Musculoskeletal Flashcards by Lauren Addison

The patient is positioned in sitting or standing. The therapist flexes wrists maximally and asks the patient to hold the position for 60 seconds. A positive test is indicated by tingling in the thumb, index finger, middle finger, and lateral half of the ring finger and may be indicative of carpel tunnel syndrome.
A. Froment’s Sign
B. Tinel’s Sign
C. Phalen’s Test
D. Ely’s Test

C. Phalen’s Test

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The patient is positioned in prone while the therapist passively flexes the patient’s knee. A positive test is indicated by spontaneous hip flexion occurring simultaneously with knee flexion?
A. Ober’s Test
B. Ely’s Test
C. Thomas Test
D. Piriformis Test

B. Ely’s Test - indicative of a rectus femoris contracture.

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A patient is positioned in supine with the knee flexed to 90 degrees and the hip flexed to 45 degrees. The therapist stabilizes the lower leg by sitting on the forefoot. The therapist grasps the patient’s proximal tibia with two hands, places their thumbs on the tibial plateau, and administers an anterior directed force to the tibia. This special test is indicated by excessive anterior translation of the tibia on the femur.
A. Anterior Drawer Test
B. Lachman Test
C. Lateral Pivot Shift Test
D. Posterior Drawer Test

A. Anterior Drawer Test - Indicating an anterior cruciate ligament injury.

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What shoulder disorder occurs more often in the middle-aged population with females having a greater incidence than males. Range of motion restriction typically in a capsular pattern (lateral rotation, abduction, medial rotation). Often characterized by inflammation and fibrotic thickening of the anterior joint capsule of the shoulder. Physical therapy is usually prescribed on an outpatient basis for three to five months after diagnosis. This disorder usually follows a nonlinear patter of recovery. Spontaneous recovery is said to take place 12-24 months in duration.
A. Lateral epicondylitis
B. Rotator Cuff Tear
C. Bicipital Tendonitis
D. Adhesive Capsulitis

D. Adhesive Capsulitis

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The vast majority of ankle sprains occur due to?
A. Significant eversion involving damage to the deltoid ligament
B. Medial Ligament Complex
C. Significant inversion involving the lateral ligament complex.
D. Damage to one or more of the syndesmotic ligament commonly referred to as a “high ankle sprain.”

C. Significant inversion involving the lateral ligament complex

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Which lateral ligament is the most likely to sustain damage during a lateral ankle sprain?
A. ATFL, Anterior talofibular
B. CFL, Calcaneofibular
C. PTFL, posterior talofibular

A. ATFL

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What special test specifically assesses the integrity of the anterior talofibular ligament.
A. Talar Tilt Test
B. Anterior Drawer Test
C. Thompson Test
D. Lachman Test

B. Anterior Drawer Test

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An “unhappy triad” is referred to when what structures are damaged?
A. ACL, PCL, medial meniscus
B. MCL, PCL, Medial meniscus
C. ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus
D. MCL, PCL, and lateral meniscus

C. ACL, MCL and medial meniscus

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The most common mechanism of injury for a PCL sprain is?
A. Dashboard injury
B. Knee hyperextension and rapid deceleration
C. Knee hyperflexion
D. Landing in an unbalanced position

A. Dashboard injury

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An inflammatory process of the tendon of the long head of the biceps. Repeated full abduction and lateral rotation of the humeral head can lead to irritation that produces inflammation, edema, microscopic tears within the tendon, and degeneration of the tendon itself. Often caused by continuous or repetitive overhead shoulder motion. Examples of high risk athletes include baseball pitchers, tennis players, gymnasts, rowers, and simmers.
A. Glenoid labrum tear
B. Bicipital Tendonitis
C. Rotator Cuff Tendonitis
D. Bankart lesion

B. Bicipital Tendonitis

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Lateral Epicondylitis is also referred to as _________________ ?

Tennis Elbow

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What condition is characterized by inflammation or degenerative changes at the common extensor tendon?
A. Medial Epicondylitis
B. Rotator Cuff Tendonitis
C. Lateral Epicondylitis
D. Bicipital Tendonitis

C. Lateral Epicondylitis

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What ligament is the primary stabilizer of the medial side of the knee against valgus force.
A. Lateral collateral ligament
B. Medial Collateral Ligament
C. Anterior Cruciate ligament
D. Posterior Cruciate Ligament

B. Medial Collateral Ligament

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A type of non-invasive imaging technique that can be utilized to view soft tissue structures such as a ligament?
A. MRI
B. X-ray
C. Arthrogram
D. Bone scan

A. MRI

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Is a degenerative chronic disorder resulting from the biochemical breakdown of articular cartilage in the synovial joints?

Osteoarthritis

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Other factors associated with patellofemoral syndrome include?

Patella alta
Insufficient lateral femoral condyle
Weak VMO
Excessive pronation
Excessive knee valgus
Lower extremity tightness in muscles such as iliopsoas, hamstrings, gastrocnemius, and vastus laterais

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A patient with patellofemoral syndrome that undergoes conservative management may be able to return to their previous activities within ___________?
A. 2 -3 months
B. 4 - 6 weeks
C. 8 - 10 weeks
D. 3 - 5 months

B. 4 - 6 weeks

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A chronic overuse condition that develops secondary to repetitive stretching of the plantar fascia through excessive foot pronation during the loading phase of gait. Often characterized by severe pain in the heel when first standing up in the morning. Intervention consists of ice massage, deep friction massage, joint mobilization, arch tapping for patients that overpronate, orthotic orthoses, activity modification, and gentle stretching of the Achilles Tendon. It is more common in the middle-age population.
A. Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome
B. Achilles Tendon Rupture
C. Plantar Fasciitis
D. Metatarsalgia

C. Plantar Fasciitis

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A condition that may occur as a result of an acute traumatic incident or due to a chronic degenerative pathology such as chronic supraspinatus tendonitis. Patients often complain of pain and weakness. Other symptoms may include complaints of shoulder instability or stiffness, a sense of GH grinding with mobility, crepitus, night pain, and discomfort when lying on the affected side. Medical management usually includes pharmacological intervention with analgesics and anti-inflammatory agents including oral NSAIDs and local cortisone injections.
A. Biceps Tendon Rupture
B. Shoulder impingement
C. Rotator Cuff Tendonitis
D. Rotator Cuff Tear

D. Rotator Cuff Tear

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Rotator cuff tears most commonly involve which tendon?
A. Infraspinatus
B. Supraspinatus
C. Subscapularis
D. Teres Minor

B. Suprasinatus

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What diagnosis is caused by repetitive overhead activities producing a weak supraspinatus muscle. Individuals participating in activities that require excessive overhead activity such as swimming, tennis, baseball, painting, and other manual labor activities are at increased risk. Individuals from 25 - 40 years of age are the most likely to develop this condition. The patients usually presents with pain with palpation of the musculotendinous junction of the involved muscle and/or with stretching or resisted contraction of the muscle. The patient may experience a feeling of weakness and identify the presence of a painful arc of motion most commonly occurring between 60 and 120 degrees of active abduction.
A. Rotator Cuff Tendonitis
B. Rotator Cuff Tear
C. Bicipital Tendonitis
D. Adhesive Capsulitis

