Neuromuscular Flashcards by Lauren Addison

What diagnosis is a progressive neurological disorder that results in deterioration and irreversible damage within cerebral cortex and subcortical areas of the brain. Neurons that are normally involved with acetylcholine transmission deteriorate within the cerebral cortex of the brain. The prevalence of this condition increases significantly over thee age of 80. Clinical presentation include subtle changes win memory, impaired concentration, and difficulty with new learning.
A. Alzheimer’s Disease
B. Multi-infart dementia
C. Parkinson’s Disease
D. Traumatic Brain Injury

A. Alzheimer’s Disease

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It is a chronic degenerative disease that produces both upper and lower motor neuron impairments. Demyelination, axonal swelling, and atrophy within the cerebral cortex, premotor areas, sensory cortex, and temporal cortex cause the symptoms of this condition. Rapid degeneration and demyelination occur in the giant pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex and affect areas off thee corticospinal tracts, cell bodies of the lower motor neurons in the gray matter, anterior horn cells. Early clinical presentation include both upper and lower motor neuron involvement. A patient with this condition will exhibit fatigue, oral motor impairment, fasciculations, spasticity, motor paralysis, and eventual respiratory paralysis. Death usually occurs due to respiratory failure.
A. Cerebral palsy
B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
C. Muscular Dystrophy
D. Multiple Sclerosis

B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

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An umbrella term used to describe a group of progressive movement disorders that result from brain damage. It is the most common cause of permanent disability in children. The etiology of this disorder may be multifactorial and is sometimes unknown. The most common causative factor of this disorder is prenatal cerebral hypoxia. It is the second most common neurological impairment seen in children (following intellectual disability). Pharmacological intervention may require anti-anxiety, anti-spasticity, and anticonvulsant medications. Physical therapy for this disorder often uses neurodevelopment treatment and sensory integration techniques.
A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B. Muscular Dystrophy
C. Multiple Sclerosis
D. Cerebral Palsy

D. Cerebral Palsy

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Occurs when there is an interruption of cerebral circulation that results in cerebral insufficiency, destruction of surrounding brain tissue, and subsequent neurological deficit. The ischemia occurs from either a stroke in evolution (the infarct slowly progresses over one to two days) or as a completed stroke. This diagnosis results from prolonged ischemia to an artery within the brain. This condition can cause subsequent neurological damage relative to the size and location of the infarct.
A. Cerebrovascular Accident
B. Transient Ischemic Attack
C. Traumatic brain Injury
D. Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

A. Cerebrovascular Accident

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The inability to initiate movement; commonly seen in patients with Parkinson’s disease.
A. Akinesia
B. Ataxia
C. Chorea
D. Athetosis

A. Akinesia

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Generalized weakness, typically secondary to cerebellar pathology.
A. Akinesia
B. Asthenia
C. Chorea
D. Athetosis

B. Asthenia

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The inability to perform coordinated movements.
A. Akinesia
B. Chorea
C. Ataxia
D. Athetosis

C. Ataxia

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A condition that presents with involuntary movements combined with instability of posture. Peripheral movements occur without central stability.
A. Akinesia
B. Chorea
C. Ataxia
D. Athetosis

D. Athetosis

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A physical therapist assistant completes a developmental assessment on an infant. At what age should an infant begin to sit with hand support for an extended period of time.
A. 6 -7 months
B. 8 - 9 months
C. 10 - 11 months
D. 12 - 15 months

A. 6 -7 months

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Movement that is very slow.
A. Akinesia
B. Ataxia
C. Chorea
D. Bradykinesia

D. Bradykinesia

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Movements that are sudden, random, and involuntary.
A. Dystonia
B. Ataxia
C. Chorea
D. Dysmetria

C. Chorea

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A form of resistance seen during range of motion of a hypertonic joint where there is greatest resistance at the initiation of range that lessens with movement through the range of motion.
A. Clasp-knife response
B. Clonus
C. Dysmetria
D. Hemiballism

A. Clasp-knife response

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A characteristic of an upper motor neuron lesion; involuntary alternating spasmodic contraction of a muscle precipitated by a quick stretch reflex.
A. Clasp-knife response
B. Clonus
C. Dysmetria
D. Hemiballism

