Non-Systems Flashcards

(89 cards)

1
Q

A patient diagnosed with lateral epicondylitis is referred to physical therapy. The physical therapist assistant elects too use iontophoresis over the lateral epicondyle. Which type of current would the assistant use to administer the treatment?
A. Direct
B. Alternating
C. Pulsatile
D. Interferential

A

A. Direct

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2
Q

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient post Achilles tendon repair using cryotherapy. What cryotherapeutic agent would provide the greatest magnitude of tissue cooling?
A. Frozen gel packs
B. Ice massage
C. Vapocoolant spray
D. Cold water bath

A

B. Ice massage

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3
Q

Are precautions to reduce the risk of transmission of infectious agents through evaporated droplets in air or dust particles containing infectious agents?
A. Droplet precautions
B. Contact precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Standard precautions

A

C. Airborne precautions (Measles, Varicella, tuberculosis, SARS)

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4
Q

Are precautions to reduce the risk of transmission of infectious agents through contact of the mucous membrane of the mouth and nose, contact with the conjunctivae, and through coughing, sneezing, talking or suctioning. The transmission requires close contact.
A. Droplet precautions
B. Contact precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Standard precautions

A

A. Droplet precautions

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5
Q

Are precautions that reduce transmission if infectious agents through direct or indirect contact?
A. Droplet precautions
B. Standard precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Contact precautions

A

D. Contact precautions

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6
Q

When educating a patient on how to safely perform a balance exercise within the home, which would be the most appropriate?
A. Perform exercise while standing on a throw rug.
B. Perform exercise while multitasking.
C. Perform exercise within the corner of two walls.
D. Perform exercise with slippers on.

A

C. Perform exercise within the corner of two walls.

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7
Q

The principle that healthcare providers have the responsibility to provide all of the necessary information that a patient requires to make a healthcare decision is most consistent with?
A. Nonmaleficence
B. Informed consent
C. Beneficence
D. Autonomy

A

B. Informed consent

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8
Q

Which type of feeding is associated with the highest risk of aspiration?
A. Oral feeding
B. Nasogastric tube
C. Parenteral nutrition
D. Enteral nutrition

A

B. Nasogastric tube

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9
Q

What is the term when two therapists measure drastically different values on the same patient?
A. Poor internal validity
B. Poor external validity
C. Poor interrater reliability
D. Poor intrarater reliability

A

C. Poor interrater reliability

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10
Q

Which of the following is not a potential use of neuromuscular electrical stimulation?
A. Reduction of flexor tone and posturing of the hand.
B. Improvement of functional grasp.
C. Reduction of shoulder subluxation.
D. Improvement of sensation in an area of diminished sensation.

A

D. Improvement of sensation in an area of diminished sensation.

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11
Q

What is the proper order of assistive devices from the greatest assistance to least assistance?
A. Parallel bars, walker, axillary crutches, Lofstrand crutches, cane.
B. Parallel bars, axillary crutches, walker, Lofstrand crutches, cane.
C. Parallel bars, Lofstrand crutches, walker, axillary crutches, cane.
D. Parallel bars, Lofstrand crutches, axillary crutches, walker, cane.

A

A. Parallel bars, walker, axillary crutches, Lofstrand crutches, cane.

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12
Q

Which of the following terms best describes a set of beliefs that are meaningful in life and that act as a standard to guide behavior?
A. Behavior
B. Attitude
C. Values
D. Ethics

A

C. Values

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13
Q

Which medical imaging technique would best detect an intracranial bleed such as a stroke?
A. Computed tomography scan
B. Functional magnetic resonance imaging
C. Positron emission tomography
D. Magnetic resonance imaging

A

A. Computed tomography scan

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14
Q

How many inches above the seat should the top of the armrest be positioned in a standard wheelchair?
A. 5 inches
B. 7 inches
C. 9 inches
D. 11 inches

A

C. 9 inches

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15
Q

A health care provider’s hypothesis why a patient’s heart rate may be elevated would occur in which section of a S.O.A.P. note?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Plan
D. Assessment

A

D. Assessment

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16
Q

Which type of monitoring device is inserted through a vein into the pulmonary artery?
A. Central venous pressure catheter
B. Indwelling right atrial catheter
C. Hickman catheter
D. Swan-Ganz catheter

A

D. Swan-Ganz catheter - (pulmonary artery catheter) is a soft, flexible catheter that is inserted through a vein into the pulmonary artery.