A. Rotator Cuff Tendonitis

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A condition that presents with lateral curvature of the spine. The curvature is usually found in the thoracic or lumbar vertebrae and can be associated with kyphosis or lordosis. The curvature disrupts normal alignment of the ribs and muscles and can create compensatory curves that attempts to keep the body in proper alignment, The vertebral column, rib cage, supporting ligaments, and muscles are all affected by a scoliosis of the spine. A device called a scoliometer can be used to measure the angle of trunk rotation.
A. Torticollis
B. Scoliosis
C. Spinal Stenosis
D. Spondylolisthesis

B. Scoliosis

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A condition that is caused by forward slippage of one vertebral segment on the vertebra below and the most common site is L4 - L5. The intervertebral disk loses some of its ability to resist motion and as a result the vertebral facets increase in size and develop bone spurs to compensate. William’s flexion exercises may be indicated too strengthen the abdominals and reduce lumbar lordosis.
A. Congenital Spondylolisthesis
B. Scoliosis
C. Degenerative Spondylolisthesis
D. Spinal Stenosis

C. Degenerative Spondylolisthesis

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A patient with scoliosis that is greater than _________ degrees usually requires surgical spinal stabilization.
A. 40
B. 50
C. 20
D. 30

A. 40 degrees

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A surgical procedure that may be warranted secondary to progressive and severe osteoarthritis or rheumatoid arthritis in the hip joint that produces incapacitating pain and disability. May also be required secondary to trauma, avascular necrosis or a nonunion fracture. Degenerative changes are usually apparent in both the acetabulum and the femoral head. Patient will present with decreased range of motion, impaired mobility skills, and persistent pain that increases with motion and weight bearing. The patient is usually over 55 years old and has experienced consistent pain that is not relieved through conservative measures and limits the patient's functional mobility. A. Hip Hemiarthroplasty B. Total Hip Arthroplasty C. Total Knee Arthroplasty

B. Total hip arthroplasty

A THA that utilizes a posterolateral approach requires a patient to avoid what movements. A. Hip extension, lateral rotation, and hip adduction. B. Hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, hip abduction, and hip lateral rotation. C. Hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, hip adduction, and hip medial rotation. D. Hip extension, hip abduction, and hip medial rotation,

C. Hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, hip abduction, and hip medial rotaton

A surgical procedure that may be warranted secondary to progressive and disabling pain within the knee joint. The pain is most often due t severe degenerative osteoarthritic destruction and deformity that can occur within thee knee. Presents with decreased joint space and osteophyte formation. Injury occurs to the femoral condyles, tibial articulating surface, and the dorsal side of the patella. X-ray, CT, and MRI are used to determine the extent f deterioration and bony abnormalities. A. Patellectomy B. Total Knee Arthroplasty C. Total Hip Arthroplasty D. Total Shoulder Arthroplasty

B. Total knee Arthroplasty

Is a malignant nonsterogenic primary bone tumor that infiltrates the bone marrow and usually affects children and adolescents under 20 years of age. A patient will present with pain of increasing severity, swelling, and fever. Requires aggressive treatment that may include amputation and adjunctive chemotherapy. A. Ewing's Sarcoma B. Osteosarcoma C. Chondrosarcoma D. Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A. Ewing's Sarcoma

A condition that occurs within one to two inches above its tendinous insertion on the calcaneus due to degenerative changes. The impaired blood flow in combination with repetitive microtrauma creates degenerative changes within the tendon and as a result makes the tendon more susceptible to injury. Occurs most frequently when pushing off of a weight bearing extremity with an extended knee, through unexpected dorsiflexion while weight bearing or with a forceful eccentric contraction of the plantar flexors. The highest incidence is in individuals between 30 and 50 years of age that usually have no history of calf or heel pain. A. Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome B. Achilles Tendon Rupture C. Plantar Fasciitis D. Metatarsalgia

B. Achilles Tendon Rupture

A condition that is caused by twisting and bending of the spine, often with the addition of some external load. This injury can occur acutely or gradually over time with repetitive twisting and bending movements. The nucleus pulposus bulges through the exterior wall of the annulus fibrosus. Often the result of gradual, age-related changes that cause disk degeneration. Large majority of these injuries occur at the L4-L5 or L5 - S1 vertebral level. The clinical presentation most commonly includes low back pain followed by unilateral radicular leg pain and may experience numbness and tingling. A. Disk herniation B. Spinal stenosis C. Central Cors Syndrome D. Anterior cord Syndrome

A. Disk Herniation

A condition when the head of the humerus is traumatically separated from the glenoid fossa. The mechanism of injury may very, but typically involves a forceful external blow or loading force when the shoulder is in a position that combines abduction, lateral rotation, and extension. It is most common in patients engaged in sporting activities between 18 and 25 years of age. There is also a notable prevalence among the elderly with dislocation predominantly occurring secondary to a fall. A. Rotator Cuff Tear B. Posterior Glenohumeral Dislocation C. Rotator Cuff Tendonitis D. Anterior Glenohumeral Dislocation

D. Anterior GH Dislocation

A tendonitis condition that occurs at the medial epicondyle of the elbow. It is an overuse injury that occurs when the tendons are overworked and become inflamed, though it can also occur as the result of a traumatic event. Affects tendon of the muscles in the anterior forearm, which include the forearm pronators, wrist flexors, and finger flexors. Tendons of the flexor carpi radialis and pronator teres are most often affected. A. Lateral Epiicondylitiis B. Bicipital Tendonitis C. Rotator Cuff Tendonitis D. Medial Epicondylitis

D. Medial Epicondylitis

A condition that occurs as the result of a traumatic injury. Thee injury will often involve twisting of the knee when it is in a semi-flexed position with the foot planted on the ground. Characterized by joint line pain and tenderness, swelling, loss of range of motion (sometimes with a mechanical block), a complaint of "catching" or "locking" within the joint, and feeding of instability. Often a MRI is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm the pathology. A. Meniscal Tear B. Patellofemoral Pain Syndrome C. Total Knee Arthroplasty D. Patellar Tendonitis

A. Meniscal Tear

A tear in the ___________ of the meniscus is more likely to heal spontaneously since this portion of the meniscus is vascular. A. Middle part of the meniscus B. Outer 1/3 of the meniscus C. Inner 1/3 of the meniscus

B. Outer 1/3 of the meniscus

Refers to traction apophysitis occurring at the tibial tuberosity. Symptoms are typiically the result of local inflammation at the tibial tuberosity and are exacerbated by running, jumping, and squatting activities. Caused by repeated tension at the insertion of the patella tendon which can lead to a small avulsion at the tuberosity thereby producing pain and edema. It is more common in sports that require a great deal of running, jumping, swift directional changes, and repeated knee flexion. Characterized by localized pain and edema with point tenderness over the patella tendon's insertion on the tibial tuberosity. A. Osteogenesis Imperfecta B. Osgood-Schlatter Disease C. Plantar Fasciitis D. Patellofemoral Pain Syndrome

