This results in increased accessory muscle use and increased work of breathing.
89
Which of the following would be classified as a calcium channel blocker agent?
A. Propranolol
B. Lipitor
C. Digoxin
D. Verapamil
D. Verapamil - Verapamil is classified as a calcium channel blocker agent. Other calcium channel blocker agents include amlodipine, nifedipine, and diltiazem.
90
Which of the following is considered a normal bicarbonate level in the blood?
A. 25 mEq/L
B. 30 mEq/L
C. 35 mEq/L
D. 40 mEq/L
A. 25 mEq/L - Bicarbonate (HCO3-) is an ion that plays an important role in the pH buffering system in the blood. A normal bicarbonate level in the blood is 22-26 mEq/L.
91
What condition can result in the compression of the heart by fluid?
A. Pericardial effusion
B. Pulmonary effusion
C. Pleuritis
D. Heart valve insufficiency
A. Pericardial effusion - Injury to the pericardium can cause pericarditis which progresses to pericardial effusion as fluid fills the pericardial sac. This event compresses the myocardium, causing problems in pumping efficiency.
92
Which patient age group would be most likely to have the lowest recorded diastolic blood pressure?
A. Children
B. Infants
A. Adolescents
D. Elderly
B. Infants - Systolic and diastolic blood pressure are lowest at birth and gradually increase with age.
93
Which of the following patients would most likely require medical clearance before beginning an exercise program?
A. 50-year-old male with a family history of cancer
B. 40-year-old female with a body mass index of 33
C. 35-year-old male with bilateral ankle edema
D. 65-year-old female with blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg
C. 35-year-old male with bilateral ankle edema - Before beginning an exercise program, patients should be classified as low, moderate or high risk based on their diagnosed medical conditions, signs and symptoms associated with major medical conditions, and risk factors associated with cardiovascular disease. A patient is considered high risk, and therefore would need medical clearance before beginning exercise, if they are diagnosed with or have signs and symptoms associated with a cardiovascular, pulmonary or metabolic disease.
94
What is the normal diastolic blood pressure response during exercise?
A. No change in diastolic blood pressure.
B. Progressive increase corresponding to the increase in systolic blood pressure.
C. Progressive decrease in diastolic blood pressure.
D. Rapid, but small, increase within the first 10 minutes of exercise followed by a plateau.
A. No change in diastolic blood pressure. - The normal response to exercise is no change or a slight decrease in diastolic blood pressure.
95
Which substance facilitates endothelial vasodilation?
A. Insulin
B. Epinephrine
C. Caffeine
D. Nitric oxide
D. Nitric oxide
96
Which of the following acute changes would be considered a normal response to aerobic exercise?
A. A linear decrease in diastolic blood pressure
B. A linear increase in diastolic blood pressure
C. A decrease in tidal volume
D. An increase in tidal volume
D. An increase in tidal volume
97
What sound is often heard as blood flows through an insufficient valve?
A. Whistling sound
B. Gurgling sound
C. Swishing sound
D. Popping sound
C. Swishing sound
98
A patient that exhibits orthopnea would most likely have difficulty breathing when positioned in:
A. Standing
B. Sitting
C. Modified plantigrade
D. Supine
D. Supine
99
The pulse pressure of a patient with a systolic blood pressure of 119 mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure of 79 mm Hg would be:
A. 40 mm Hg
B. 90 mm Hg
C. 100 mm Hg
D. 198 mm Hg
A. 40 mm Hg
100
What condition would be most commonly associated with a sudden respiratory failure due to fluid A. Accumulation in the alveoli?
A. Asthma
B. Bronchial carcinoma
C. Bronchitis
D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
101
What condition would be most commonly associated with one or more arteries in the lungs becoming blocked?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Emphysema
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Restrictive lung disease
A. Pulmonary embolism