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17
Q

This condition is commonly seen in patients spinal cord injury above the level of T6 in response to some noxious stimulus (e.g. bladder distention, tight clothing). Signs and symptoms include severe hypertension, bradycardia, perfuse sweating above the level of the lesion, headache, nausea, and red and blotchy skin.
A. Heart Attack
B. Autonomic Dysreflexia
C. Orthostatic Hypotension
D. Shock

A

B. Autonomic Dysreflexia

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18
Q

Occurs when a patient attempts to stand from a sitting or supine position. As a result of reduced venous return, perfusion of the brain decreases and results in symptoms of dizziness or syncope. Other symptoms may include weakness, altered vision, nausea, and confusion.
A. Orthostatic hypotension
B. Stroke
C. Shock
D. Autonomic Dysreflexia

A

A. Orthostatic hypotension

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19
Q

An emergent condition that typically include dropping or numbness on one side of the face, numbness or weakness of one arm, slurred speech, altered vision, headache, dizziness, lack of coordination, confusion, and loss of consciousness?
A. Orthostatic hypotension
B. Stroke
C. Shock
D. Autonomic Dysreflexia

A

B. Stroke

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20
Q

Fluidotherapy would primarily be used for to deliver?
A. Deep heat using circulating silicate particles
B. Deep heat using circulating cellulose particles
C. Superficial heat using circulating silicate particles.
D. Superficial heat using circulating cellulose particles.

A

D. Superficial heat using circulating cellulose particles.

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21
Q

When treating a patient with cold bath immersion, what water temperature would be most appropriate?
A. 45 - 54 degrees Fahrenheit
B. 55 - 64 degrees Fahrenheit
C. 65 - 74 degrees Fahrenheit
D. 75 - 84 degrees Fahrenheit

A

B. 55 - 64 degrees Fahrenheit - The water temperature for cold bath immersion should be between 55 - 64 degrees Fahrenheit. The body part should be immersed for 15 - 20 minutes to attain the desired therapeutic effects.

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22
Q

Which variables are most relevant when administering hydrotherapy?
A. Elevation and time
B. Pressure and time
C. Temperature and pressure
D. Temperature and elevation

A

C. Temperature and pressure

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23
Q

Which ion would most likely be used with iontophoresis to treat dermal ulcers and wounds?
A. Dexamethasone
B. Zinc oxide
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Salicylates

A

B. Zinc oxide

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24
Q

When guarding a patient during ambulation training, a therapist must consider all of the following except:
A. Height
B. Weight
C. Gender
D. Level of impairment