B. Osgood-Schlatter Disease

Is a rare congenital disorder of collagen synthesis that affects all connective tissue in the body. This disorder can also compromise growth, hearing, cardiopulmonary function, and joint integrity. Most children inherit it from parents as either an autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive trait. This disorder is classified into four types and has a wide range of clinical presentations ranging from normal appearance with mild symptoms to severe involvement that is fatal during infancy. Medical management is directed at controlling the symptoms. A. Osteogenesis Imperfecta B. Osteoporosis C. Osteomalacia D. Paget's Disease

A. Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A condition that refers to a narrowing of either the lumbar vertebral or intervertebral foramina. Symptoms are typically produced as a result of mechanical compression on either the spinal cord or exiting nerve roots and may be further exacerbated by bony degeneration or instability. Symptoms may include a gradual onset and worsening of chronic pain at the midline of the lumbar region. Other complains may include unilateral nerve root radiculopathy, paresthesia, weakness, and diminished reflexes. An MRI provides the least invasive and most conclusive means of diagnosing this condition. A. Disk Herniation B. Ankylosing Spondylitis C. Lumbar Spinal Stenosis D. Osteomyelitis

C. Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

Is a condition that causes the neck to involuntary unilaterally contract to one side secondary to contraction of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The head is laterally flexed toward the contracted muscle, the chin faces the opposite direction, and there may be facial asymmetries. The exact etiology is unknown, however, may be caused by local trauma to the soft tissues of the neck during birth. Normally treated with non-operative intervention for 12-24 months before considering surgical intervention. A. Scoliosis B. Sternocleidomastoid Strain C. Tardiva Dyskinesia D. Congenital Torticollis

D. Congenital Torticollis

Is a surgical procedure and the patient will have severe pain and impaired shoulder motion due to deterioration of the glenohumeral joint. These candidates have undergone conservative treatment measures that have failed to improve their condition. The joint surfaces are severely damaged or destroyed by wear and tear, inflammation, injury or previous surgery. Indications include severe glenohumeral degenerative joint disease, pain and limited range of motion secondary to OA, RA, avascular necrosis, fracture or rotator cuff arthroplasty. Patient will exhibit impaired range of motion at the shoulder, may lack independence with functional mobility and ADLs, and will experience severe pain. A. Rotator Cuff Repair B. Total Shoulder Arthroplasty C. Arthroscopy for impingement syndrome D. Reverse Shoulder Replacement

B. Total Shoulder Arthroplasty

Characterized by increased pressure in the lower leg secondary to swelling, which can occlude blood flow and cause ischemia and necrosis of the surrounding nerves and musculature. It is considered a medical emergency often caused by a traumatic injury, that can lead to irreversible muscle damage. The condition affects the lower leg , which consist of the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, and fibularis tertius muscles. Clinical presentation include pain with passive stretching or active use of the muscle. A. Deep Vein Thombosis B. Fibular fracture C. Anterior compartment Syndrome D. Osteomyelitis

C. Anterior compartment Syndrome

A condition that occurs when an individual reaches forward with their hands while attempting to break a fall. Commonly caused by a fall on a outstretched hand. Characterized by a transverse fracture of the distal radius. An x-ray is the preferred method of confirming this condition. A. Colles' Fracture B. Smith's Fracture C. Scaphoid Fracture D. Skier's Thumb / Gamekeeper's Thumb

A. Colles' Fracture

Is a inflammatory condition involving the tendons and synovium of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) at the base of the thumb. The onset is due to repetitive activities involving thumb abduction and extension such as racquet sports. The inflammation of the tendons and synovium results in impingement of the tendons as they move. A. Myositis Ossificans B. Osteochondritis Dissecans C. DeQuervain's Tenisynovitis D. Carpel Tunnel Syndrome

C. DeQuervain's Tenisynovitis

A condition that is characterized by the calcification of muscle. The condition is characterized by bone growth in the muscle belly and often occurs in muscle's prone to traumatic injury such as the muscles of the arms and legs. Bone will begin to grow 2-4 weeks after the injury and will mature within 3-6 months. An z-ray is the primary imaging study used to confirm the diagnosis. A. Osteomyeliitis B. Osteochondritis Dissecans C. Myositis Ossificans D. DeQuervain's Tenosynovitis

C. Myositis Ossificans

A condition where subchondral bone and its associated cartilage crack and separate from the end of the bone. In severe cases, the condition, the bone may actually detach from the surrounding area and float freely inside the joint space. Loss of blood flow causes the subchondral bone to die and separate from the surrounding bone. Typical symptoms include pain with functional activities, joint popping or locking, weakness, swelling, and decreased range of motion. A. Osteochondritis Dissecans B. Osteomyelitis C. Myositis Ossificans D. DeQuervain's Tenosynovitis

A. Osteochondritis Dissecans

An infection that occurs within the bone, most commonly secondary to the Staphylococcus aureus microbe. Damage to the bone may directly expose the bone too infectious microbes in the air or contaminating debris. Signs and symptoms are similar to those of other types of infection. Fever and chills are common systemic complaints. Localized complaints typically include pain, edema, and erythema. A bone biopsy is the most conclusive procedure for diagnosing this condition. A. Osteochondritis Dissecans B. DeQuervain's Tenosynovitis C. Myositis Ossificans D. Osteomyelitis

D. Osteomyelitis

A sudden blow to a part of the body that can result in mild to severe damage to superficial and deep structures. Treatment includes active range of motion, ice, and compression. A. Effusion B. Contusion C. Edema D. Bursitis

B. Contusion

An increased volume of fluid in the soft tissue outside of a joint capsule. A. Effusion B. Contusion C. Edema D. Bursitis

C. Edema

Referred to as an increased volume of fluid within a joint capsule. A. Effusion B. Contusion C. Edema D. Bursitis

A. Effusion

The patient is positioned in sitting or standing with the arms positioned in 90 degrees of abduction, lateral rotation, and elbow flexion. The patient is asked to open and close their hands for three minutes. A positive test is indicated by the inability to maintain the test position, weakness of the arms, sensory loss or ischemic pain. A positive test may be indicative of thoracic outlet syndrome A. Cozen's Test B. Roos Test C. Adson maneuver D. Allen Test

B. Roos Test

This condition is located on the medial spect of the ankle and is formed by the flexor retinaculum, the superior aspect of the calcaneus, the medial wall of the talus, and the medial-distal aspect of the tibia. Occurs as a result of compression of the tibial nerve as it passes through, causing neuropathy in the distribution of the nerve. Clinical presentation include pain, numbness, and paresthesias in the foot. The presence of neuropathy is typically confirmed through an EMG or nerve conduction velocity test. A. Plantar fasciitis B. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome C. Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome D. Morton's neuroma

C. Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome

A condition that may occur from acute or cumulative trauma to the lateral hip causing irritation to the trochanteric bursa. The classic symptoms is pain at the lateral hip which may radiate to the lateral aspect of the thigh. Symptoms are typically exacerbated by weight bearing activity or direct pressure on the affected area. The pathology does not involve the actual hip joint. A. Trochanteric Bursitis B. Gluteus medius tendinitis C. Iliotibial band friction syndrome D. Femoral head avascular necrosis

A. Trochanteric Bursitis

The names "gamekeeper's thumb" and "skier's thumb" are commonly used for this injury. Signs and symptoms of this injury include pain, tenderness, ecchymosis, and swelling near the thumb's MCP joint. A. Volar radiocarpal ligaments B. Radial Collateral ligament C. Dorsal radiocarpal liigament D. Ulnar Collateral Ligament

D. Ulnar Collateral Ligament

The patient is positioned in sidelying with the lower leg flexed at the hip and the knee. The therapist moves the test leg into hip extension and abduction and then attempts to slowly lower the test leg. A positive test is indicated by an inability of the test leg to adduct and touch the table and may be indicative of an iliotibial band or TFL contracture. A. Ely's test B. Ober's test C. Piriformis test D. Thomas test

B. Ober's test

Average range of motion for shoulder flexion? A. 0 - 180 B. 0 - 60 C. 0 - 150 D. 0 - 120

A. 0 - 180

Average range of motion for shoulder extension? A. 0 - 80 B. 0 - 30 C. 0 - 60 D. 0 - 100

C. 0 - 60

Average range of motion for shoulder abduction? A. 0 - 100 B. 0 - 90 C. 0 - 120 D. 0 - 180

D. 0 - 180

Average range of motion for shoulder medial rotation? A. 0 - 30 B. 0 - 90 C. 0 - 70 D. 0 - 120

C. 0 - 70

Average range of motion for shoulder lateral rotation? A. 0 - 30 B. 0 - 90 C. 0 - 70 D. 0 - 120

B. 0 - 90

Average range of motion for elbow extension? A. 0 B. 0 - 150 C. 0 - 10 D. 0 - 90

A. 0 degrees

Average range of motion for elbow Flexion? A. 0 - 80 B. 0 - 150 C. 0 - 180 D. 0 - 90

B. 0 - 150

Average range of motion for forearm pronation? A. 0 - 80 B. 0 - 150 C. 0 - 180 D. 0 - 90

A. 0 - 80

Average range of motion for forearm supination? A. 0 - 90 B. 0 - 150 C. 0 - 180 D. 0 - 80

D. 0 - 80

Average range of motion for wrist flexion? A. 0 - 60 B. 0 - 100 C. 0 - 80 D. 0 - 30

C. 0 - 80

Average range of motion for wrist extension? A. 0 - 70 B. 0 - 100 C. 0 - 80 D. 0 - 40

A. 0 - 70

Average range of motion for wrist radial deviation? A. 0 - 10 B. 0 - 20 C. 0 - 60 D. 0 - 90

B. 0 - 20

Average range of motion for wrist ulnar deviation? A. 0 - 20 B. 0 - 60 C. 0 - 30 D. 0 - 90

C. 0 - 30

Average range of motion for hip flexion? A. 0 - 90 B. 0 - 120 C. 0 - 45 D. 0 - 135

B. 0 - 120

Average range of motion for hip extension? A. 0 - 30 B. 0 - 120 C. 0 - 45 D. 0 - 90

A. 0 - 30

Average range of motion for hip abduction? A. 0 - 30 B. 0 - 120 C. 0 - 45 D. 0 - 90

C. 0 - 45

Average range of motion for hip adduction? A. 0 - 30 B. 0 - 120 C. 0 - 45 D. 0 - 90

A. 0 - 30

Average range of motion for hip medial rotation? A. 0 - 30 B. 0 - 120 C. 0 - 90 D. 0 - 45

D. 0 - 45

Average range of motion for hip lateral rotation? A. 0 - 30 B. 0 - 45 C. 0 - 90 D. 0 - 120

B. 0 - 45

Average range of motion for knee flexion? A. 0 - 90 B. 0 - 45 C. 0 - 135 D. 0 - 120

C. 0 - 135

Average range of motion for ankle (talocrural) dorsiflexion? A. 0 - 20 B. 0 - 40 C. 0 - 60 D. 0 - 90

A. 0 - 20

Average range of motion for ankle (talocrural) plantarflexion? A. 0 - 30 B. 0 - 90 C. 0 - 60 D. 0 - 50

D. 0 - 50

Average range of motion for thumb abduction at the carpometacarpal? A. 0 - 30 B. 0 - 90 C. 0 - 70 D. 0 - 50

C. 0 - 70

Average range of motion for thumb flexion at the carpometacarpal? A. 0 - 15 B. 0 - 30 C. 0 - 45 D. 0 - 5

A. 0 - 15

Average range of motion for thumb extension at the carpometacarpal? A. 0 - 10 B. 0 - 20 C. 0 - 40 D. 0 - 60

B. 0 - 20

Average range of motion for ankle inversion at the midtarsal (transverse tarsal)? A. 0 - 20 B. 0 - 10 C. 0 - 45 D. 0 - 35

D. 0 - 35

Average range of motion for ankle eversion at the midtarsal (transverse tarsal)? A. 0 - 15 B. 0 - 20 C. 0 - 45 D. 0 - 5

A. 0 - 15

Which special test can assist in identifying supraspinatus pathology which may be indicative of a rotator cuff tear? A. Neer impingement test B. Speed's test C. Yergason's test D. Drop arm test

D. Drop arm test

What is the name of the disk that is located between the C7 and T1 vertebrae? A. C8 disk B. C7 disk C. T1 disk D. T2 disk

B. C7 disk

Which of the following special tests would only be administered to infants? A. Finkelstein test B. Froment's sign C. Ortolani's test D. Murphy sign

C. Ortolani's test

How much knee flexion range of motion is required for adequate foot clearance during ambulation on a level surface? A. 50 degrees B. 60 degrees C. 70 degrees D. 80 degrees

B. 60 degrees

Which articulation has a loose packed position most consistent with 10 degrees of supination? A. Proximal radioulnar joint B. Radiohumeral C. Radiocarpal D. Distal radioulnar joint

D. Distal radioulnar joint

The ability of the body to bypass slow-twitch motor units and recruit fast-twitch motor units when performing an explosive movement is referred to as: A. Size principle B. Cross-education C. Selective recruitment D. Specificity

C. Selective recruitment

A person with an anterior cruciate ligament deficiency, who elects not to have surgical reconstruction, could probably expect to reach what minimal functional level? A. Able to participate in all sports without restrictions B. Able to participate in light recreational sports C. Cannot play any type of sport D. Problems with normal walking

B. Able to participate in light recreational sports

What is the close packed position of the hip? A. 30 degrees flexion, 30 degrees abduction, slight lateral rotation B. 45 degrees flexion, 45 degrees abduction, slight medial rotation C. Full flexion, lateral rotation D. Full extension, medial rotation