B. Clonus

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The inability to perform rapidly alternating movements.
A. Dystonia
B. Dysmetria
C. Dysdiadochokinesia
D. Rigidity

C. Dysdiadochokinesia

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The inability to control the range of a movement and the force of muscular activity.
A. Dystonia
B. Dysmetria
C. Dysdiadochokinesia
D. Rigidity

B. Dysmetria

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A muscular twitch that is caused by random dischargee of a lower motor neuron and its muscle fibers; suggests lower motor neuron disease, however can be benign.
A. Kinesthesia
B. Rigidity
C. Tremor
D. Fasciculations

D. Fasciculations

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An involuntary and violent movement of a large body part.
A. Hemiballism
B. Kinesthesia
C. Rigidity
D. Tremor

A. Hemiballism

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The ability to perceive the direction and extent of movement of a joint or body part.
A. Hemiballism
B. Kinesthesia
C. Rigidity
D. Tremor

B. Kinesthesia

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A form of rigidity where there is uniform and constant resistance to range of motion often associated with lesions of the basal ganglia.
A. Kinesthesia
B. Rigidity
C. Tremor
D. Lead pipe rigidity

D. Lead pipe rigidity

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A state of severe hypertonicity where a sustained muscle contraction does not allow for any movement at a specified joint.
A. Rigidity
B. Tremor
C. Lead pipe rigidity
D. Clonus

A. Rigidity

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Involuntary, rhythmic, oscillatory movements secondary to a basal ganglia lesion. There are various classifications secondary to specific etiology.
A. Dysmetria
B. Rigidity
C. Tremor
D. Chorea

C. Tremor

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A physical therapist assistant reporting at a team meeting indicates that a patient with a spinal cord injury should be able to perform household ambulation using knee-ankle -foot orthoses (KAFs) and forearm crutches upon discharge. The patient’s quadriceps strength is currently Fair (3/5). What level of spinal cord injury is the MOST likely based on the assistant’s prediction.
A. L1
B. L3
C. L5
D. S1

B. L3

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A physical therapist assistant consults with a teacher regarding a child with autism who has impairments in sensory processing. Which of the following pieces of equipment would be the MOST useful to address the child’s dyspraxia.
A. Swing
B. Weighted vest
C. Sit and spin
D. Rocking chair

B. Weighted vest

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A patient who has a spinal cord injury informs a physical therapist assistant that they will walk again. Which type of injury would make functional ambulation the LEAST realistic?
A. Complete T9 paraplegia
B. Posterior cord syndrome
C. Brown-Sequard’s syndrome
D. Cauda equina injury

A. Complete T9 paraplegia

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Paralysis of which nerve gives rise to scapular winging? A. Suprascapular Nerve B. Long thoracic Nerve C. Subscapular Nerve D. Thoracodorsal Nerve

B. Long thoracic Nerve

Which nerve is tested with the gag reflex? A. Hypoglossal B. Facial C. Glossopharyngeal D. Abducens

C. Glossopharyngeal

Which nerve root, if injured, would produce paresthesia in the thumb and index finger? A. C5 B. C6 C. C7 D. C8

B. C6

Which stage of the Rancho Los-Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning Scale is characterized by the patient showing goal-directed behavior dependent on external cues and the ability to relearn simple tasks? A. Level III - Localized response B. Level IV - Confused-agitated C. Level V - Confused-Inappropriate D. Level VI - Confused-Appropriate

D. Level VI - Confused-Appropriate

In standing, which muscle group would initially respond to a small anterior perturbation. A. Dorsiflexors B. Plantar flexors C. Hip flexors D. Hip extensors

B. Plantar flexors

When testing vibration sensation, which type of tuning fork is standardly used? A. 128 Hz B. 256 Hz C. 512 Hz D. 1024 Hz

A. 128 Hz

Which of the following condition is describe as "sensory-sparing?" A. T10 spinal cord injury B. Multiple sclerosis C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome

C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Which of the following areas of the brain plays a primary role in coordination and motor behavior? A. Brainstem B. Diencephalon C. Cerebellum D. Cerebrum

C. Cerebellum

Which of the following is NOT commonly associated with Down Syndrome? A. Intellectual disability B. Increased susceptibility to infection C. Vision or hearing impairments D. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate

D. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Sinemet is most commonly prescribed to treat which disease? A. Multiple Sclerosis B. Alzheimer's disease C. Parkinson's disease D. Cerebral palsy

C. Parkinson's disease

In what level of arousal would an individual only respond to strong, noxious stimuli, and return to an unconscious state when the stimulus is stopped? A. Lethargic B. Obtunded C. Stupor D. Coma

C. Stupor

Which lobes of thee cerebrum are most closely associated with Wernicke's area? A. Frontal and temporal lobes B. Occipital and frontal lobes C. Parietal and occipital lobes D. Temporal and parietal lobes

D. Temporal and parietal lobes

Which muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve? A. Adductor longus B. Iliopsoas C. Quadriceps femoris D. Hamstrings

C. Quadriceps femoris

A physical therapist assistant completes a coordination assessment on a patient with central nervous system involvement. After reviewing the results of the assessment, the assistant concludes the clinical findings are consistent with cerebellar dysfunction. Which finding is NOT associated with cerebellar dysfunction? A. Dysmetria B. Hypertonia C. Ataxia D. Nystagmus

B. Hypertonia - Cerebellar pathology is often characterized by incoordinated movement. Specific motor impairments associated with cerebellar pathology include ataxia, hypotonicity, dysmetria, dysdiadochokinesia, nystagmus, tremor, and scanning speech.

Which canal is most commonly affected in benign paroxysmal positional vertigo? A. Anterior semicircular canal B. Horizontal canal C. Vertical canal D. Posterior semicircular canal

D. Posterior semicircular canal - Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo occurs when otoconia are detached from the macula and float freely in a semicircular canal. The posterior semicircular canal is most commonly the location of the displaced otoconia due to its anatomical position.

Which cranial nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle of the eyeball and is tested by assessing lateral gaze? A. CN II B. CN III C. CN VI D. CN IV

C. - Cranial nerve VI, the abducens nerve, innervates the lateral rectus muscle. The integrity of the nerve is evaluated by having the patient look laterally in both directions.

Compression of the sciatic nerve may lead to impaired function of the: A. Gluteus medius B. Adductor longus C. Tensor fasciae latae D. Fibularis longus

D. Fibularis longus - The sciatic nerve arises from the nerve roots of the sacral plexus. The sciatic nerve separates to form the common fibular nerve and the tibial nerve which supply motor function below the knee. The fibularis longus is innervated by the superficial fibular nerve, a terminal branch of the common fibular nerve.

What is the most common type of shoulder subluxation in patients with hemiplegia? A. Posterior subluxation B. Anterior subluxation C. Superior subluxation D. Inferior subluxation

D. Inferior subluxation

What type of muscle contraction is utilized when performing rhythmic stabilization? A. Isometric B. Isotonic C. Isokinetic D. Eccentric

A. Isometric

Which of the following class of drugs is not commonly prescribed for antiepileptic purposes? A. Barbiturates B. Benzodiazepines C. Glucocorticoids D. Hydantoins

C. Glucocorticoids - Barbiturates, benzodiazepines, and hydantoins are among the many classes of medications used to treat epilepsy. Glucocorticoids are used to treat various types of inflammation and are not indicated to treat epilepsy.

Which myotome would be assessed by testing finger adduction? A. C6 B. T1 C. C8 D. C7

B. T1

Myasthenia gravis typically affects which muscle group first? A. Muscles of mastication B. Muscles of the eye C. Proximal shoulder and hip muscles D. Intrinsic muscles of the hand

B. Muscles of the eye

Which of the following refers to the ability of the brain to change and repair itself? A. Regeneration B. Compensation C. Recovery D. Neuroplasticity

D. Neuroplasticity

Between which two muscles does the brachial plexus emerge from the cervical area to advance into the upper extremity? A. Between the anterior and middle scalenes B. Between the middle and posterior scalenes C. Between the sternocleidomastoid and the anterior scalene D. Between the posterior scalene and the levator scapulae

A. Between the anterior and middle scalenes

When administering the Rinne test, what is the normal expected ratio of bone conduction to air conduction? A. 1:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:3 D. 1:4

B. 1:2 - When performing the Rinne test, the examiner holds the vibrating tuning fork against the mastoid process until sound is no longer heard, then it is placed 1-2 cm from the auditory canal until sound is no longer heard. The normal expected ratio of bone conduction to air conduction is 1:2.