A

C. Gender

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25
The statement, "If I exercise five times a week, I will be healthier," is an example of a/an: A. Attitude B. Belief C. Value D. Moral
B. Belief
26
What level of physical assistance is best described by a patient that requires 25% assistance from the therapist to complete a sit to stand transfer? A. Contact guard B. Moderate assist C. Maximal assist D. Minimal assist
D. Minimal assist
27
What is the term for the approach to clinical decision making that integrates the best available evidence from research with clinical experience and patient preferences? A. Research utilization B. Evidence-based practice C. Nursing practice D. Experience-based practice
B. Evidence-based practice
28
Which massage technique is the most appropriate to loosen adhesions and to remove metabolic waste? A. Petrissage B. Friction C. Effleurage D. Vibration
A. Petrissage
29
If a patient is coking on a piece of food and coughing vigorously, what action should be taken by the health care provider? A. Provide abdominal thrusts just below the sternum. B. Provide abdominal thrusts just above the umbilicus. C. Provider abdominal thrusts just below the umbilicus. D. Stand by and monitor the situation.
D. Stand by and monitor the situation.
30
When using iontophoresis, which of the following medications would be indicated for treating a patient with shoulder adhesive capsulitis? A. Acetic acid B. Dexametthasone C. Iodine D. Lidocaine
C. Iodine
31
What level of physical assistance is most appropriate when a patient can perform an activity without assistance, but is often inconsistent, resulting in a potential loss of balance? A. Contact guard B. Minimal assistance C. Moderate assistance D. Maximal assistance
A. Contact guard
32
Which medical device is used to determine the oxygen saturation of blood? A. Arterial line B. Oximeter C. Pulmonary artery (Swan-Ganz) catheter D. Indwelling right atrial (Hickman) catheter
B. Oximeter
33
When considering wheelchair accessibility in the home, what is the minimum width needed for doorways? A. 26 inches B. 32 inches C. 38 inches D. 44 inches
B. 32 inches
34
Which precautions would be necessary when working with a patient with known influenza? A. Contact guard B. Airborne precautions C. Droplet precautions D. Neutropenic precautions
C. Droplet precautions
35
Which of the following diagnoses would require airborne precautions? A. Impetigo B. Cerebrovascular accident C. Clostridium difficile D. Tuberculosis
D. Tuberculosis
36
Which physiologic principle accounts for significantly reduced joint compression when walking in waist high water? A. Inertia B. Buoyancy C. Viscosity D. Hydrostatic pressure
B. Buoyancy
37
Under which precaution would a patient not be required to wear a mask when exiting their room? A. Contact precautions B. Standard precautions C. Droplet precautions D. Airborne precautions
A. Contact precautions
38
When documenting using a S.O.A.P. note format, where would be the most appropriate place to document the expected frequency and duration? A. Subjective section B. Objective section C. Assessment section D. Plan section
D. Plan section
39
Which of the following is not an effect of hydrostatic pressure potentially experienced by a patient in an aquatic environment? A. Decreased edema B. Decreased weight bearing C. Decreased venous return D. Decreased heart rate for a given workload
C. Decreased venous return - Hydrostatic pressure enhances venous return, which decreases heart rate if the workload is held constant.
40
Which of the following precaution would be unnecessary in the presence of Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus? A. Mask B. Gloves C. Gown D. Private room
A. Mask
41
Which of the following conditions is an indication for massage? A. Cellulitis B. Edema C. Acute injury D. Malignancy
B. Edema
42
An informed consent form should discuss all of the following elements except: A. The nature of the decision/procedure. B. The risks and benefits. C. Alternatives to the proposed intervention. D. The financial cost of the proposed intervention.
D. The financial cost of the proposed intervention.
43
Which of the following is not considered an appropriate patient identifier? A. The patient's name B. The patient's room number C. The patient's date of birth D. The patient's identification number
B. The patient's room number
44
A Pavlik harness would result in the hip being positioned in: A. Hip flexion and adduction B. Hip extension and abduction C. Hip flexion and abduction D. Hip extension adduction
C. Hip flexion and abduction A Pavlik harness is thee primary method of treating developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). DDH is a subluxed or dislocated hip in infancy as a result of abnormal congruency.
45
Which Medicare plan covers hospitalization for patients over the age of 65? A. Part A B. Part B C. Part C D. Part D
A. Part A
46
Which Medicare plan provides benefits for outpatient care, physician services, and services ordered by physicians such as diagnostic tests for patients over the age of 65? A. Part A B. Part B C. Part C D. Part D
B. Part B
47
Which Medicare plan provides as least a standard level of benefits for prescription drug coverage for patients over the age of 65? A. Part A B. Part B C. Part C D. Part D
D. Part D
48
Provides basic medical services to the economically indigent population who quality by reason of low income or who qualify for welfare or public assistance benefits in the state of their own residence. A. Medicare B. Children's Health Insurance Program C. Medicaid D. Department of Defense Military
C. Medicaid
49
Common devices used in healthcare facilities to prevent falls include all of the following except: A. Bed rails B. Restraints C. Nonskid slippers D. Locks on wheeled equipment
B. Restraints
50
Which term is best described as the complete collection of elements to be studied? A. Cohort B. Group C. Population D. Sample
C. Population
51
Which of the following would be an appropriate action for a syringe after a single injection? A. Re-cap and save for the next patient. B. Refill with another drug for the same patient. C. Discard into the trash. D. Discard into a clearly marked appropriate container.