D. Full extension, medial rotation

What is the most likely prosthetic cause for excessive knee flexion during stance phase in a patient with a transtibial amputation? A. Excessive plantar flexion B. Excessive dorsiflexion C. Soft heel cushion D. Low shoe heel

B. Excessive dorsiflexion

Which term is not used to describe the stance phase with Rancho Los Amigos gait terminology? A. Heel strike B. Loading response C. Midstance d. Pre-swing

A. Heel strike

Which term describes two muscles on opposite sides of a joint that act synergistically to produce a shared motion? A. Co-contraction B. Force couple C. Antagonist group D. Synergist

B. Force couple

Maximal tension on the S1 nerve root occurs in which range during a straight leg raise test? A. 0 - 35 degrees B. 70 - 90 degrees C. 35 - 70 degrees D. 90 - 100 degrees

C. 35 - 70 degrees

The greatest anticipated range of motion restriction in a patient with a capsular limitation at the proximal radioulnar joint would be? A. Flexion B. extension C. Pronation D. Supination

D. Supination

The progression of weakness related to Duchenne muscular dystrophy is most accurately described as? A. caudal to cephalic B. proximal to distal C. cephalic to caudal D. Distal to proximal

B. proximal to distal

Pain from osteoarthritis of the hip is most commonly experienced in which location? A. Trochanteric region B. Buttock C. Knee D. Groin

D. Groin

What are the two phases of movement that should occur in sequence during the analysis of trunk tasing from a supine position? A. Trunk curl phase and hip flexion phase B. Trunk curl phase and neck flexion phase C. Hip flexion phase and pelvic tilt phase D. Hip flexion phase and vertebral flexion phase

A. Trunk curl phase and hip flexion phase

Which structure serves too stabilize against axial forces at the wrist? A. Dorsal radiocarpal ligament B. Radial collateral ligament C. Palmar radiocarpal ligament D. Interosseus membrane

D. Interosseus membrane

Which of the following structure is not contained within the popliteal fossa? A. Femoral artery B. Tibial nerve C. Common fibular nerve D. Popliteal artery

A. Femoral artery

What is the most common cause of upper limb amputation? A. Peripheral vascular disease B. Tumor C. Trauma D. Congenital limb deficiency

C. Trauma

Which muscle would be tested in prone with the shoulder in the greatest amount of abduction? A. Rhomboids B. Upper trapezius C. Middle trapezius D. Lower trapezius

D. Lower trapezius

Which of the following ligaments is not a component of the deltoid ligament? A. Anterior tibiotalar ligament B. Calcaneofibular ligament C. Tibiocalcaneal ligament D. Tibionavicular ligament

B. Calcaneofibular ligament

According to Rancho Los Amigos gait terminology, the point during stance phase that begins when the heel of the stance limb raises and ends when the other foot touches the ground is known as? A. Heel strike B. Loading response C. Midstance D. Terminal stance

D. Terminal stance

Which of the following requires sutures to be removed from the amputation site prior to use? A. Unna boot B. Elastic shrinker C. Semi-rigid dressing D. Removable riigid dressiing

B. Elastic shrinker

Which gait pattern is characterized by the legs crossing midline? A. Cerebellar B. Scissor C. Steppage D. Tabetic

B. Scissor

Which motions of the upper extremity occur around a vertical axis? A. Elbow flexion and extension B. Shoulder abduction and adduction C. Shoulder medial and lateral rotation D. Wrist ulnar and radial deviation

C. Shoulder medial and lateral rotation

Which of the following muscles would most likely contribute to hip hiking? A. Hamstring B. Quadratus lumborum C. Quadriceps D. Gluteus maximus

B. Quadratus lumborum

Which of the following ligaments supports the glenohumeral joint, limiting inferior translation of the humeral head when above 90 degrees of abduction? A. Transverse humeral ligament B. Inferior glenohumeral ligament C. Middle glenohumeral ligament D. Superior glenohumeral ligament

B. Inferior glenohumeral ligament -

All of the following muscles act too evert the ankle except? A. Peroneus longus B. Tibialis posterior C. Peroneus brevis D. Peroneus tertius

B. Tibialis posterior

According to the American College of Rheumatology, how many of the 7 criteria must be satisfied for a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis to be confirmed? A. 3 B. 5 C. 4 D. 6

C. 4

Which of the following terms describes the prime mover of a joint? A. Agonist B. Antagonist C. Fixator D. Synergist

A. Agonist

Which manual muscle testing grade is most consistent with the subject completing range of motion against gravity without manual resistance? A. Poor plus B. Fair C. Fair plus D. Good

B. Fair

What is the capsular pattern of the cervical spine? A. Flexion and extension equally limited, lateral flexion B. Lateral flexion and rotation equally limited, flexion C. Lateral flexion most limited followed by rotation and extension D. Lateral flexion and rotation equally limited, extension

D. Lateral flexion and rotation equally limited, extension

Which manual muscle testing grade is most consistent with the subject's muscle contraction can be palpated, but there is no joint movement? A. Trace B. Poor minus C. Poor D. Poor plus

A. Trace

Which manual muscle testing grade is most consistent if the subject does not complete range of motion in a gravity-eliminated position? A. Trace B. Poor minus C. Poor D. Poor plus

B. Poor minus

Which manual muscle testing grade is most consistent if the subject completes range of motion in a gravity-eliminated position? A. Trace B. Poor minus C. Poor D. Poor plus

C. Poor

Which manual muscle testing grade is most consistent if the subject is able to initiate movement against gravity? A. Poor minus B. Poor C. Poor plus D. Fair minus

C. Poor plus

Which manual muscle testing grade is most consistent if the subject does not complete the range of motion against gravity, but does complete more than half of the range? A. Poor minus B. Poor C. Poor plus D. Fair minus

D. Fair minus

What special test is being performed if the therapist flexes the patient's shoulder to 90 degrees, flexes the elbow to 90 degrees, and medially rotates the arm? A. Yergason's test B. Supraspinatus test C. Neer impingement test D. Hawkins-kennedy impingement test

D. Hawkins-kennedy impingement test

A patient with osteomyelitis would be least likely to present with? A. Localized pain B. Systemic fever C. Systemic edema D. Localized erythema

C. Systemic edema

When measuring cervical rotation using a goniometer, what serves as a reference point for the stationary arm? A. The external occipital protuberance B. The acromial processes C. The bridge of the nose D. The spinous processes of the thoracic vertebrae

B. The acromial processes

A fracture that occurs at a right angle to the long axis of the bone and is usually produced by a shearing force is best termed a/an: A. Oblique fracture B. Transverse fracture C. Spiral fracture D. Comminuted fracture

B. Transverse fracture

The energy required for actin and myosin cross-bridging inside a sarcomere is produced through thee breakdown of which substance? A. Adenosine Triphosphate B. Calcium C. Glycogen D. Acetylcholine

A. Adenosine Triphosphate

Which of the following permits the attachment of a pylon for early ambulation following amputation? A. Unna boot B. Elastic shrinker C. Semi-rigid dressing D. Plaster of Paris