Botox injections help reduce spasticity in muscles by which of the following mechanisms? A. Preventing the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. B. Preventing actin and myosin from binding. C. Decreasing motor input from the central nervous system. D. Inhibiting the Golgi tendon reflex

A. Preventing the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.

Which nerve becomes entrapped in carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Radial nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Median nerve D. Medial palmar nerve

C. Median nerve

Chorea and dementia are typical clinical signs of which neurologic disorder? A. Multiple sclerosis B. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Parkinson's disease D. Huntington's disease

D. Huntington's disease Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant condition resulting in the degeneration of many areas of the brain, most notably of the cerebral cortex and striatum. Signs and symptoms of the disease include cognitive impairments and involuntary choreic movements.

Which primitive reflex is stimulated simply by positioning in prone or supine? A. Startle reflex B. Positive support reflex C. Tonic labyrinthine reflex D. Associated reactions reflex

C. Tonic labyrinthine reflex

When assessing balance, somatosensory input is most responsive to changes in: A. Eye orientation B. Surface contact C. Head position D. Muscle length

B. Surface contact

Which dermatome would be assessed by touching a patient’s skin with a cotton ball on the dorsal surface of the great toe? A. L5 B. L3 C. L2 D. S1

A. L5

Which age is most consistent with the typical integration of the asymmetrical tonic neck reflex? A. 3 months B. 6 months C. 9 months D. 12 months

B. 6 months

Which term describes an unintentional posturing of the body into trunk and extremity extension? A. decorticate rigidity B. Synergy C. decerebrate rigidity D. Dysprosody

C. decerebrate rigidity

Stroking an infant’s mouth and cheek stimulates which reflex? A. Sucking B. Moro C. Landau D. Rooting

D. Rooting

Which of the following is classified as a progressive disorder of the central nervous system? A. Cerebrovascular accident B. Traumatic brain injury C. Alzheimer’s disease D. vestibular disorder

C. Alzheimer’s disease

Which primitive reflex would be elicited when a two-month-old infant turns their head to one side causing the arms and legs on the face side to extend and the arms and legs on the opposite side to flex? A. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex B. Galant reflex C. Positive support reflex D. Tonic labyrinthine reflex

A. Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex

Which myotome would be functionally tested by asking the patient to walk on their toes? A. L3 B. L4 C. L5 D. S1

D. S1

If a patient has a diminished triceps reflex, what innervation level may be most affected? A. C5 B. C6 C. C7 D. C8

C. C7

Which muscle is innervated by the ulnar nerve? A. Anconeus B. Extensor carpi radialis C. Flexor digitorum profundus D. Supinator

C. Flexor digitorum profundus

Which of the following is not one of the three primary sources from which the motor cortex receives information? A. Somatosensory cortex B. Cerebellum C. Basal ganglia D. Primary visual cortex

D. Primary visual cortex

Which structure(s) provides information about body position with reference to the force of gravity and linear acceleration? A. Vestibular nuclei B. Utricle and saccule C. Semicircular canals D. Ear canal

B. Utricle and saccule

Which of the following cranial nerves does not transmit taste information? A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Vagus D. Glossopharyngeal

B. Trigeminal

Sensory information from the musculoskeletal system that provides information regarding stretch of muscle and joint positions is known as: A. Reflex B. Pain C. Proprioception D. Mechanoreceptors

C. Proprioception

A patient status post CVA with slow, slurred, and hesitant speech is exhibiting: A. Dysarthria B. Asthenia C. Asynergia D. Dysdiadochokinesia

A. Dysarthria

A movement that lacks fluidity and instead is performed in a sequence of component parts is an example of: A. Ataxia B. Dysmetria C. Dyssynergia D. Asthenia

C. Dyssynergia

Which motor control theory is based on the premise that movement is controlled by stimulus-response and that reflexes are combined into actions that create behavior? A. Reflex theory B. Hierarchical theory C. Dynamical systems theory D. Motor program theory

A. Reflex theory - The reflex theory is based on the premise that movement is controlled by stimulus-response and that reflexes are combined into actions that create behavior. Interventions in accordance with this reflex theory introduce sensory inputs to achieve desired results and remove sensory inputs to inhibit undesired results.