D. Discard into a clearly marked appropriate container.
52
What position should an unconscious patient be placed in prior to performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation? A. Prone B. Supine C. Sidelying D. Fowler's
B. Supine
53
Which of the following should be performed first when using an automated external defibrillator? A. Power the defibrillator on. B. Prepare the patient by exposing the chest and attaching the electrodes. C. Place the patient in a prone position. D. Clear the patient's airway.
A. Power the defibrillator on.
54
Which of the following does not allow for independent or modified independent mobility? A. Sip-and-puff control B. Hemi-chair C. Transport chair D. Standard wheelchair
C. Transport chair A transport chair, pushchair or stroller requires assistance for mobility. Under appropriate circumstances, each of the others may be used for independent or modified independent mobility.
55
What type of heat transfer refers to the gain or loss of heat resulting from direct contact between two materials at different temperatures? A. Convection B. Conduction C. Evaporation D. Conversion
B. Conduction
56
What type of heat transfer refers to the gain or loss of heat resulting from air or water moving in a constant motion across the body? A. Convection B. Conduction C. Evaporation D. Conversion
A. Convection
57
What type of heat transfer refers to heating that occurs when non-thermal energy (e.g., mechanical, electrical) is absorbed into tissue and transformed into heat? A. Convection B. Conduction C. Evaporation D. Conversion
D. Conversion
58
What type of heat transfer refers to the transfer of heat that occurs as a liquid absorbs energy and changes form into a vapor? A. Radiation B. Conduction C. Evaporation D. Conversion
C. Evaporation
59
What type of heat transfer refers to the direct transfer of heat from a radiation energy source of higher temperature to one of cooler temperature? A. Radiation B. Conduction C. Evaporation D. Conversion
A. Radiation
60
The minimum electrical stimulation current amplitude required to produce an action potential is known as: A. Propagation B. Chronaxie C. Rheobase D. Accommodation
C. Rheobase - Rheobase refers to the minimum current amplitude of indefinite duration required to produce an action potential for any type of tissue. The relative ease by which a tissue can be stimulated is primarily determined by the strength of the stimulus and the duration the stimulus is applied.
61
A patient with a colostomy who expresses apprehension about participating in aquatic therapy should be educated by? A. Explaining that aquatic therapy is contraindicated for individuals with a colostomy. B. Explaining that aquatic therapy is appropriate for individuals with a colostomy. C. Explaining that the patient should participate in a different mode of exercise. D. Explaining that there is a high risk of the colostomy bag contaminating the pool
B. Explaining that aquatic therapy is appropriate for individuals with a colostomy.
62
What are the units associated with ultrasound frequency? A. cm2 B. W/cm2 C. Hertz D. Megahertz
D. Megahertz
63
Which mode of traction is indicated for an acute condition? A. Pulsed B. Static C. Intermittent D. Continuous
B. Static - Static traction is indicated for reduction of disk herniation, lengthening of soft tissue, and reduction of pain. This mode is chosen for more acute conditions to avoid the stretch reflex response and hypersensitivity of soft tissue that may be associated with intermittent traction.
64
In what section of a S.O.A.P. note should the results of a manual muscle test be recorded? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan
B. Objective
65
Which of the following temperatures represents an appropriate temperature setting for fluidotherapy? A. 105 degrees Fahrenheit B. 120 degrees Fahrenheit C. 135 degrees Fahrenheit D. 150 degrees Fahrenheit
A. 105 degrees Fahrenheit - Appropriate temperature for fluidotherapy should be between 100-118 degrees Fahrenheit. Fluidotherapy consists of a container that circulates warm air and small cellulose particles. The superficial heating modality generates dry heat through forced convection.
66
Which of the following electrical stimulation parameters would be the most appropriate when treating spasticity? A. Fast ramp time B. No ramp time C. Slow ramp time D. Constantly varying ramp time
C. Slow ramp time - A relatively slow ramp time with a low level contraction is the most appropriate when treating spasticity. A fast ramp time would likely trigger the spastic antagonist.
67
If a patient is trying to move upward in bed, what should their starting position be? A. Scapulae depressed, feet close to buttocks B. Scapulae elevated, feet close to buttocks C. Scapulae depressed, feet far away from buttocks D. Scapulae elevated, feet far away from buttocks
B. Scapulae elevated, feet close to buttocks - If a patient wishes to move upward in bed, they should begin with their hips and knees flexed with their feet close to their buttocks and with their scapulae elevated and elbows bent at their sides.
68
Which medical device would be used to remove fluid from the pleural space after surgery? A. Central venous line B. Chest tube C. Intraventricular catheter D. Vascular access port
B. Chest tube
69
Recommendations for continuation of physical therapy services following the conclusion of an inpatient hospitalization would most likely appear in which type of documentation? A. Plan of care B. Daily note C. Initial evaluation D. Discharge note
D. Discharge note
70
What does the acronym RACE stand for regarding a “code red”? A. rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish B. run, alarm, contain, extinguish C. rescue, alarm, contain, exit D. run, alarm, contain, exit
A. rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish “Code red” is often used to announce situations involving fire and smoke. The acronym RACE is used to express the steps to take in the event of a fire. RACE stands for rescue, alarm, contain, and extinguish.
71