D. Plaster of Paris

What muscle would be strength tested by placing the elbow in maximal flexion and the forearm in maximal supination to minimize activation of the biceps brachii? A. Anterior deltoid B. Triceps brachii C. Coracobrachialis D. Pectoralis minor

C. Coracobrachialis

Which if the following is not a characteristic of chronic pain? A. Long duration B. Diffuse C. Sharp D. Aching

C. Sharp

What is the protocol for initial treatment of an infant born with talipes equinovarus? A. Surgical intervention B. Observation fro 12 months prior to intervention C. Serial casting D. Pharmacological intervention

C. Serial casting

When measuring hip abduction, the axis of the goniometer is aligned over which landmark? A. Greater tuberosity B. Anterior superior iliac spine C. Anterior inferior iliac spine D. Pubic symphysis

B. Anterior superior iliac spine

When measuring subtalar inversion using a goniometer, where should the stationary arm be placed? A. Posterior midline of the lower leg B. Anterior midline of the lower leg C. Posterior midline of the calcaneus D. Along the second metatarsal

A. Posterior midline of the lower leg

Which of the following ribs are classified as floating ribs? A. ribs 1 - 4 B. ribs 5 -7 C. ribs 8 - 10 D. ribs 11 - 12

D. ribs 11 - 12

What is the loose packed position of the radiohumeral joint? A. Full elbow extension and forearm supination B. Full elbow flexion and forearm supination C. Full elbow extension and forearm pronation D. Full elbow flexion and forearm pronation

A. Full elbow extension and forearm supination

Which of the following types of contraction has the potential for the highest force production? A. Isotonic B. Eccentric C. Isometric D. Concentric

B. Eccentric

Which of the following statements about rheumatoid arthritis is generally true? A. Affects joints symmetrically, but deformities are symmetrical. B. Affects joints asymmetrically, but deformities are asymmetrical. C. Affects joints symmetrically, but deformities are asymmetrical. D. Affects joints asymmetrically, but deformities are symmetrical.

C. Affects joints symmetrically, but deformities are asymmetrical.

The articular disc of the temporomandibular joint has an attachment to all of the following structures except? A. Medial pterygoid B. Capsule C. Retrodiscal lamina D. Temporal bone

A. Medial pterygoid

Which interventions would be the primary focus during initial physical therapy sessions in the hospital following spinal fusion surgery? A. Lifting instructions and palliative modalities B. Gait training and core stabilization exercises C Pain management and range of motion D. Bed mobility and transfer training

D. Bed mobility and transfer training

Which of the following is an example of a contractile source of motion restriction? A. Bursa B. Capsule C. Tendon D. Ligament

C. Tendon

Which of the following muscles would be the most likely too contribute to pelvic obliquity during ambulation? A. Gluteus medius B. Gluteus maximus C. Gluteus minimus D. Tensor fasciae latae

A. Gluteus medius

Which orthopedic special test would be performed with the patient positioned in sitting? A. Ober's test B. Tripod sign C. Ely's test D. Thomas test

B. Tripod sign - Test begins with the patient positioned in sitting with the knees flexed to 90 degrees over the edge of the table. The therapist passively extends one knee. A positive test is indicated by tightness in the hamstrings or extension of the trunk in order to limit the effect of the tight hamstrings.

A patient receives surgical discharge instructions that include the use of an incentive spirometer and lower extremity compression stocking. Which of the following surgical procedures would be the MOST likely to necessitate the use of this type of medical equipment? A. Achilles tendon repair B. Lateral ankle ligament reconstruction C. Knee meniscectomy D. Total knee replacement

D. Total knee replacement

Which manual muscle test would be given to a patient that was able to initiate movement in a gravity-eliminated position? A. 1/5 B. 2/5 C. 2-/5 D. 2+/5

C. 2-/5

Where does a patient with Achilles tendonitis typically experience the most pain and swelling? A. Proximal to the insertion on the calcaneus B. In the popliteal fossa posterior too the knee C. Immediately proximal to the ball of the foot D. Throughout the muscle belly of the gastrocnemius

A. Proximal to the insertion on the calcaneus

Which of the following herbs or natural products is typically used to treat arthritis? A. Aloe vera B. Chondroitin C. Echinacea D. Ginkgo biloba

B. Chondroitin

Which of the following special tests would be used to assess pain occurring at 60 - 120 degrees of shoulder flexion? A. Empty can test B. Crossover test C. Yergason's test D. Neer test

D. Neer test - Is a test for subacromial impingement and is associated with a painful arc.

Which osteoarthritic related deformity is found at the proximal interphalangeal joints? A. Bouchard's nodes B. Heberden's nodes C. Ulnar drift D. Boutonniere deformity

A. Bouchard's nodes

Which term refers to abnormal healing of a bone fracture resulting in a fibrous union or pseudarthrosis? A. Delayed union B. Malunion C. Nonunion D. Cancellous

C. Nonunion

When performing resistive testing of the biceps femoris in prone, resistance should be applied on the? A. Anterior leg immediately distal to the ankle. B. Posterior leg immediately distal to the ankle. C. Anterior leg immediately proximal to the ankle. D. Posterior leg immediately proximal to the ankle.

D. Posterior leg immediately proximal to the ankle.

Which muscle does NOT border the anatomical snuffbox? A. Abductor pollicis longus B. Extensor Pollicis Brevis C. Flexor pollicis longus D. Extensor Pollicis Longus

C. Flexor pollicis longus

Corticosteroids are often used in treating musculoskeletal conditions because they? A. Decrease spasticity B. Decrease inflammation C. Promote vasoconstriction D. Promote vasodilation

B. Decrease inflammation

Which muscle actively contributes to producing a tenodesis grip? A. Opponens pollicis B. Palmaris longus C. Extensor digitorum D. Flexor digitorum profundus

C. Extensor digitorum - A tenodesis grip is a method of grasping used by patients with C6 and C7 tetraplegia who have paralysis of the finger and thumb flexor muscles, but active wrist extensors.

Which manual muscle test grade would be given to a patient that was able to initiate movement in a gravity-eliminated position? A. 1/5 B.1+/5 C. 2-/5 D. 2+/5

C. 2-/5

What type of osteogenesis imperfecta is described as a miild form, where the child has near normal growth and the frequency of fractures is reduced after puberty? A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4

A. Type 1

Which mechanism of injury is most likely to be associated with a medial collateral ligament sprain? A. A lateral blow to the knee resulting in valgus force. B. A lateral blow to the knee resulting in varus force. C. A medial blow to the knee resulting in valgus force. D. A medial blow to the knee resulting in varus force.