What artery is used as a point of reference when naming the cords of the brachial plexus? A. Axillary artery B. Carotid artery C. Subclavian artery D. Vertebral

A. Axillary artery

Which of the following nerves does not have a connection from all three trunks of the brachial plexus? A. Lower subscapular B. Radial C. Suprascapular D. Thoracodorsal

C. Suprascapular - The suprascapular nerve (C4, C5, C6) extends from the superior trunk of the brachial plexus. This nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles.

Which of the following is a normal plantar response when testing for a suspected upper motor neuron lesion? A. Toes extend and fan outwards B. Sudden plantar flexion C. Toes curl downward into flexion D. Withdrawal of the foot

C. Toes curl downward into flexion

Which structure would be considered the innermost layer of the meninges? A. Arachnoid B. Pia mater C. Dura mater D. Choroid plexus

B. Pia mater

Which of the following primitive reflexes is normally fully integrated by three months of age? A. Rooting reflex B. Symmetrical tonic neck reflex C. Plantar grasp reflex D. Moro reflex

A. Rooting reflex - The rooting reflex is stimulated with touch to the cheek. The response is the infant turning their head to the same side. The normal age of the response is from 28 weeks of gestation to three months.

Which myotome would be assessed by testing shoulder elevation? A. C4 B. C5 C. C6 D. C7

A. C4

The Dix-Hallpike maneuver is initiated with the patient in what position? A. Supine B. Prone C. Long-sitting D. Sidelying

C. Long-sitting

Which of the following is not an example of a superficial reflex? A. Achilles B. Corneal C. Babinski D. Cremaster

A. Achilles - A superficial reflex is often elicited by stimulation of the skin. The Achilles reflex is a deep tendon reflex elicited by tapping the Achilles tendon with a reflex hammer testing the S1 and S2 nerve roots.

A traumatic distraction injury to the C5-C6 cervical roots of the brachial plexus is known as? A. Erb's palsy B. Klumpke's palsy C. Radicular paralysis D. Lhermitte's sign

A. Erb's palsy - Erb's palsy is most commonly the result of the forceful separation of the head and shoulder which can happen during the birthing process.

The loss of the right visual field in both eyes would be termed? A. Bitemporal hemianopsia B. Binasal hemianopsia C. Heteronymous hemianopsia D. Homonymous hemianopsia

D. Homonymous hemianopsia - Homonymous hemianopsia is characterized by the complete loss of the same visual field in both eyes. Homonymous hemianopsia results from a lesion in the optic nerve deep to the optic chiasm, optic radiation or primary visual cortex. Impairments are contralateral to the site of damage (e.g., right homonymous hemianopsia will result from damage to the structures on the left).

Which of the following contains cerebrospinal fluid and the vascular supply for the cerebral cortex? A. Epidural space B. Subdural space C. Subarachnoid space D. Parietal lobe

C. Subarachnoid space

Which level of the Rancho Los Amigos scale is characterized by the patient no longer requiring supervision once tasks have been learned? A. Level V - Confused-Inappropriate B. Level VI - Confused-Appropriate C. Level VII - Automatic-Appropriate D. Level VIII - Purposeful-Appropriate

D. Level VIII - Purposeful-Appropriate is characterized by the patient’s ability to recall past and recent events and responsiveness to the environment. The patient no longer requires supervision once a task is learned. The patient may continue to have impairments with abstract reasoning, tolerance for stress, and judgment in emergencies or unusual circumstances.