Which gait pattern is most closely associated with a patient ambulating by moving the left crutch forward while simultaneously advancing the right lower extremity and vice versa? A. one-point B. two-point C. three-point D. four-point
B. two-point
72
Which electrical stimulation term is most associated with any alteration in the amplitude, duration or frequency of the current during a series of pulses or a cycle? A. Current modulation B. Frequency C. Phase duration D. Rise time
A. Current modulation
73
What type of scale is used on the Berg Balance Scale? A. Interval B. Nominal C. Ordinal D. Ratio
C. Ordinal
74
Health literacy would be expected to be highest in individuals that: A. Are less than 65 years of age B. Speak English as a second language C. Do not have a high school diploma D. Are a minority group
A. Are less than 65 years of age
75
Ideally the height of a step should be no higher than? A. 4 inches B. 7 inches C. 10 inches D. 13 inche
B. 7 inches - Ideally a step should be no taller than 7 inches and at least 11 inches deep. A step that is over 8 inches tall is particularly problematic for many individuals. Typically there is a half-inch overhang on each step called a nosing which can result in an individual catching their toe.
76
Which two principles does electrical stimulation operate on in order to strengthen muscles? A. Rheobase and chronaxie B. Sensitivity and specificity C. Overload and specificity D. Overload and tetany
C. Overload and specificity
77
All of the following are cross-sectional imaging techniques except: A. Conventional radiography B. Magnetic resonance imaging C. Computed tomography D. Positron emission tomography
A. Conventional radiography - Conventional radiography, which uses an X-ray machine, is used for recording the internal defects of an object on a radiographic film. X-rays do not create cross-sectional images.
78
When providing patient care, the bed should be: A. Pulled away from the wall B. At a proper working height for the therapist C. At the level the patient wants it D. As low as possible
B. At a proper working height for the therapist
79
Which of the following is not a homebound qualification? A. The patient has difficulty driving to medical appointments. B. The patient requires physical assistance outside of the home. C. The patient goes out once a week to attend religious services. D. The patient requires taxing effort to leave the home.
A. The patient has difficulty driving to medical appointments.
80
Which of the following are benefits of superficial heating agents? A. Decreased nerve conduction velocity, increased pain threshold. B. Increased nerve conduction velocity, decreased pain threshold. C. Increased nerve conduction velocity, increased pain threshold. D. Decreased nerve conduction velocity, decreased pain threshold.
C. Increased nerve conduction velocity, increased pain threshold.
81
The risk of periosteal overheating using ultrasound can be reduced by not sonating over: A. Myotendinous junctions B. Muscle bellies C. Bony prominences D. Plastic implants
C. Bony prominences - Periosteal overheating can occur from overzealous application of ultrasound over bony prominences. The risk of this occurring is substantially increased by failure to maintain consistent movement of the ultrasound head over bony areas.
82
All of the following methods of heat transfer would be considered examples of radiation except: A. Infrared lamp B. Ultrasound C. Laser D. Ultraviolet light
B. Ultrasound - Ultrasound transfers heat through conversion. Radiation refers to the direct transfer of heat from a radiation energy source of higher temperature to one of cooler temperature.
83
Which muscle group is most important when ambulating with axillary crutches? A. wrist extensors B. wrist flexors C. scapular elevators D. scapular depressors
D. scapular depressors - When ambulating with axillary crutches, it is important to keep the superior surface of the crutches from forcefully rising into the axilla. To accomplish this, the scapular depressors, such as the latissimus dorsi, need to actively control this movement.
84
A patient who is aware that their heavy alcohol use is contributing to their health problems, but is not yet willing to consider quitting, is in which of the transtheoretical model - stages of change? A. Precontemplation B. Contemplation C. Preparation D. Action
B. Contemplation
85
Which electrical stimulation term is most associated with the amount of time it takes for one phase of a pulse? A. Amplitude B. Frequency C. Phase duration D. Rise time
C. Phase duration
86
Health promotion that is implemented prior to the individual being diagnosed with a disease is considered? A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Tertiary prevention D. Quaternary prevention
A. Primary prevention - Primary prevention occurs as a form of health promotion prior to an individual obtaining an impairment or being diagnosed with a disease. Secondary prevention occurs promptly after an individual has been diagnosed with the goal of diminishing future health complications. Tertiary prevention occurs late in the disease state and focuses on returning the individual to an optimal level of functioning through restoration and rehabilitation.
87
Why is a slight anterior pelvic tilt important when positioning a patient in a wheelchair? A. Allows for weight bearing on the ischial tuberosities. B. Provides flexion in the low back and extension in the hips. C. Provides a stable base of support for control of the lower extremities. D. Allows for decreased lumbar lordosis
A. Allows for weight bearing on the ischial tuberosities.
88
Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of iontophoresis? A. Insensate skin B. Open wounds C. Adipose tissue D. Sensitive skin
A. Insensate skin -Insensate skin in the area to be treated is considered a contraindication for the use of iontophoresis since the patient cannot feel the current and provide accurate feedback related to intensity.
89
The loss of energy as ultrasound waves are transmitted through tissue best describes which term? A. Effective radiating area B. Attenuation C. Duty cycle D. Temporal average intensity
B. Attenuation