A. A lateral blow to the knee resulting in valgus force.

A positive foraminal compression (Spurling) test is most indicative of? A. Atlantoaxial instability B. Cervical radiculitis C. Vertebral artery compromise D. Thoracic outlet syndrome

B. Cervical radiculitis

Which knee ligament is most likely to be injured with anterior contact to the superior portion of the tibia while the knee is flexed? A. Anterior cruciate ligament B. Lateral collateral ligament C. Posterior cruciate ligament D. Medial collateral ligament

C. Posterior cruciate ligament

A physical therapist assistant determines that a patient with a history of recurrent low back pain would benefit from frontal plane stabilization exercises that focus on activation of the quadratus lumborum. Which of the following exercises would BEST accomplish this objective? A. Balancing a rod on the back performing an exercise in quadruped. B. Propping up on the elbow in sidelying while lifting the pelvis off the mat (side plank) C. Single leg slides in a supine position while maintaining a neutral supine. D. Alternating leg lifts in a prone position while maintaining a neutral spine.

B. Propping up on the elbow in sidelying while lifting the pelvis off the mat (side plank)

The majority of congenital limb deficiencies are caused by? A. Genetics B. Infection C. Maternal drug exposure D. Inadequate blood supply

A. Genetics

Which functional activity would require the greatest amount of dorsiflexion range of motion? A. Gait on level surfaces B. Gait on a treadmill with a 3.0 percent grade C. Ascending stairs D. Descending stairs

D. Descending stairs

Which area would be considered pressure tolerant in a transtibial residual limb? A. Patella B. Patellar tendon C. Fibular head D. Tibial crest

B. Patellar tendon

What is the most important variable to consider when determining if a patient is a candidate for a prosthesis? A. Prior level of activity B. Level of amputation C. Comorbidities D. Age

A. Prior level of activity

Which of the following terms describes an abnormal gait pattern characterized by forward trunk lean and a progressive increase in cadence? A. Festination B. Equinus C. Antalgic gait D. Ataxic gait

A. Festination

Which joints make up the transverse tarsal joint? A. Talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints B. Talonavicular and cuneonavicular joints C. Calcaneocuboid and subtalar joints D. Tarsometatarsal and intermetatarsal joints

A. Talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is most appropriately classified as a/an: A. Autosomal dominant disorder B. Autosomal recessive disorder C. X-linked recessive disorder D. X-linked dominant disorder

C. X-linked recessive disorder

Which theory is characterized by using a non-painful stimulus in order to reduce or suppress active pain? A. Opioid theory B. Gate control theory C. Adam's closed loop theory D. Smith's learning theory

B. Gate control theory

Motions in the frontal plane, such as abduction and abduction, occur around what axis? A. Anterior-posterior axis B. Medial-lateral axis C. Vertical axis D. None of the above

A. Anterior-posterior axis

Motions in the sagittal plane, such as flexion and extension, occur around what axis? A. Anterior-posterior axis B. Medial-lateral axis C. Vertical axis D. None of the above

B. Medial-lateral axis

Motions in the transverse plane, such as medial and lateral rotation, occur around what axis? A. Anterior-posterior axis B. Medial-lateral axis C. Vertical axis D. None of the above

C. Vertical axis

Which muscles would elevate the scapula? A. Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor. B. Upper trapezius and levator scapulae. C. Middle trapezius and Rhomboids. D. Upper trapezius, lower trapezius, and serratus anterior.

B. Upper trapezius and levator scapulae

Which muscles would cause depression of the scapula? A. Rhomboids, Levator scapulae, and pectoralis minor. B. Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor. C. Upper trapezius, lower trapezius, and serratus anterior. D. Latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, and lower trapezius.

D. Latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, and lower trapezius.

Which muscles would cause protractions of the scapulae? A. Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor. B. Upper trapezius and levator scapulae. C. Middle trapezius and Rhomboids. D. Upper trapezius, lower trapezius, and serratus anterior.

A. Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor

Which muscles would cause retraction of the scapulae? A. Middle deltoid and supraspinatus. B. Upper trapezius and levator scapulae. C. Middle trapezius, rhomboid major, and rhomboid minor. D. Upper trapezius, lower trapezius, and serratus anterior.

C. Middle trapezius, rhomboid major, and rhomboid minor.

Which muscles would cause upward rotation of the scapulae? A. Middle deltoid and supraspinatus. B. Upper trapezius and levator scapulae. C. Middle trapezius, rhomboid major, and rhomboid minor. D. Upper trapezius, lower trapezius, and serratus anterior.

D. Upper trapezius, lower trapezius, and serratus anterior.

Which muscles would cause downward rotation of the scapulae? A. Rhomboids, Levator scapulae, and pectoralis minor. B. Rhomboid major, rhomboid minor, levator scapulae, and pectoralis minor. C. Upper trapezius, lower trapezius, and serratus anterior. D. Latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, and lower trapezius.

B. Rhomboid major, rhomboid minor, levator scapulae, and pectoralis minor.

Which muscles would cause shoulder flexion at the shoulder joint? A. Anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis, pectoralis major - clavicular head. B. Latissimus dorsi, posterior deltoid, teres major, and triceps brachii. C. Middle deltoid and supraspinatus. D. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major.

A. Anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis, pectoralis major - clavicular head.

Which muscles would cause shoulder extension at the shoulder joint? A. Anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis, pectoralis major - clavicular head. B. Latissimus dorsi, posterior deltoid, teres major, and triceps brachii. C. Middle deltoid and supraspinatus. D. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major.

B. Latissimus dorsi, posterior deltoid, teres major, and triceps brachii.

Which muscles would cause shoulder abduction at the shoulder joint? A. Anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis, pectoralis major - clavicular head. B. Latissimus dorsi, posterior deltoid, teres major, and triceps brachii. C. Middle deltoid and supraspinatus. D. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major.

C. Middle deltoid and supraspinatus.

Which muscles would cause shoulder adduction at the shoulder joint? A. Anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis, pectoralis major - clavicular head. B. Latissimus dorsi, posterior deltoid, teres major, and triceps brachii. C. Middle deltoid and supraspinatus. D. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major.

D. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major.

Which muscles would cause shoulder horizontal abduction at the shoulder joint? A. Anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis, pectoralis major. B. Posterior deltoid, teres major, and infraspinatus. C. Subscapularis, teres major, pectoralis major. D. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major.

B. Posterior deltoid, teres major, and infraspinatus.

Which muscles would cause shoulder horizontal adduction at the shoulder joint? A. Anterior deltoid and pectoralis major. B. Posterior deltoid, teres major, and infraspinatus. C. Subscapularis, teres major, pectoralis major. D. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major.

A. Anterior deltoid and pectoralis major.

Which muscles would cause shoulder external rotation at the shoulder joint? A. Anterior deltoid and pectoralis major. B. Subscapularis, teres major, pectoralis major. C. Teres minor, Infraspinatus, and posterior deltoid. D. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major.

C. Teres minor, Infraspinatus, and posterior deltoid.

Which muscles would cause shoulder internal rotation at the shoulder joint? A. Anterior deltoid and pectoralis major. B. Pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major. C. Teres minor, infraspinatus, and posterior deltoid. D. Subscapularis, teres major, pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and anterior deltoid.