Which of the following tests assesses balance in standing with the feet positioned heel-to-toe with the eyes closed for one minute? A. Tinetti Performance Oriented Mobility Test B. Romberg test C. Sharpened Romberg test D. Functional reach test

C. Sharpened Romberg test

What duration of time on a Timed Up and Go (TUG) test does the patient become a high fall risk? A. greater than 20 seconds B. greater than 25 seconds C. greater than 30 seconds D. greater than 35 seconds

C. greater than 30 seconds

Broca’s area is affected by a CVA that occurs in which of the following vessels? A. Anterior cerebral artery B. Middle cerebral artery C. Posterior cerebral artery D. Basilar artery

B. Middle cerebral artery

Reduced expressiveness of the face is defined as: A. Paresthesia B. Hypokinesia C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Hypomimia

D. Hypomimia

What is the best method to facilitate elbow extension in a patient with hemiplegia? A. By turning the head to the affected side B. By turning the head to the uninvolved side C. By extending the lower extremities D. By flexing the lower extremities

A. By turning the head to the affected side - The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex produces extension of the affected upper extremity when the patient’s head is turned toward the affected side. This reflex may be present following a CVA and can assist to extend the affected elbow.

Which term is most consistent with Wernicke’s aphasia? A. Receptive B. Expressive C. non-fluent D. Global

A. Receptive

Which gross motor skill would be considered the most advanced for a normal developing six-month-old infant? A. Brings hands to mouth B. Uses arms to swing at toys C. Gets to a sitting position by themself D. Rolls from prone to supine

C. Gets to a sitting position by themself

What is the term used to describe involuntary, repeated, rhythmic contractions of a single muscle group? A. Babinski sign B. Hoffmann's sign C. Clonus D. Oppenheim's sign

C. Clonus

The supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles are both innervated by which nerve? A. Axillary B. Suprascapular C. Lower subscapular D. Upper subscapular

B. Suprascapular

Most individuals diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome return to their prior level of function within: A. 1 year B. 6 months C. 2 years D. 4 years

A. 1 year - Most individuals diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) return to their prior level of function within 1 year. More than two-thirds of individuals report symptoms of an infectious disease two weeks before the onset of GBS symptoms.

Information from the periphery enters the spinal cord at which location? A. Lateral column B. Dorsal column C. Dorsal root D. Ventral horn

C. Dorsal root

Which term refers to a practice sequence organized around one task performed repeatedly without interruption by practice of any other task? A. Blocked B. Random C. Massed D. Distributed

A. Blocked - Blocked practice refers to practicing one task only in a repetitive fashion. Walking would be an example of blocked practice.

Which of the following medications is NOT prescribed to treat Alzhemier's Disease? A. Tacrine (Cognex) B. Riluzole (Rilutek) C. Donepezil (Aricept) D. Rivastigmine (Exelon)

B. Riluzole (Rilutek)

Which spinal nerve roots contribute to the brachial plexus? A. C1-T1 B. C3-C8 C. C5-C8 D. C5-T1

D. C5-T1

Using the Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning Scale, a patient with a heightened state of activity, confusion, disorientation, aggressive behavior, inability to perform self-care, and lack of awareness of present events would be classified as: A. Level III B. Level IV C. Level V D. Level VI

B. Level IV

Which nerve is commonly affected when a patient presents with nystagmus? A. Cranial nerve IV D. Cranial nerve V C. Cranial nerve VII D. Cranial nerve VIII

D. Cranial nerve VIII - Nystagmus refers to rapid involuntary movements of the eyes. The presence of nystagmus can be identified by administering vestibuloocular reflex testing. Nystagmus can present in certain head positions with selected medical conditions such as benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.

Which level of the Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning Scale would be characterized by non-purposeful reactions to stimuli? A. Level I - No Response B. Level II - Generalized Response C. Level III - Localized Response D. Level IV - Confused-Agitated

B. Level II - Generalized Response

Which piece of equipment would be the most beneficial to use to assess stereognosis? A. Esthesiometer B. Test Tube C. Paper Clip D. Wool fabric sample

C. Paper Clip - Stereognosis refers to the ability to identify an object by touch without sight. Objects used are typically easily obtainable and familiar such as a paper clip, coin, key or comb.

The patellar reflex which is tested by striking the patellar tendon directly inferior to the patella receives innervation from what nerve roots? A. L3-L4 nerve roots B. L4-L5 nerve roots C. L5-S1 nerve roots D. S1-S2 nerve roots

A. L3-L4 nerve roots

At what spinal level would a disk herniation be most likely to cause weakness of the hip flexor musculature? A. T12 B. L2 C. L5 D. S1

B. L2

A child at which age would be considered a toddler? A. 9 months B. 28 months C. 38 months D. 42 months

B. 28 months - A child is considered a toddler from 12-36 months of age. The toddler phase is characterized by development of language, acquiring concepts of right and wrong, and increasing independence from caregivers.