D. Subscapularis, teres major, pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and anterior deltoid.

Which muscles would cause elbow flexion? A. Triceps brachii and anconeus. B. Biceps brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis. C. Biceps brachii and supinator. D. Pronator teres and pronator quadratus.

B. Biceps brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis.

Which muscles would cause elbow extension? A. Triceps brachii and anconeus. B. Biceps brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis. C. Biceps brachii and supinator. D. Pronator teres and pronator quadratus.

A. Triceps brachii and anconeus.

Which muscles would cause forearm supination at the radioulnar joint? A. Triceps brachii and anconeus. B. Biceps brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis. C. Biceps brachii and supinator. D. Pronator teres and pronator quadratus.

C. Biceps brachii and supinator.

Which muscles would cause forearm pronation at the radioulnar joint? A. Triceps brachii and anconeus. B. Biceps brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis. C. Biceps brachii and supinator. D. Pronator teres and pronator quadratus.

D. Pronator teres and pronator quadratus.

Which muscles would cause wrist flexion? A. Flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris, and palmaris longus. B. Extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, and extensor carpi ulnaris. C. Extensor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi ulnaris. D. Extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, flexor carpi radialis.

A. Flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris, and palmaris longus.

Which muscles would cause wrist extension? A. Flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris, and palmaris longus. B. Extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, and extensor carpi ulnaris. C. Extensor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi ulnaris. D. Extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, flexor carpi radialis

B. Extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, and extensor carpi ulnaris.

Which muscles would cause hip flexion? A. Adductor magnus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, and gracilis. B. Gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, biceps femoris, and semitendinosus. C. Iliopsoas, sartorius, rectus femoris, and pectineus. D. Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, and sartorius.

C. Iliopsoas, sartorius, rectus femoris, and pectineus.

Which muscles would cause hip extension? A. Adductor magnus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, and gracilis. B. Gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus. C. Iliopsoas, sartorius, rectus femoris, and pectineus. D. Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, and sartorius.

B. Gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus.

Which muscles would cause hip abduction? A. Adductor magnus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, and gracilis. B. Gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus. C. Iliopsoas, sartorius, rectus femoris, and pectineus. D. Gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, piriformis, obturator internus, and tensor fasciae latae.

D. Gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, piriformis, obturator internus, and tensor fasciae latae.

Which muscles would cause hip adduction? A. Adductor magnus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, and gracilis. B. Gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus. C. Iliopsoas, sartorius, rectus femoris, and pectineus. D. Gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, piriformis, obturator internus, and tensor fasciae latae.

A. Adductor magnus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, and gracilis.

Which muscles would cause hip internal rotation? A. Adductor magnus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, and gracilis. B. Gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus. C. Iliopsoas, sartorius, rectus femoris, and pectineus. D. Tensor fasciae latae, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, pectineus, and adductor longus.

D. Tensor fasciae latae, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, pectineus, and adductor longus.

Which muscles would cause hip external rotation? A. Adductor magnus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, and gracilis. B. Gluteus maximus, obturator externus, obturator internus, piriformis, gemelli, and sartorius. C. Gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus. D. Tensor fasciae latae, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, pectineus, and adductor longus.

B. Gluteus maximus, obturator externus, obturator internus, piriformis, gemelli, and sartorius.

What muscles would cause knee flexion? A. Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, and sartorius. B. Rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius, and vastus medialis. C. Gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus. D. Tensor fasciae latae, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, pectineus, and adductor longus.

A. Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, and sartorius.

What muscles would cause knee extension? A. Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, and sartorius. B. Rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius, and vastus medialis. C. Gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus. D. Tensor fasciae latae, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, pectineus, and adductor longus.

B. Rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius, and vastus medialis.

What muscles would cause ankle inversion? A. Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum, and fibularis tertius. B. Fibularis longus, fibularis brevis, and fibularis tertius. C. Tibialis posterior, tibialis anterior, and flexor digitorum longus. D. Tibialis posterior, gastrocnemius, soleus, fibularis longus, fibularis brevis, and plantaris.

C. Tibialis posterior, tibialis anterior, and flexor digitorum longus.

What muscles would cause ankle eversion? A. Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum, and fibularis tertius. B. Fibularis longus, fibularis brevis, and fibularis tertius. C. Tibialis posterior, tibialis anterior, and flexor digitorum longus. D. Tibialis posterior, gastrocnemius, soleus, fibularis longus, fibularis brevis, and plantaris.

B. Fibularis longus, fibularis brevis, and fibularis tertius.

What muscles would cause ankle dorsiflexion? A. Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum, and fibularis tertius. B. Fibularis longus, fibularis brevis, and fibularis tertius. C. Tibialis posterior, tibialis anterior, and flexor digitorum longus. D. Tibialis posterior, gastrocnemius, soleus, fibularis longus, fibularis brevis, and plantaris.

A. Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum, and fibularis tertius.

What muscles would cause ankle plantar flexion? A. Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum, and fibularis tertius. B. Fibularis longus, fibularis brevis, and fibularis tertius. C. Tibialis posterior, tibialis anterior, and flexor digitorum longus. D. Tibialis posterior, gastrocnemius, soleus, fibularis longus, fibularis brevis, flexor hallucis, and plantaris.

D. Tibialis posterior, gastrocnemius, soleus, fibularis longus, fibularis brevis, flexor hallucis, and plantaris.

What is the loose packed position of the glenohumeral joint? A. 55 degrees abduction, 30 degrees horizontal adduction. B. Abduction and lateral rotation. C. Arm resting by the side. D. Lateral rotation, abduction, and medial rotation.

A. 55 degrees abduction, 30 degrees horizontal adduction.

What is the close packed position of the glenohumeral joint? A. 55 degrees abduction, 30 degrees horizontal adduction. B. Abduction and lateral rotation. C. Arm resting by the side. D. Lateral rotation, abduction, and medial rotation.

B. Abduction and lateral rotation.

What is the capsular pattern of the glenohumeral joint? A. 55 degrees abduction, 30 degrees horizontal adduction. B. Abduction and lateral rotation. C. Arm resting by the side. D. Lateral rotation, abduction, and medial rotation.

D. Lateral rotation, abduction, and medial rotation.

According to Rancho Los Amigos gait terminology, the beginning of the stance phase that occurs when the foot touches the ground is known as? A. Initial Contact B. Loading response C. Midstance D. Terminal stance

A. Initial Contact

According to Rancho Los Amigos gait terminology, the amount of time between initial contact and the beginning of the swing phase of the leg is known as? A. Initial Contact B. Loading response C. Midstance D. Terminal stance

B. Loading response

According to Rancho Los Amigos gait terminology, the point in the stance phase when the other foot is off the floor until the body is directly over the stance limb is known as? A. Initial Contact B. Loading response C. Midstance D. Terminal stance

C. Midstance

According to Rancho Los Amigos gait terminology, the point of the stance phase that begins when the other foot touches the ground and ends when the stance foot reaches toe off is known as? A. Initial Contact B. Loading response C. Midstance D. Pre-swing

D. Pre-swing

Musculoskeletal Flashcards

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