What is the result of a drug that affects the central nervous system by blocking the reuptake of a neurotransmitter? A. Allows the neurotransmitter to exert its effect longer. B. Decreases activity at the synapse through presynaptic inhibition. C. Blocks propagation of an action potential along the axon. D. Decreases synaptic transmission by blocking post-synaptic receptors.

A. Allows the neurotransmitter to exert its effect longer. A drug that blocks reuptake allows more of the neurotransmitter to remain in the synaptic cleft, thus allowing it to continue to exert its effect. Blocking reuptake increases activity at the synapse.

At what age should a child be able to hold their head steady without support when held? A. 4 months B. 5 months C. 6 months D. 7 months

A. 4 months

Knowledge of results is best described as? A. Feedback during the movement regarding movement patterns. B. Feedback about the overall outcome of the movement in relation to the goal. C. Feedback about the movement prior to initiation of a task. D. Feedback every other trial.

B. Feedback about the overall outcome of the movement in relation to the goal.

Which age would persistence of the Galant reflex be considered normal? A. 1 month B. 4 month C. 7 month D. 10 month

A. 1 month

Is a relay or processing station for the majority of information that goes to the cerebral cortex. It coordinates sensory perception and movement with other parts of the brain and spinal cord that also have a role in sensation and movement. It receives information from the cerebellum, basal ganglia, and all sensory pathways except for the olfactory tract. A. Basal ganglia B. Hypothalamus C. Thalamus D. Pons

C. Thalamus

A structure located below the midbrain and superior to the medulla oblongata. It assists with regulation of respiration rate and is associated with the orientation of the head in relation to visual and auditory stimuli? A. Basal ganglia B. Thalamus C. Hypothalamus D. Pons

D. Pons

Which of the following accurately describes the anatomical extent of the spinal cord? A. From the medulla oblongata to the filum terminale B. From the cerebral cortex to the cauda equina C. From the foramen magnum to the conus medullaris D. From the foramen magnum to the sacral canal

C. From the foramen magnum to the conus medullaris - between the 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae.

Motor nerves originate from which of the following structures? A. Posterior horn of the spinal cord B. Anterior horn of the spinal cord C. Dorsal root ganglion D. Sensory nuclei of the brainstem

B. Anterior horn of the spinal cord

What is the primary function of Schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system? A. Transmit nerve impulses across synapses B. Produce cerebrospinal fluid C. Form the myelin sheath around peripheral nerves D. Act as receptors for sensory stimuli

C. Form the myelin sheath around peripheral nerves

Which of the following symptoms is commonly linked to an upper motor neuron disease? A. severe muscle atrophy B. hyperactive reflexes C. Fasciculations D. Hypotonic

B. hyperactive reflexes

Which potential cause would be least likely to be associated with abnormal “floppy” tone in an infant? A. Neuromuscular disorder B. The infant is weak C. Damage to descending motor pathways D. Premature birth at 28 weeks

C. Damage to descending motor pathways - Damage to descending motor pathways, or upper motor neuron pathways, results in hypertonia. Abnormal “floppy” tone is more characteristic of hypotonia.

Muscle weakness, hypotonicity, and muscle fasciculations are all characteristics of: A. Pseudobulbar affect B. Upper motor neuron pathology C. Bulbar Palsy D. Lower motor neuron pathology

D. Lower motor neuron pathology

The Berg Balance Scale is scored using what scale? A. Three-point scale B. Four-point scale C. Five-point scale D. Six-point scale

C. Five-point scale - The Berg Balance Scale uses an ordinal scale ranging from 0-4 to score each functional task. The scale is considered a five-point scale since 0 is considered a score value.

A type of test that is designed to assess balance specifically for patients with hemiplegia. Each of the seven items assessed is scored from 0 - 2, specific to each item with the maximum score being 14? A. Fugi-Meyer Sensorimotor Assessment of Balance Performance Battery B. Berg Balance Test C. Functional Reach Test D. Romberg Test

A. Fugi-Meyer Sensorimotor Assessment of Balance Performance Battery

Neuromuscular Flashcards

(117 cards)